Introductory Accounting Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Introductory Accounting provides students with a foundational understanding of accounting principles and practices essential for business decision-making. The course covers key topics such as the accounting cycle, preparation and analysis of financial statements, double-entry bookkeeping, and the role of accounting in organizations. Students will learn how to record financial transactions, understand basic accounting terminology, and interpret the financial health of a business. Designed for those with little to no prior knowledge of accounting, this course establishes a base for further study in accounting or finance-related fields.
Recommended Textbook College Accounting A Practical Approach 12th Canadian Edition by Jeffrey Slater
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Accounting Concepts and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) To distinguish the total on a financial statement, use double underlines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Boxes R' Us paid $3,000 in salaries and wages for February. This transaction will:
A)increase expenses and decrease revenue.
B)increase expenses and increase liabilities.
C)decrease assets and increase expenses.
D)decrease assets and expenses.
Answer: C
Q3) The Owner's Equity of Logan's Company is equal to one-quarter of the total assets. Liabilities equal $60,000. What is the amount of Owner's Equity?
A)$40,000
B)$20,000
C)$30,000
D)None of these answers are correct.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Debits and Credits: Analyzing and Recording
Business Transactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The left column of a financial statement is often used to:
A)show debits.
B)show credits.
C)show totals.
D)subtotal numbers.
Answer: D
Q2) Determine the ending owner's equity of a business having a beginning owner's equity of $9,500, additional investments of $450 withdrawals of $1,000, and net income of $1,400.
$ ________
Answer: $10,350 [$9,500 + $450 - $1,000 + 1,400]
Q3) Which of the following groups of accounts have a normal debit balance?
A)Revenue, liabilities, and capital
B)Assets, capital, and withdrawals
C)Liabilities, expenses, and assets
D)Assets, expenses, and withdrawals
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Beginning the Accounting Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A debit to a liability account was posted to an expense account. This would cause:
A)assets to be overstated.
B)liabilities to be understated.
C)owner's equity to be overstated.
D)expenses to be overstated.
Answer: D
Q2) A debit to an expense account was posted to an asset account. This would cause:
A)assets to be understated.
B)liabilities to be understated.
C)capital to be understated.
D)expenses to be understated.
Answer: D
Q3) The debit is indented in a journal entry.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Accounting Cycle Continued
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of account is Salaries Payable?
A)Asset
B)Expense
C)Liability
D)Owner's equity
Q2) Original cost of equipment is not adjusted on the worksheet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A form used to organize and check data before preparing financial reports is known as a(n):
A)trial balance.
B)income statement.
C)balance sheet.
D)worksheet.
Q4) Samantha purchased a two-year insurance policy for $7,200. The adjusting entry for one month would include a:
A)debit to Insurance Expense, $300.
B)credit to Cash, $300.
C)debit to Prepaid Insurance, $300.
D)credit to Insurance expense, $300.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Accounting Cycle Completed
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the balance of the Income Summary account is a debit, the entry to close this account is:
A)debit Capital; credit Income Summary.
B)debit Income Summary; credit Revenue.
C)debit Revenue; credit Income Summary.
D)debit Income Summary; credit Capital.
Q2) The revenue accounts debited and the Income Summary account credited would be the result of:
A)closing the Income Summary account-there is a net income.
B)closing the Income Summary account-there is a net loss.
C)closing the revenue accounts.
D)closing the expense accounts.
Q3) Which of the following accounts would appear on the post-closing trial balance?
A)Fees Earned
B)Rent Expense
C)Owner's Capital
D)Income Summary
Q4) A real account is the same as a permanent account.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Banking Procedure and Control of Cash
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bank statement shows:
A)the beginning bank balance of the cash at the start of the month.
B)the checks the bank has paid and any deposits received.
C)any other charges or additions to the bank balance.
D)All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following transactions would most likely not be recorded in an auxiliary petty cash record?
A)Purchase of first aid supplies
B)Purchase of postage stamps
C)Payment on a $600 utility bill
D)Payment of gas for the company vehicle
Q3) Which of the following accounts would most likely be debited in the replenishment of petty cash?
A)Cash
B)Petty Cash
C)Postage Expense
D)Withdrawals
Q4) When completing a bank reconciliation, explain why all adjustments to the checkbook balance require journal entries?
Q5) ________ Filled up the company's van with gas
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Chapter 7: Calculating Pay and Payroll Taxes: The
Beginning of the Payroll Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Todd earns an hourly rate of $20 and had taxes withheld totaling $200. What would his net earnings be if he worked 44 hours (assuming double time over 40 hours)?
A)$760
B)$780
C)$720
D)$860
Q2) Kim received $1,850 for working 40 hours. What was Kim's rate of pay per hour?
A)$46.25
B)$44.00
C)$45.00
D)$40.00
Q3) Workers' compensation:
A)insures employees against losses they may incur due to injury or death while on the job.
B)is based on the total estimated payroll.
C)is paid for by the employer.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q4) Explain what is meant by the cumulative gross earnings.
Q5) What is required of an employer by the Federal Insurance Contributions Act?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prepare the general journal entry to record the payroll.
reports total wages, FICA tax withheld, etc., for the previous year?
A)Form W-2
B)Form W-3
C)Form SS-4
D)Form 940
Q4) Compute the total overtime earnings. ________
Q5) Why are all of the employer payroll taxes listed in separate payable accounts?
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11
Chapter 9: Sales and Cash Receipts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urban Camping sold goods for $200 to a charge customer. The customer returned for credit $90 worth of goods. Which entry is required to record the return transaction?
A)Debit Sales Returns and Allowances $90; credit Accounts Receivable for $90
B)Debit Sales Returns and Allowances for $90; credit Sales for $90
C)Debit Sales $90; credit Sales Returns and Allowances $90
D)Debit Accounts Receivable $90; credit Sales Returns and Allowances for $90
Q2) Merchandise sold on credit was returned for credit and recorded with a debit to Sales Returns and Allowances and a credit to Accounts Payable. This error will cause:
A)the net income for the period to be overstated.
B)the net income for the period to be understated.
C)the assets to be overstated.
D)the liabilities to be understated.
Q3) Sales is a revenue account.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Sales Returns and Allowances account is contra-revenue.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Purchases and Cash Payments
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Sample Questions
Q1) If merchandise was bought for Cash, the same entry would be made on the company's books regardless of the type of inventory method is used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The entry to record a payment on a $600 account within the 2% discount period would include a:
A)debit to Accounts Payable for $588.
B)debit to Accounts Payable for $600.
C)credit to Purchases for $588.
D)debit to Cash for $600.
Q3) Purchases:
A)decrease net income.
B)increase net income.
C)have no effect on net income.
D)Not enough information provided.
Q4) Determine the amount of credit to be earned on a full return of merchandise purchased with an invoice price of $5,000 and credit terms of 2/10, n/30 when full payment was made within the discount period.
$ ________
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Chapter 11: Preparing a Worksheet for a Merchandise Company
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of supplies used causes a decrease in Supplies and an increase in expense.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The adjustment for salaries is necessary:
A)because the employer did not have enough cash to write the paychecks.
B)to recognize the revenue in the period earned.
C)to recognize the expense in the period incurred.
D)None of the above answers are correct.
Q3) The beginning and ending inventories are combined to determine the balance sheet inventory amount.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An account never used in an adjusting entry is:
A)Consulting Fees-Revenue.
B)Interest Payable.
C)Equipment.
D)Accumulated Depreciation - Equipment.
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Q5) Why is beginning and ending inventory kept as two separate figures in the cost of goods sold section?
Chapter 12: Completion of the Accounting Cycle for a Merchandise Company
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Sample Questions
Q1) The calculation of Net Purchases does not include:
A)Purchases Returns and Allowances.
B)Purchases Discounts.
C)Purchases.
D)Freight-in.
Q2) How is Income Summary closed if the company had a net income?
A)Debit Capital; credit Income Summary
B)Debit Income Summary; credit Capital
C)Debit Capital; credit Withdrawals
D)Debit Withdrawals; credit Capital
Q3) Which of the following adjustments may be reserved?
A)The adjustment to Record Depreciation Expense
B)The adjustment to Allocate Prepaid Insurance to the current period
C)The adjustment to Accrue Salaries Payable
D)The adjustment to determine Supplies Expense for the period
Q4) Plant and Equipment includes which of the following?
A)Cash
B)Accounts Receivable
C)Accumulated Depreciation on Equipment
D)All of these are correct.
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Chapter 13: Accounting for Bad Debts
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Sample Questions
Q1) On December 31, 2010, Paint Pros had a balance in Accounts Receivable of $15,000. Net credit sales for the year were $450,000. The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $900. Journalize the recording of the bad debt expense under the income statement approach if 2% of net credit sales is deemed uncollectible.
Q2) The adjusting entry for uncollectibles is based on an estimate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The entry to adjust for bad debts was ignored. This error would cause:
A)total assets to be overstated.
B)total liabilities to be understated.
C)net income to be understated.
D)None of these are correct.
Q4) A company is not able to reasonably estimate its bad debts expense. The method it may use is:
A)net realizable value method.
B)direct write-off method.
C)aging method.
D)income statement method.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Notes Receivable and Notes Payable
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Sample Questions
Q1) The journal entry to record the payment of a discounted note at maturity is a debit to Notes Payable and Interest Expense, and a credit to Cash.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A note that is not paid on the maturity date is considered dishonored. A)True
B)False
Q3) Betty's Boutique discounts its own 120-day, 6%, $25,000 note payable at a bank. It records the proceeds as:
A)debit Cash $24,500; debit Discounts on Notes Payable $500; credit Notes Payable $25,000.
B)debit Cash $25,000; credit Notes Payable $25,000.
C)debit Cash $23,500; debit Discount on Notes Payable $1,500; credit Notes Payable $25,000.
D)debit Cash $24,500; credit Notes Payable $24,500.
Q4) A 90-day note dated July 9 would be due on October 9.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Accounting for Merchandise Inventory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inventory method that matches old costs with current selling prices is:
A)LIFO.
B)FIFO.
C)weighted-average.
D)specific invoice.
Q2) The ________ system of accounting for inventory provides information on a transaction-by-transaction basis.
Q3) If a mistake is made in calculating ending inventory, it will take three accounting periods to be self-correcting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When merchandise is sold, the perpetual inventory system requires a debit to Cost of Goods Sold and a credit to Merchandise Inventory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a change is made in the inventory valuation method, full disclosure should be indicated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Accounting for Property, Plant, Equipment, and Intangible Assets
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cost of an asset less its accumulated depreciation is called:
A)residual value.
B)salvage value.
C)market value.
D)book value.
Q2) The difference between the item's cost and accumulated depreciation is the ________.
Q3) The units-of-production method does not take into account the passage of time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using MACRS rates for a 3, 5, 7, and 10-year property, what is the percentage for the depreciable rate?
A)200 percent
B)150 percent
C)125 percent
D)100 percent
Q5) Define and compare capital expenditures and revenue expenditures.
19
Q6) The intangible that can have the longest life before renewal is a ________.
Q7) Payments for ordinary maintenance of an asset are called ________.
Q8) A budgeted item such as a building is listed as a ________.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Partnership
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Sample Questions
Q1) Closed the income summary to the partners' accounts with a net income. Debit ________ & ________ & ________
________ & ________ &
Q2) The actions of one partner are binding on all of the other partners. This characteristic is called:
A)mutual agency.
B)exclusive agency.
C)unlimited life.
D)limited liability.
Q3) David and Daniel formed a partnership. David invested $10,000, cash; Daniel invested $5,000 cash and equipment valued at $6,000. The proper entry to record this is to:
A)debit Cash $15,000; debit Equipment $6,000; credit Capital $21,000.
B)debit Cash $15,000; debit Equipment $6,000; credit Accounts Payable $21,000.
C)debit Cash $15,000; debit Equipment $6,000; credit David's Capital $10,000; and credit Daniel's Capital $10,000.
D)debit Cash $15,000; debit Equipment $6,000; credit David's Capital $10,000; and credit Daniel's Capital $11,000.
Q4) During liquidation realized less than book value for the store equipment. Debit ________ & ________ & ________
21
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Chapter 18: Corporations: Organizations and Stock
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Q1) The major parts of the Stockholders' Equity section of the balance sheet are:
A)Paid-in Capital and Retained Earnings.
B)Stock and Retained Earnings.
C)Stock, Paid-in Capital, and Retained Earnings.
D)Authorized Stock and Preferred Stock.
Q2) The Logan Company issued 140 shares of its $12 par value stock for $14 per share.
The entry to record the receipt of cash and issuance of the stock would include a:
A)debit to Cash of $1,680; credit to Common Stock for $1,680.
B)debit to Cash for $1,960.
C)credit to Common Stock for $1,960.
D)debit to Discount on Common Stock for $280
Q3) Describe a stock subscription plan.
Q4) Cox Corporation has issued 1,000 shares of stock. Janis owns 200 shares. If the corporation issues an additional 500 shares, how many shares does Janis have the preemptive right to purchase?
A)100 shares
B)200 shares
C)500 shares
D)None
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Chapter 19: Corporations: Stock Values, Dividends, Treasury
Stocks, and Retained Earnings
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Q1) Gino's Corporation had 20,000 shares of $15 par value common stock outstanding with a market value of $40 per share. Gino announced a four-for-one stock split. After the split, the par value of the stock:
A)remained the same as before the split.
B)was reduced to $3.75 per share.
C)was reduced by $3.75 per share.
D)was reduced to $10.00 per share.
Q2) Before a three-for-one stock split, the shares outstanding were 5,000 shares at $12 par. After the split, what was the par and number of shares?
A)15,000 shares at $12 per share
B)20,000 shares at $6 per share
C)15,000 shares at $4 per share
D)5,000 shares at $48 per share
Q3) Sold treasury stock at a price below cost when there was sufficient paid-in capital from treasury stock to absorb the difference between cost and selling price.
Debit ________ & ________ & ________ Credit ________ & ________ &
Q4) Sold preferred stock at a price above par.
Debit ________ & ________ & ________ Credit ________ & ________ &
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Chapter 20: Corporations and Bonds Payable
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Q1) Bonds payable issued with collateral are called:
A)debenture bonds.
B)serial bonds.
C)callable bonds.
D)secured bonds.
Q2) A bond is issued for an amount equal to its face value. Which of the following statements most likely would explain why?
A)The bond's contract rate is lower than the market rate at the time of the issue.
B)The bond's contract rate is the same as the market rate at the time of the issue.
C)The bond's contract rate is higher than the market rate at the time of the issue.
D)The bond is secured by specific assets of the corporation.
Q3) For a corporation, a premium on bonds results when:
A)the contract rate is greater than the market rate.
B)the contract rate is less than the market rate.
C)the face value is greater than the effective rate.
D)None of these answers are correct.
Q4) What is the difference between a secured bond and a debenture bond?
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Chapter 21: Statement of Cash Flows
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Q1) Selling stocks of other companies for cash would result in:
A)an increase of cash flow from investing activities.
B)a decrease of cash flow from investing activities.
C)an increase of cash flow from financing activities.
D)a decrease of cash flow from financing activities.
Q2) Carolina Company sold a machine for $12,000 cash, which had an original cost of $19,000 and accumulated depreciation of $6,000. The amount of cash provided by this sale is:
A)$12,000.
B)$13,000.
C)$18,000.
D)$19,000.
Q3) The section of the statement of cash flows from investing activities includes:
A)buying debts or stocks of other companies.
B)collecting loans and/or interest.
C)cash purchases of equipment.
D)All of the above.
Q4) An example of operating activities is the payment of dividends.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Analyzing Financial Statements
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Q1) A current ratio of 1.5 times would mean that the business has 1.5 times more liabilities than assets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Net income was $45,000 in Year 1 and $60,000 in Year 2. The percentage increase in net income was:
A)33.33%.
B)133.33%.
C)(25%).
D)(33.33).
Q3) For vertical analysis purposes, the base item on an income statement is:
A)net income.
B)net sales.
C)total expenses.
D)total sales.
Q4) The acid test ratio is the best test to determine the ability to pay short-term debt.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Voucher System
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Q1) The check register would contain a column for all except:
A)the payee name.
B)a debit to Vouchers Payable.
C)a credit to Cash.
D)All of the above would be included in columns.
Q2) When a purchase is made, the business will:
A)credit Vouchers Payable.
B)enter a voucher in the voucher register.
C)debit Purchases.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Paid voucher #424.
Debit ________ & ________ & ________
________ & ________ &
Q4) Paid voucher #425, payment was after the discount period.
Debit ________ & ________ & ________
Q5) All paid vouchers may be filed in the paid voucher file according to:
A)check number.
B)date of payment.
C)voucher number.
D)invoice date.
Page 27
Q6) Any change in an already recorded voucher dictates the ________ of that voucher.
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Chapter 24: Departmental Accounting
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Q1) A company has three departments (A, B, and C)and the net sales are $350,000; $410,000; and $285,000 respectively. The cost of goods sold per department are $295,000; $360,000; and $225,000 respectively. What department has the highest gross profit?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)Both departments A and B
Q2) What is the total gross profit of the company if there are three departments (A, B, and C)and the net sales are $200,000, $164,000, and $286,000, respectively, and cost of goods sold is $86,000, $92,000, and $82,000, respectively?
A)$390,000
B)$650,000
C)$400,000
D)$260,000
Q3) In a department store, the men's clothing section would be a(n):
A)profit center.
B)direct expense.
C)cost center.
D)indirect expense.
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Chapter 25: Manufacturing Accounting
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Q1) The Overhead-Applied account is used for the:
A)application of overhead to production and it has a credit balance.
B)accumulation of all actual overhead costs and it has a credit balance.
C)application of overhead to production and it has a debit balance.
D)accumulation of all actual overhead costs and it has a debit balance.
Q2) The Overhead-Control account is used for the:
A)application of overhead to production and it has a debit balance.
B)accumulation of all actual overhead costs and it has a credit balance.
C)application of overhead to production and it has a credit balance.
D)accumulation of all actual overhead costs and it has a debit balance.
Q3) A material requisition is a:
A)document prepared to show the movement of materials or products between departments.
B)document used to order materials or supplies from the vendor or supplier.
C)document used for charging material to production.
D)document used to record receipt of materials or supplies from the vendor or supplier.
Q4) All expenses are listed on the income statement of a manufacturer.
A)True
B)False
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