Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing provides students with foundational knowledge and skills to care for childbearing women, newborns, and children. The course covers key concepts in maternal health, prenatal and postnatal care, labor and delivery, growth and development, and pediatric illnesses. Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, principles of health promotion, and the nurses role in supporting patients through common challenges unique to maternity and pediatric populations. Students will develop assessment, communication, and critical thinking skills necessary for safe, effective nursing practice in these specialized patient groups.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A)The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B)Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C)Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D)Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based teaching and learning principles. Which situation is most conducive to learning with patients of other cultures?
A) An auditorium is being used as a classroom for 300 students.
B) A teacher who speaks very little Spanish is teaching a class of Hispanic students.
C) A class is composed of students of various ages and educational backgrounds.
D) An Asian nurse provides nutritional information to a group of pregnant Asian women.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement with regard to reproductive anatomy and physiology is inaccurate?
A) Female patients who are past puberty and sexually active can become pregnant even if they have not had a menstrual cycle.
B) Puberty symptoms are more prominent in males than females.
C) Females enter puberty earlier than their male counterparts.
D) Secondary sexual characteristics develop during puberty.
Answer: B
Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Select the actions of the estrogen hormone that the nurse should include in the lessons. (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Answer: B, C, D
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene are generally
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
Q2) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session for childbearing-age female patients. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to avoiding exposing a fetus to teratogens?
A)Eliminate use of acne medications.
B)Immunizations should be updated during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C)Use of saunas and hot tubs during pregnancy should be during the winter months only.
D)Alcoholic beverages can be consumed in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q2) A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of expectant parents. Which information should the nurse include in her discussion of the purpose of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cushions the fetus
B) Protects the skin of the fetus
C) Provides nourishment for the fetus
D) Allows for buoyancy for fetal movement
E) Maintains a stable temperature for the fetus
Q3) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has just learned that she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick's sign. When the patient asks the nurse what this means, how would the nurse respond?
A) "Chadwick's sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood."
B) "That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy."
C) "This means that a mucus plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection."
D) "This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix."
Q2) Which physiologic findings related to gallbladder function may lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy?
A) Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women
B) Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution
C) Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue
D) Prolonged emptying time
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors contribute to the presence of edema in the pregnant patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet consisting of processed foods
B) Hemoconcentration
C) Increase in colloid osmotic pressure
D) Last trimester of pregnancy
E) Decreased venous return
Q2) Which information is covered by early pregnancy classes offered in the first and second trimesters?
A) Methods of pain relief
B) The phases and stages of labor
C) Coping with common discomforts of pregnancy
D) Prebirth and postbirth care of a patient having a cesarean birth
Q3) What is the gravida and para for a patient who delivered triplets 2 years ago and is now pregnant again?
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 1
D) 1, 3
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?
A) Before pregnancy
B) In the first trimester
C) In the third trimester
D) In the second trimester
Q2) Changes in the diet of the pregnant patient who has phenylketonuria would include
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
Q3) Which patient would require additional calories and nutrients?
A) A 36-year-old female gravida 2, para 1, in her first trimester of pregnancy
B) An 18-year-old female who delivered a 7-lb baby and is bottle feeding
C) A 23-year-old female who had a cesarean birth and is bottle feeding
D) A 20-year-old female who had a vaginal birth 5 months ago and is breastfeeding
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q2) The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant patient. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history?
A) Maternal diabetes
B) Weight gain of 25 lb
C) Maternal age older than 30 years
D) Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth
Q3) A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Prostaglandin suppository
C) RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative
D) Betamethasone
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
A) Increase the patient's IV fluids.
B) Administer calcium gluconate.
C) Vigorously stimulate the patient.
D) Instruct the patient to take deep breaths.
Q2) The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?
A) Edema
B) Proteinuria
C) Glucosuria
D) Hypertension
Q3) Nursing intervention for pregnant patients with diabetes is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin is
A) varied depending on the stage of gestation.
B) increased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
C) decreased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
D) should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many teens wait until the second or even third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Continuing to deny the pregnancy
B) Uncertainty about where to go for care
C) Lack of realization that they are pregnant
D) A desire to gain control over their situation
E) Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible
Q2) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q3) A patient who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because
A) prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
B) personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
C) contraceptives have been used for an extended period of time.
D) the ovaries may be affected by the normal aging process.
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the duration of a patient's labor contractions. Which method does the nurse implement to assess the duration of labor contractions?
A) Assess the strongest intensity of each contraction.
B) Assess uterine relaxation between two contractions.
C) Assess from the beginning to the end of each contraction.
D) Assess from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
Q2) The clinical nurse educator is providing instruction to a group of new nurses during labor orientation. Which information regarding the factors that have a role in the initiation of labor should the educator include in this teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Progesterone levels become higher than estrogen levels.
B) Natural oxytocin in conjunction with other substances plays a role.
C) Stretching, pressure, and irritation of the uterus and cervix increase.
D) The secretion of prostaglandins from the fetal membranes decreases.
Q3) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to an unprepared laboring patient is during which stage?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Transition phase
Q2) The process of labor places significant metabolic demands on the obstetric patient. Which physiologic findings would be expected?
A) Decreased maternal blood pressure as a result of stimulation of alpha receptors
B) Uterine vasoconstriction as a result of stimulation of beta receptors
C) Increased maternal demand for oxygen
D) Increased blood flow to placenta because of catecholamine release
Q3) Excessive anxiety during labor heightens the patient's sensitivity to pain by increasing
A) muscle tension.
B) the pain threshold.
C) blood flow to the uterus.
D) rest time between contractions.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
Q2) The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring patient. Which data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure?
A) Presenting part not engaged
B) +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Twin gestation
Q3) Which clinical finding can be determined only by electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Variability
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fetal response to contractions
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16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding is an indication of hemorrhage in the recently delivered postpartum patient?
A) Elevated pulse rate
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Firm fundus at the midline
D) Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours
Q2) The nurse is caring for a low-risk patient in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
Q3) If a woman's fundus is soft 30 minutes after birth, the nurse's first action should be to A) massage the fundus.
B) take the blood pressure.
C) notify the physician or nurse-midwife.
D) place the woman in Trendelenburg position.
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A labor patient has been diagnosed with cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) following attempts at pushing for 2 hours with no progress. Based on this information, which birth method is most appropriate?
A) Vaginal birth with vacuum extraction
B) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) to improve contraction pattern and strengthen contractions
C) Cesarean section
D) Insertion of Foley catheter into empty bladder to provide more room for fetal descent
Q2) Which assessment finding in the postpartum patient following a uterine inversion indicates normovolemia?
A) Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg
B) Urine output >30 mL/hour
C) Rebound skin turgor <5 seconds
D) Pulse rate <120 beats/minute
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Formal
B) Informal
C) Personal
D) Anticipatory
Q2) Which fundal assessment finding at 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A) The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
B) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
C) The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
Q3) The nurse is providing care to a patient who delivered a 3525-g infant 14 hours ago. The nurse palpates the fundus of the uterus as firm and at the umbilicus. What is the nurse's priority action related to this finding?
A) Inform the health care provider.
B) Encourage the patient to urinate.
C) Massage the uterus to expel clots.
D) Document the finding in the patient's chart.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing measures that help prevent postpartum urinary tract infection include
A) forcing fluids to at least 3000 mL/day.
B) promoting bed rest for 12 hours after birth.
C) encouraging the intake of grapefruit juice and carbonated beverages.
D) discouraging voiding until the sensation of a full bladder is present.
Q2) A patient has been treated with oxytocin (Pitocin) for postpartum hemorrhage. Bleeding has stabilized and slowed down considerably. The peripad in place reveals a moderate amount of bright red blood, with no clots expelled when massaging the fundus. The patient now complains of having difficulty breathing. Auscultation of breath sounds reveals adventitious sounds. Based on this clinical presentation, the priority nursing action is to
A) evaluate intake and output of the past 12 hours following birth.
B) initiate a rapid response intervention.
C) obtain an order from the physician for type and crossmatch of 2 units packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
D) reposition the patient and reassess in 15 minutes. Initiate frequent vital sign assessments.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process in which bilirubin is changed from a fat-soluble product to a water-soluble product is known as
A) albumin binding.
B) enterohepatic circuit.
C) conjugation of bilirubin.
D) deconjugation of bilirubin.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a vitamin K injection to the infant shortly after birth. Which statement is important to understand regarding the properties of vitamin K?
A) It is necessary for the production of platelets.
B) It is important for the production of red blood cells.
C) It is not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth.
D) It is responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and the prevention of jaundice.
Q3) Which infant is at greater risk to develop cold stress?
A) Full-term infant delivered vaginally without complications.
B) 36-week infant with an Apgar score of 7 to 9.
C) 38-week female infant delivered via cesarean birth because of cephalopelvic disproportion.
D) Term infant delivered vaginally with epidural anesthesia.
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q2) The nurse is receiving shift report on her mother-baby couplet assignment. Which infant should the nurse evaluate first?
A) 38-weeks' gestation female newborn with a blood sugar level of 60 mg/dL
B) Term male newborn with a noted axillary temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
C) 40-weeks' gestation female newborn with reported poor feed at last attempt
D) 39-weeks' gestation male newborn who has been crying prior to initial bath
Q3) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low-set ears
B) Yellow sclera
C) A doll's eye sign
D) Edema of the eyelids
E) Absence of the grasp reflex
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse teach to new parents regarding the use of a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once per day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
Q2) Which of the following is the appropriate treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
Q3) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a full-term formula-fed infant need each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 100 to 110
C) 120 to 140
D) 150 to 200
Q2) The breastfeeding patient should be taught a safe method to remove her breast from the baby's mouth. Which suggestion by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infant's mouth.
B) A popping sound occurs when the breast is correctly removed from the infant's mouth.
C) Slowly remove the breast from the baby's mouth when the infant has fallen asleep and the jaws are relaxed.
D) Elicit the Moro reflex in the baby to wake the baby up, and remove the breast when the baby cries.
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24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?
A) Promote bonding.
B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.
C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.
Q2) Which statement regarding newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA) is accurate?
A) They weigh less than 2500 G
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.
D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
Q3) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
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Page 25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a cardiac defect causes the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the right side of the heart, the nurse might expect to find
A) cyanosis.
B) diuresis.
C) signs of congestive heart failure.
D) increased oxygenation of the tissues.
Q2) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q3) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which contraceptive method should be contraindicated in a patient with a history of toxic shock syndrome?
A) Condom
B) Spermicide
C) Cervical cap
D) Oral contraceptives
Q2) A patient has had a prior history of endometriosis and comes to the clinic asking about which method of birth control might be helpful to alleviate her symptoms. Which birth control method would provide the greatest benefit to this patient?
A) Withdrawal method
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Depo-Provera
D) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Q3) When instructing a patient in the use of spermicidal foam or gel, it is important to include the information that
A) effectiveness is about 85%.
B) douching should be avoided for at least 6 hours.
C) it should be inserted 1 to 2 hours before intercourse.
D) one application is effective for several hours.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which specific instruction should the nurse teach to assist a patient to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Perform Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
Q2) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a patient who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q3) Which concern is included in the plan of care for the patient who receives HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in oral form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The vaccine (Gardasil) should not be given to any patient with a sensitivity to yeast.
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