Introduction to Zoology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Zoology provides a comprehensive overview of the animal kingdom, exploring the diversity, structure, function, development, evolution, and ecological relationships of animals. Students examine the major animal phyla, learn about animal classification systems, and investigate fundamental biological processes such as reproduction, physiology, and behavior. The course also discusses the evolutionary principles that underpin animal diversity and adaption, preparing students for more specialized studies in biology and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman
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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Q1) A molecular pathway in the liver that is responsible for breaking down complex molecules into simple molecules for excretion as wastes is an example of A)anabolism.
B)catabolism.
C)adaptation.
D)entropy.
Answer: B
Q2) Eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant star.This red giant will engulf the earth and then "burn out." All forms of energy will be dispersed in a final "heat death." Compared with conditions today,the total entropy of the universe then will
A)have increased only slightly.
B)have decreased greatly.
C)have increased greatly.
D)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: A
Q3) A group within an experimental design that is subjected to all the conditions except the experimental variable is called the ______________.
Answer: control
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The alpha-helix is an example of the _______ structure of a protein.
Answer: secondary
Q2) Bacteria contain a single,large molecule of DNA in the ____________ region.
Answer: nucleoid
Q3) Pasteur's work with spontaneous generation showed that A)life could not have evolved from non-living chemistry on the early earth.
B)mice came from mother mice and maggots from mother flies.
C)simple chemicals could become complex organic macromolecules without any living cell involved.
D)broth did not ferment spontaneously but required contamination with organisms. Answer: D
Q4) If the hypothesis that protocells were based on an "RNA world" is correct,what would be necessary to shift to a "DNA world"?
A)An enzyme or reaction capable of removing one oxygen from ribose in nucleotides
B)Enzymes for reverse transcription of RNA into DNA
C)New enzymes to replicate the DNA
D)New enzymes for transcribing DNA back to RNA
E)All are necessary to switch to a "DNA world."
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Q1) Which occurs during metaphase?
A)Centrioles move to opposite poles
B)Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell
C)Chromosomes move to opposite poles
D)The nuclear envelope disappears
Answer: B
Q2) Which element is NOT correctly associated below?
A)Cilia have 9 pair of microtubules surrounding a central pair
B)Microtubules are made up of a protein called tubulin
C)Pseudopodia stream without the involvement of any microfilaments
D)Centrioles have a microtubule structure
Answer: C
Q3) Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?
A)S,G<sub>1</sub>,G<sub>2</sub>
B)G<sub>2</sub>,S,G<sub>1</sub>
C)G<sub>1</sub>,S,G<sub>2</sub>
D)G<sub>1</sub>,G<sub>2</sub>,S
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) How do an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
A)The enzyme breaks down as product is released
B)The whole enzyme is a key that fits into the substrate that is a lock forming a new molecule product
C)Any active site is permanently changed when it interacts with the substrate
D)As the substrate binds to the enzyme,the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction
Q2) Endergonic reactions
A)are always coupling reactions.
B)occur spontaneously.
C)can only occur if there is an input of energy.
D)are associated with the release of energy.
Q3) Glycolysis involves the conversion of 6-carbon glucose into 3-carbon fragments of
Q4) Which process produces alcohol or lactate?
A)The Krebs cycle
B)Glycolysis
C)The electron transport system
D)Fermentation
E)Oxidative phosphorylation
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Q1) A section of a chromosome breaks out and then reinserts itself into the gap it left,but in the opposite direction.What is this called?
A)Aneuploidy
B)An inversion
C)A translocations
D)A deletion
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct about X-linked characteristics?
A)More males than females are affected.
B)If a female exhibits the trait,all of her sons will also inherit and exhibit it.
C)Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it.
D)Males have two copies of the alleles for the trait,but females have only one.
Q3) Messenger RNA is transcribed using which strand of DNA?
A)Sense strand
B)Antisense strand
C)Messenger RNA is not transcribed from DNA
D)Both strands of DNA are typically used
Q4) The phenomenon where an allele at one locus may mask or prevent the expression of an allele at another locus acting on the same trait is called ____________.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Q1) The use of bird feathers for flight is an example of ________________ which contrasts to adaptation of the feather for its primary evolutionary role,thermoregulation.
Q2) The theory that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny was originally offered by A)Alfred Wallace.
B)K.
C)Charles Darwin.
D)Ernst Haeckel.
E)von Baer.
Q3) When we compare amino acid differences to estimate the evolutionary "distance" between organisms,what assumptions are being made about the rate at which mutations occur over time?
Q4) Lamarck's theory of evolution was centered on the idea that A)individuals with genetic variations have different survival rates.
B)species are only produced through special creation.
C)species are fixed and unchanging over time.
D)an individual organism changes during its lifetime,and these changes can be passed on to offspring.
Q5) The generation of ecologically diverse species from a common ancestral stock is called ________________.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) A metabolite of testosterone that has important hormone effects is
A)FSH.
B)TSH.
C)anti-testosterone.
D)dihydrotestosterone.
E)progesterone.
Q2) Trace the path taken by human sperm cells as they develop and leave the body,providing the identity of each accessory gland that adds fluids to the semen,and the function of those fluids,in the order they are encountered.
Q3) Birds never developed an internal placental system but are confined to laying eggs.Consider the many physiological burdens and limitations imposed by bearing live young,and then consider all of the adaptations of birds for flight.Given that birds arose from dinosaur-like ancestors that also laid eggs,but birds managed to evolve a high metabolism and other specialized features,discuss one physiological reason that probably limits birds from ever evolving viviparity.
Q4) Compare meiotic and ameiotic parthenogenesis and provide an example of each.
Q5) The outermost layer of differentiating sex cells in the testes,called ________,divide by ordinary mitosis.
Q6) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Q1) Evolutionary Developmental Biology (Evo-Devo)is a relatively new field that links the study of evolution to the study of development.Which statement below is best supported by the emerging principles of Evo-Devo?
A)The common ancestor to protostomes and deuterostomes likely had rudimentary eyes.This has been determined by studying the genes associated with eye development from these groups and finding a gene that is identical regardless of the species studied.
B)The bilaterally symmetrical animals all appear to be similar with only minor changes in the genes that form the nervous system.These changes are responsible for animal diversity through the use of different inductive strategies.
C)The dorsoventral patterning genes,studied in various protostome and deuterostome lineages,demonstrate that these groups used convergent evolution to obtain similar developmental processes.
D)The rapid evolution of new animal body forms may rely less on numerous,small mutations and more on a few mutations in genes that regulate development.
Q2) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
Q3) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
Q4) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
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Chapter 9: Architectual Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) A blastula develops into which state as the gut cavity develops?
A)It remains in the blastula stage.
B)gastrula
C)acoelomate
D)pseudocoelomate
Q2) _________________ is a fibrous protein found in connective tissue,and probably the most abundant protein in the animal kingdom.
Q3) Your nose would be considered
A)medial,anterior,and dorsal.
B)medial,anterior,and ventral.
C)medial,posterior,and ventral.
D)lateral,anterior,and ventral.
Q4) In animal anatomy,distal parts are farther from the middle of the body than are __________ parts.
Q5) In animal anatomy,the term that designates the back side of an animal is _____________.
Q6) Serial repetition of similar body segments along the longitudinal axis of the body is called ___________.
Q7) The study of tissues is called ________________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) Species that have very restricted geographic distributions are called ____________________.
Q2) Homoplasy involves
A)any two organisms with exactly the same trait.
B)two organisms sharing the same trait because they have a common ancestor with that trait.
C)two or more lineages having what appears to be the same trait.
D)possession of homologous structures.
Q3) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
Q4) A taxon is paraphyletic if it
A)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants.
B)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some,but not all,of its descendants.
C)does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
D)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
Q5) "A characteristic reaction and mutual relationship between environment and organism,a way of life and not a place where life is led" is the classical description of a/an ___________ _________.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chagas disease in the Americas is carried by A)mosquitoes.
B)contaminated water supplies.
C)contact with cats and cat feces.
D)triatomine "kissing" bugs.
E)sexual contact.
Q2) The early development of a globular colony (with flagella inward)that then turns inside-out (with flagella outward)is
A)called an undulating membrane and is common among ciliates.
B)a pseudoplasmodium and only found in protozoans.
C)called inversion,and it is very common in early development in many animal groups.
D)called inversion,and it is very rare among animals,only occurring in colonial flagellates and sponges.
E)called reverse gastrulation and it is very rare among animals.
Q3) The protozoan group that contains only endoparasitic forms is the ____________________.
Q4) The structure in a Euglena that functions to orient it to light is the _______________________ or eyespot.
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) The demosponges
A)constitute only a small number of species.
B)are mostly marine but include the freshwater sponges.
C)have the asconoid-type canal system.
D)are referred to as calcium or chalk sponges.
E)form the most beautiful glass spicule patterns.Members of the class Demospongia are the most common sponges.Most are large,leuconoid sponges.
Q2) About 95% of the sponges belong to the class __________.
Q3) The flagellated cells embedded in the mesohyl of a sponge are called ___________________.Choanocytes line the spongocoel and flagellated chambers of sponges.They propel water through a sponge and filter food from the water.
Q4) New evidence suggests that the calcarea belong to a clade separate from other sponges.Discuss the evidence upon which this idea is based.
Q5) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
Q6) About 80% of particulate organic carbon in the marine environment is in the form of the smallest particles that sponges can consume,and phagocytosis of these particles is carried out by the ____________.Choanocytes create water currents and filter particulate food matter from the water.
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Chapter 13: Cnidarians and Ctenophores
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Q1) A living anemone must detect non-living debris that floats by from potential food that also move past it.How does it detect the difference?
A)It responds to anything with DNA as living
B)It has a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine
C)They respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey
D)There is a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine;additionally they respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey E)They merely sample everything that moves and discard the inorganic debris
Q2) The tall secretory cells around the pedal disc and mouth of hydra are the ______ cells.
Q3) The free-swimming __________ larva is similar to an adult ctenophore and develops directly into an adult.
Q4) A distinguishing characteristic of cubozoan medusae is the presence of flattened blades called ___________ at the base of the tentacles.
Q5) Water in the gastrovascular cavity serves as a ________________ skeleton.
Q6) Nematocysts are stinging organelles contained inside cells called __________________.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha, Platyzoa, and Mesozoa
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Q1) The monogenetic flukes
A)are mostly ectoparasites.
B)are usually found in rabbits.
C)require an intermediate and a definitive host.
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices is correct
Q2) Turbellarians have light-sensitive organs called _______________ or eyespots.
Q3) The posterior attachment organ of monogeneans is the ________________.
Q4) Humans become infected with Taenia saginatus when they
A)eat poorly cooked fish.
B)eat poorly cooked pork.
C)eat poorly cooked beef.
D)eat unwashed salads.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) Platyhelminths are
A)carnivores in most cases.
B)nearly all marine dwellers.
C)nonparasitic.
D)mostly dioecious.
E)All of the choices are correct
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) The fossil record of brachiopods shows
A)they have only recently branched off from molluscan bivalves.
B)they have existed nearly unchanged in design since the Ordovician times.
C)they have evolved rapidly to displace many molluscs.
D)they have never been common and are now going extinct.
E)they are now much bigger than they were in earlier times.
Q2) The lophophorate animals that have their bodies covered by a mantle belong to the phylum ________.
Q3) Ectoprocta live in
A)only freshwater sediment.
B)bivalved shells they secrete.
C)colonies and form protective masses.
D)secreted tubes in sand or attached to rocks.
E)echinoderm intestines as parasites.
Q4) The coelom of a lophophorate is divided into
A)two parts: the anteriocoel and posteriocoel.
B)three parts: the protocoel,mesocoel,and metacoel.
C)four parts: the left and right supracoel and subcoel.
D)two parts: the basicoel and the exterocoel extending into the tentacles.
E)a interior hypocoel and a surrounding pericoel.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) The tongue-like,rasping organ in the head of many molluscs is the
Q2) Most cephalopods have an ink gland that secretes ______________,a dark fluid containing melanin,to confuse enemies.
Q3) The ________ _________ projects into a bivalve stomach to keep the contents whirling while releasing digestive enzymes.
Q4) The radula
A)not only rasps off fine food particles but also serves as a conveyor belt to carry food toward the digestive tract.
B)replaces worn teeth by secreting new teeth at the posterior end.
C)varies in number,pattern,and form of teeth,allowing species to be classified by this trait.
D)may be modified to bore through hard materials.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) How do you account for the enormous radiation of the molluscs? Give factual support for your answer.
Q6) What surface (e.g. ,dorsal,ventral,anterior,posterior)of the squid faces forward as the animal moves by jet propulsion? What surface faces forward in a swimming cuttlefish? Explain your answers.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) Select the list of characteristics typical of annelids.
A)Segmentation,open circulation,and metanephridia
B)Segmentation,a closed circulatory system,and metanephridia
C)An exoskeleton,metanephridia,and a pseudocoelom
D)An exoskeleton,Malpighian tubules,and a pseudocoelom
E)Metanephridia,a true coelom,and open circulation
Q2) Discuss the importance of a trochophore larva in both the Annelida and the Mollusca.
Q3) Oligochaetes are primarily
A)marine.
B)aquatic.
C)terrestrial.
D)parasitic.
E)micropredators.
Q4) The Hirudinida are unique in that they have both an anterior and a posterior ___________.
Q5) When earthworms mate,the _______________ secretes mucus to hold them together.
Q6) The spaces in the coelom of leeches are called the _______________.
Q8) Of what evolutionary significance is the "hydrostatic skeleton"? Page 19
Q7) The temporary food storage organ in the earthworm is the _________________.
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Copulatory spicules function to
A)attract the female.
B)deliver sperm to the female vagina or gonopore.
C)hold the female vulva open against hydrostatic pressure.
D)store sperm in the male until copulation occurs.
E)store sperm in the female after copulation.
Q2) Most male nematodes bear a pair of ________ ________ at their posterior end to aid in insemination of the female.
Q3) The entire forepart of the body of a loricifera can be withdrawn into the __________________.
Q4) Nematodes have a fluid-filled pseudocoel that serves as a _____________ skeleton.
Q5) The outer body covering of a nematode is a relatively thick,noncellular cuticle,which is constructed primarily of a protein known as _______.
Q6) Outline the life cycle of Wuchereria bancrofti.
Q7) Describe the life cycle of a Trichinella worm.
Q8) The infective stage of Ascaris is the _____________,which is resistant to adverse conditions.
Q9) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) The term "myriapod" includes
A)all arthropods,gastropods,and brachiopods.
B)just the millipedes and centipedes.
C)insects and their ancestors.
D)all arthropods except arachnids and crustaceans.
E)centipedes,millipedes,pauropods and symphylans but not insects.
Q2) The arthropodan cuticle is not entirely hardened.Why not (think of the need to be mobile and flexible)?
Q3) Which arachnid has a bite or sting that is neurotoxic and causes paralysis?
A)Scorpion
B)Brown recluse spider
C)Black widow spider
D)All arachnids have such a toxin and are dangerous if large enough to bite us
E)No arachnid has a dangerous neurotoxic bite
Q4) Discuss the ecological position of the spiders as a group.
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of arthropodization? Aren't tetrapods such as humans as successful as arthropods? Explain your reasoning.
Q6) Why are the Opiliones considered to be in a clade with the scorpions and not so closely aligned with the Acari?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) Discuss the evolutionary significance of the serial homology of crustacean appendages.
Q2) Water fleas,which belong to the branchiopodan suborder ____________,often reproduce by parthenogenesis.
Q3) If crayfish are raised in a very clean aquarium that only has iron filings in the floor,and they are allowed to go through several molts so that an iron filing is now serving as a statolith,what would be the effect of a large magnet suspended above the aquarium?
A)There would be no effect at all.
B)The crayfish would swim sideways.
C)The crayfish would swim upside down.
D)The crayfish would be unable to detect food.
E)The crayfish would be blind.
Q4) The "bailer" of a crayfish that draws water over the gill filaments is a part of the A)second maxillae.
B)caudal furca.
C)third maxilliped.
D)first walking leg.
E)first swimmeret.
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Chapter 21: Hexapods
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Q1) Wing muscles that are attached to the wing itself are considered ____________ flight muscles.
Q2) Explain how the contraction of muscles of the jaw or limbs aid in insect respiration.
Q3) Describe the philosophy and the strategies used in integrated pest management.
Q4) The stages in the life cycle of a holometabolous insect are egg,larva,________________,adult.
Q5) The stages in the life cycle of a hemimetabolous insect are egg,______________,and adult.
Q6) Insects undergo a period of dormancy in winter or summer called A)ecdysis.
B)trophallaxis.
C)metamorphosis.
D)diapause.
E)the pupal stage.
Q7) During postembryonic development,most insects undergo a change in form called
Q8) Each stage of an insect between molts is called a(n)_____________.
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Q9) Explain why some entognathans may be more closely related to insects than other entognathans.
Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) The hemichordates and echinoderms apparently form a sister group to the ________________.
Q2) Treating sea urchin eggs with hypertonic seawater or subjecting them to other stimuli causes them to develop without the presence of sperm,a phenomenon called A)isogamy.
B)polyspermy.
C)artificial insemination.
D)artificial parthenogenesis.
E)fertilization sensitivity.
Q3) The grooves that run along the oral side of the arms of sea stars are called ________________ grooves.
Q4) Clade Ambulacraria contains two deuterostome phyla: Echinodermata and
Q5) A sea star feeds by absorbing food through the A)tube feet on the tentacles.
B)dermal calcareous ossicles.
C)stone and ring canals.
D)lower part of stomach which is everted.
E)sieve plate.
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) The larva of the freshwater lamprey,that closely resembles the amphioxus lancelet,is the
A)Ammocoete.
B)Branchiostoma.
C)Cephalaspidomorph.
D)Heterostracan.
E)Ostracoderm.
Q2) Are the jawless ostracoderms a real taxon (that is,are they a monophyletic group)?
Q3) Salps in the class Thalacea
A)are barrel-shaped open-ocean organisms.
B)have larger transparent bodies.
C)may be luminous at night.
D)may occur singly or in long chains.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Pelagic tunicates with barrel-shaped bodies and complex life histories belong to the class _________.
Q5) One overriding advantage of the endoskeleton of vertebrates,as compared to the invertebrate exoskeleton is that it permits __________ without the necessity of molting.
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Sharks remove excess sodium chloride from blood by means of the kidney and the ____________ gland.
Q2) The cladistic use of the term "fish"
A)applies to a monophyletic group of aquatic vertebrates.
B)includes all swimming animals from the amphioxus lancelet up to,but not including,the true amphibians.
C)would also include the common ancestor with land vertebrates (including us)and a strict cladist would then include us in "fish."
D)only includes aquatic vertebrates with gills.
E)reflects any vertebrate that is adapted to water.
Q3) In schooling,fish rely on sensitivity to vibration and water currents.This is provided by cells called neuromasts located inside what structure?
A)Caudal fin
B)Gills
C)Swim bladder
D)Lateral-line
E)Placoid scales
Q4) The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
Q5) Compare the ammocoete larva with the fry of a teleost fish.
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Caecilians
A)live in the tropics around the world.
B)are blind or nearly blind as adults.
C)are elongate,burrowing animals.
D)use copulation for internal fertilization.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Compare and contrast the sensory systems of bony fish with those of adult anurans.
Q3) The ______ of the amphibian hindbrain is concerned with equilibrium and movement coordination.
Q4) A specialized structure in the conus arteriosus of the frog heart,called the ______ ______,is thought to maintain selective distribution of oxygenated and unoxygenated blood.
Q5) What change(s)does an animal that moves from water to land have to accommodate?
A)Change in oxygen content
B)Regulation of body temperature in a more extreme environment
C)Wider diversity of habitats
D)About 1000 times less buoyant density and 50 times less viscosity than water
E)All of the choices are challenges of life out of water
Q6) Outline the circulatory pathways of amphibians.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) Discuss the circulatory system (both pulmonary and systemic circuits)of crocodilians.Why should crocodilians,with 4-chambered hearts be classified with the nonavian reptiles? Do they share this feature with birds as a homology or a secondarily evolved condition (an analogy)?
Q2) Describe the advances of the amniotic egg of nonavian reptiles.Explain clearly why this is such a momentous evolutionary advance.
Q3) The dermal layer of the reptile skin contains color-bearing cells called
Q4) Discuss the shared derived characters of nonavian reptiles and birds (e.g. ,type of skull,aglandular skin,etc. ).
Q5) When a snake flicks its tongue out to "taste" the air or my hand,it must return the tips of the tongue past the _____________ in the roof of its mouth to detect the "taste."
A)heat-sensitive pits
B)kinetic skull
C)parietal eye
D)fangs
E)Jacobson's organ
Q6) Discuss the origin and adaptive diversification of Reptilian groups.
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) The vertebral column of a bird has been modified so it is
A)much longer and more flexible.
B)springy and elastic to store energy for flight.
C)rigid with many vertebrae fused together.
D)broad to assist in aerodynamic lift.
E)no longer connected to the ribs.
Q2) In flapping flight,the feathers at the wing tips that generate thrust are the __________ feathers.
Q3) The ___________,a group of small feathers on the first digit (or "thumb")of the bird's wing,functions to prevent stalling at low flight speeds.
Q4) An example of a bird with high-lift wings is
A)a humming bird.
B)a woodpecker.
C)a hawk.
D)an albatross.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) Because birds lack teeth to grind up food,they possess a ____________ that accomplishes this task.
Q6) Flying birds with keeled sternums are known as Neognathae or ___________.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) The multi-chambered stomach of some grazing animals is called the ________________.
Q2) Explain the changes in morphology of the lower jaw,and its joint with the rest of the skull,that occurred during the evolution of mammals.
Q3) Animals such as mammals that maintain a high body temperature by an internal heat source are called ____________.or
Q4) The so-called mammal-like reptiles of the early Mesozoic from which the modern mammals descended were the ____________.
Q5) White fur of winter animals is due to
A)albinism,where a recessive gene blocks formation of pigments.
B)chromatophores,just as occurs in amphibians and reptiles that change their colors.
C)leukemism,a simple seasonal change in pigment.
D)aging of hair follicle cells induced by cold temperatures.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q6) Discuss the significance of the evolution of a true placenta.Why would this have been an evolutionary milestone?
Q7) What evidence do we have that mammary glands evolved from apocrine glands?
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) The thick filament of striated muscle is composed of the protein _____________.
Q2) The difference(s)between a cilium and flagellum is(are)
A)their internal structure and rate of beat.
B)their internal and external structure.
C)their external structure only.
D)their size,number,and beating pattern.
E)their primary source of energy.
Q3) The organization of a muscle,from largest unit to smallest,is
A)discrete muscle-fiber-fascicle-myofibrils-myofilaments.
B)discrete muscle-myofibrils-myofilaments-fiber-fascicle.
C)discrete muscle-fiber-fascicle-myofilaments-myofibrils.
D)discrete muscle-fascicle-fiber-myofibrils-myofilaments.
E)discrete muscle-fascicle-myofibrils-fiber-myofilaments.
Q4) Is there a limit to the size of animal that can evolve? Why are certain mechanical advantages not available to animals larger than a horse?
Q5) Bone that develops directly from sheets of embryonic cells and is mostly restricted to bones of the face and cranium,is called _______________ bone.
Q6) Compare and contrast the structure and function of the following muscles: smooth,cardiac,skeletal (voluntary).
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) What is the difference between an osmotic regulator and a hyperosmotic regulator?
Q2) Compare excretory structures of single-celled organisms with those of marine invertebrates and terrestrial vertebrates.
Q3) Some insects are "facultative endotherms," which means they can warm up parts of their body,such as the thorax,by muscular thermogenesis.How does this compare to the endothermy found in most mammals and birds?
Q4) Hummingbirds are able to reduce energy expenditure when inactive by A)hibernation.
B)decreasing insulation.
C)becoming torpid while asleep.
D)employing nonshivering thermogenesis.
E)sweating and panting.
Q5) Briefly describe how marine invertebrates meet and solve the problems of salt and water balance.If many invertebrates can survive in marine environments,why can't insects?
Q6) In Amoeba and Paramecium,water balance is achieved by a tiny,spherical organ called the ______ ______.
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Q7) Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.
Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Contraction of the right ventricle forces blood initially into the A)left atrium.
B)right atrium.
C)aorta.
D)pulmonary vein.
E)pulmonary artery.
Q2) Why is the catalytic sequence leading to blood clotting so complex? Wouldn't it make evolutionary and metabolic sense to have a more immediate and much shorter biochemical sequence leading to blood clotting?
Q3) Outline the formation of red blood cells and white blood cells.Why have red blood cells (erythrocytes)lost the nucleus?
Q4) Which association is NOT correct?
A)Pleura-lung and chest epithelium
B)Trachea-windpipe
C)Alveoli-gas exchange
D)Esophagus-vocal cords
E)Nasal-inhalation
Q5) The volume of blood forced from either ventricle each minute is known as
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The diet of animals must include carbohydrates,proteins,fats,water,mineral salts,and
Q2) A milk-curdling enzyme found in the stomach of ruminant mammals is
Q3) Which of the following digestive enzymes is incorrectly matched to its substrate?
A)pepsin-protein.
B)trypsin-nucleic acid.
C)salivary amylase-starch.
D)lipase-fat.
E)rennin-milk.
Q4) Compare a small animal that soaks up food from its external environment with an animal with a tube type digestive system.What is/are the major advantage(s)of having a tube?
A)it isolates the food the organism ingests.
B)it permits development of specialized enzymes and concentration of digestive juices in different regions.
C)it permits more time for chemical action.
D)additional physical cutting and grinding of the food bolus is made possible.
E)All of the choices are advantages.
Q5) The pancreatic juice contains two powerful proteases,trypsin and ____________.
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) A neuron in a cat's leg was stimulated electrically.The only reaction was a contraction of some muscle in the same leg.The neuron was most likely
A)afferent or sensory only.
B)efferent or motor only.
C)both motor and sensory.
D)an interneuron.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the cells of the nervous system?
A)A dendrite is a cytoplasmic extension of a neuron
B)There may be multiple dendrites on a single cell
C)A neuroglial cell supports or protects a neuron
D)A neuron typically has only one axon
E)All of the above are correct statements
Q3) The autonomic nervous system consists of two subdivisions,the _________ and the parasympathetic.
Q4) The light-sensitive layer inside the vertebrate eye is the ____________.
Q5) The simplest pattern of invertebrate nervous system is the _____ _____ of cnidarians.
Q6) Discuss the difference between electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) Early in the menstrual cycle of human females,the blood levels of ______ ______ hormone and luteinizing hormone begin to rise slowly,prompting the ovarian follicles to grow and release estrogen.
Q2) How does the pineal gland regulate sleep cycles and circadian rhythms?
Q3) The second messenger that relays a hormone's message to the cell's biochemical machinery
A)is cyclic ATP.
B)is kinase.
C)can be any of six different molecules.
D)is GMP.
E)is DNA or RNA.
Q4) Explain in detail how a negative feedback system works and why it is so highly effective in preventing hormonal flux.
Q5) Many hormones,upon arriving at a target cell,combine with a receptor site on the membrane to cause the release of an enzyme called the ______ ______.
Q6) Generally we consider hormones "untargeted" or adrift in the bloodstream until they float past a target cell or tissue.How is the hypothalamus-pituitary system an exception to this? Why might this system differ?
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) An immune response against an invading organism or other tissue damage that involves mobilizing leukocytes from capillaries to the site of injury is called the ___________ response.
Q2) If lysozyme is found in sweat,saliva,and tears,why can't it be used as an antibiotic against serious disease agents?
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)Inflammation is a very specific response to a limited number of antigens.
B)All immune responses involve antibodies.
C)There are an equal number of memory cells and activated B cells that gave rise to the memory cells.
D)Inflammation is a vital process to defend and repair tissues.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the following terms: susceptible,resistant,infective,noninfective,immunity.
Q5) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a/an _____________.
Q6) Explain why hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)is a problem if the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive,but not if the reverse is true.
Q7) The cells that secrete antibodies are called __________________.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A benefit of social organization may be
A)Protection from predators.
B)Cooperation in hunting for food.
C)To facilitate contact between males and females.
D)All of the choices are benefits.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q2) Outline the "language of the bees" according to the different types of dances expressed from foraging workers.
Q3) Explain the difference between proximate causation and ultimate (evolutionary)causation.
Q4) What is a stimulus that triggers a stereotypical behavior called?
A)A goal or accomplishment
B)A release or sign stimulus
C)Imprinting
D)A drive or innate stimulus
E)A reflex arc
Q5) Why is territoriality considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
Q6) Compare and contrast habituation and sensitization.Are the two concepts really different? If so,explain how.
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Chapter 37: Animal Distribution
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Q1) Deserts and tundra have about the same rainfall,yet the tundra is not "dry." Why?
Q2) Discuss what is meant by the "Great American Interchange."
Q3) A terrestrial environment represented by a major biotic unit consisting of a characteristic and easily recognized variety of plant life is called
A)a zoogeographical realm.
B)an ecocline.
C)an ecosphere.
D)a biome.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) Tundra is
A)an area of high precipitation and high humidity.
B)a mixed forest composed of evergreen and deciduous trees.
C)the treeless Arctic regions and high mountain tops.
D)composed of very little plant life and no animal life.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q5) Of what value is knowing the former positions of the tectonic plates and their continental passengers?
Q6) What are the physical factors that make the biosphere so relatively thin?
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) What is the role of decomposers in the cycling of carbon? What would eventually occur if decomposers lost the ability to break down plant and fungal matter?
Q2) A species that when removed from a community changes the structure of the community is called a ____________ species.
Q3) A frog is found along the edge of a pond.The location where the frog lives would be the frog's __________.
A)niche
B)habitat
C)biotic component
D)abiotic component
Q4) We could state a biological "law" that all food chains begin with photosynthetic producers if it wasn't for the exception of A)lichens that make their own food energy.
B)anaerobic bacteria such as the tetanus agent.
C)chemosynthetic bacteria found around deep ocean thermal vents.
D)humans making synthetic food.
Q5) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
Q6) Does competition promote the process of speciation? Why or why not?
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