Introduction to Women's Health Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Women's Health offers a comprehensive overview of the biological, psychological, social, and cultural factors that influence women's health and well-being throughout the lifespan. The course explores topics such as reproductive health, menstruation, pregnancy, menopause, mental health, nutrition, chronic diseases, and the impact of gender on healthcare experiences and outcomes. Special emphasis is placed on health disparities, preventative care, and the role of advocacy in promoting equitable health for all women. Through lectures, case studies, and group discussions, students develop a foundational understanding of the unique health challenges and opportunities faced by women in diverse local and global contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical pathways
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: B
Q2) The Grantly Dick-Read method of prepared childbirth allows for:
A) the use of medication to control pain.
B) advocating for the role of the father and/or significant other as labor coach.
C) the use of chloroform as an analgesic during the birthing process.
D) focusing on the ability of the mother to control fear of impending labor through knowledge.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pregnant woman tells the nurse, "I think something may be wrong with my pregnancy." Which statement by the nurse demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A) "Most women worry; I felt the same way when I was pregnant."
B) "Tell me more about what concerns you about this pregnancy."
C) "That is a very common concern, but your pregnancy will turn out just fine."
D) "You should focus on taking care of yourself and not worry so much."
Answer: B
Q2) A 16-year-old primipara has just completed her first prenatal visit with the health care provider. The nurse is preparing to teach her about nutrition during pregnancy. What must the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan?
A) Provide her with pictures of dairy products.
B) Ask her, "Are you ready to hear this information now?"
C) Read directly from the pamphlet prepared for teen mothers.
D) Provide a comfortable and warm setting after she has put on her street clothes.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse that she has not received any prenatal care because "I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect." What is the nurse's primary concern when developing the patient's plan of care?
A) Low birth weight
B) Oligohydramnios
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Answer: A
Q2) The United States ranks 27th in terms of worldwide infant mortality rates. Which factor has the greatest impact on decreasing the mortality rate of infants?
A) Providing more women's shelters
B) Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care
C) Resolving all language and cultural differences
D) Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program by their eighth month of pregnancy
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) On speculum examination of the cervix, it is found to be round and smooth. These findings suggest that the client:
A) is a multipara.
B) has had vaginal deliveries.
C) is a nulliparous.
D) is a gravida 1, para 0.
Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Q3) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
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6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session for childbearing-age female clients. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to avoiding exposing a fetus to teratogens?
A) Use only category A medications during pregnancy.
B) Immunizations should be updated during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C) Use of saunas and hot tubs during pregnancy should be during the winter months only.
D) Alcoholic beverages can be consumed in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
Q2) The nurse is teaching prenatal clients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elimination of use of alcohol
B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement
C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic client with insulin
D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy
E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8° C (100° F) or higher
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7
Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q2) A pregnant client asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."
B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."
C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."
D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."
Q3) The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant client. Which statement indicates to the nurse the need for further client teaching?
A) "My baby gets oxygen from the placenta."
B) "The placenta functions to help excrete waste products."
C) "The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta."
D) "The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby."
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8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about signs of possible pregnancy complications. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Report watery vaginal discharge.
B) Report puffiness of the face or around the eyes.
C) Report any bloody show when you go into labor.
D) Report visual disturbances, such as spots before the eyes.
E) Report any dependent edema that occurs at the end of the day.
Q2) Which factors contribute to the presence of edema in the pregnant client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet consisting of processed foods
B) Hemoconcentration
C) Increase in colloid osmotic pressure
D) Last trimester of pregnancy
E) Decreased venous return
Q3) Which physiologic event may lead to increased constipation during pregnancy?
A) Increased emptying time in the intestines
B) Abdominal distention and bloating
C) Decreased absorption of water
D) Decreased motility in the intestines
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
Q2) The nurse in labor and birth is caring for a Muslim client during the active phase of labor. The nurse notes that the client quickly draws away when touched. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Ask the charge nurse to reassign you to another client.
B) Assume that she doesn't like you and decrease your time with her.
C) Continue to touch her as much as you need to while providing care.
D) Limit touching to a minimum because physical contact may not be acceptable in her culture.
Q3) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client has correctly increased her caloric intake from her recommended pregnancy intake to the amount necessary to sustain breastfeeding in the first 6 postpartum months?
A) From 1800 to 2200 calories per day
B) From 2000 to 2500 calories per day
C) From 2200 to 2530 calories per day
D) From 2500 to 2730 calories per day
Q2) Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks' gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy.
A) 10 pounds
B) 19 pounds
C) 25 pounds
D) 30 pounds
Q3) Which pregnant adolescent is most at risk for a nutritional deficit during pregnancy?
A) A 16-year-old who is 10 lb overweight
B) A 17-year-old who is 10 lb underweight
C) A 15-year-old of normal height and weight
D) A 16-year-old of normal height and weight
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy?
A) 4 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 12 weeks
Q2) The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant client. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history?
A) Maternal diabetes
B) Weight gain of 25 lb
C) Maternal age older than 30
D) Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth
Q3) What does a score of 9 on a biophysical profile signify?
A) Normal
B) Abnormal
C) Equivocal
D) Nonreactive
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The support person for your labor client has been applying gentle massage to the client's upper back frequently over the past hour. Now, the labor client states that "it just isn't helping anymore." Both the support person and labor client are becoming frustrated with each other's inability to make things less stressful during the labor process. What would be the best nursing response at this time?
A) Have the client change position and tell the support person to take a break.
B) Discuss the effects of habituation and suggest alternate measures that could be used to relieve pain.
C) Advise the client that this may be the best time to ask for an epidural.
D) Tell the client and support person that she must be progressing further and you will do a vaginal exam to determine progress.
Q2) Martha is a gravida 3, para 2, whose last child was born 5 years ago. She attended childbirth preparation classes with her first pregnancy. Which class would be most appropriate for her?
A) Refresher course
B) Infant care classes
C) Postpartum classes
D) Early pregnancy classes
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presentation
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
Q2) The nurse is assessing a client in the active phase of labor. What should the nurse expect during this phase?
A) The client is sociable and excited.
B) The client is requesting pain medication.
C) The client begins to experience the urge to push.
D) The client experiences loss of control and irritability.
Q3) On admission to the labor and birth unit, a 38-year-old female, gravida 4, para 3, at term in early labor is found to have a transverse lie on vaginal examination. What is the priority intervention at this time?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to denote progress.
B) Notify the health care provider.
C) Initiate parenteral therapy.
D) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 8 L/min.
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a low-risk client in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
Q2) The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient?
A) 18-gauge
B) 20-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
Q3) If a woman's fundus is soft 30 minutes after birth, the nurse's first response should be to:
A) massage the fundus.
B) take the blood pressure.
C) notify the physician or nurse-midwife.
D) place the woman in Trendelenburg position.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decelerations that mirror the contractions are present with each contraction on the monitor strip of a multipara who received epidural anesthesia 20 minutes ago. The nurse should:
A) maintain the normal assessment routine.
B) administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min by face mask.
C) increase the IV flow rate from 125 to 150 mL/hr.
D) assess the maternal blood pressure for a systolic pressure below 100 mm Hg.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a nursing student on the application of fetal monitoring devices. Which method of assessing the fetal heart rate requires the use of a gel?
A) Doppler
B) Fetoscope
C) Scalp electrode
D) Tocodynamometer
Q3) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a childbirth education class. Which information about excessive pain in labor should the nurse include in the session?
A) It usually results in a more rapid labor.
B) It has no effect on the outcome of labor.
C) It is considered to be a normal occurrence.
D) It may result in decreased placental perfusion.
Q2) A client presents to the labor and birth area for emergent birth. Vaginal exam reveals that the client is fully dilated, vertex, +2 station, with ruptured membranes. The client is extremely apprehensive because this is her first childbirth experience and asks for an epidural to be administered now. What is the priority nursing response based on this client assessment?
A) Use contact anesthesia for an epidural and prepare the client per protocol.
B) Tell the client that she will not need any pain medication because the birth will be over in a matter of minutes and the pain will stop.
C) Assist the client with nonpharmacologic methods of pain distraction during this time as you prepare for vaginal birth.
D) Call the physician for admitting orders.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the situation that describes the safest administration of oxytocin induction and cervical ripening agents.
A) Concurrent use of oxytocin and dinoprostone (Cervidil)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec) 25 mcg, followed in 4 hours by oxytocin induction in vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC) client
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil) 10 mg in place for 12 hours followed by oxytocin induction in 1 hour
D) Maximum dose of dinoprostone (Prepidil) 2 mg/24 hr followed in 4 hours by oxytocin induction
Q2) The pregnant client is admitted to the labor and birth unit for induction of labor. Which finding would allow the induction to continue as planned?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Ripening of the cervix
D) Umbilical cord prolapse
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q2) Which assessment finding 24 hours after vaginal birth would indicate a need for further intervention?
A) Pain level 5 on scale of 0 to 10
B) Saturated pad over a 2-hour period
C) Urinary output of 500 mL in one voiding
D) Uterine fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus
Q3) Which documentation in the client's chart on the 14th postpartum day indicates a normal involution process?
A) Breasts firm and tender
B) Episiotomy slightly red and puffy
C) Moderate bright red lochial flow
D) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A husband calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He says, "She was never like this before the baby was born." Which should be the nurse's initial response?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q2) Which client is most likely to have the least stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
Q3) Taking-in
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum nurse is administering vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn. The prescribed order is to administer one dose of 0.5 mg of vitamin K via the intramuscular (IM) route within 1 hour after birth. The ampule of vitamin K sent from the pharmacy is 1 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters does the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose?
Record your answer to two decimal points.
_____ mL
Q2) Parents ask the nurse, "What makes the opening between the baby's atriums close at birth?" The nurse's response is that cardiovascular changes that cause the foramen ovale to close at birth are a direct result of:
A) changes in the hepatic blood flow.
B) increased pressure in the left atrium.
C) increased pressure in the right atrium.
D) decreased blood flow to the left ventricle.
Q3) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q2) A newborn who is a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is in which percentile(s) for weight?
A) Below the 90th
B) Less than the 10th
C) Greater than the 90th
D) Between the 10th and 90th
Q3) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at increased risk for:
A) infection.
B) jaundice.
C) caput succedaneum.
D) erythema toxicum.
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a newborn for a circumcision. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement to alleviate pain? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oral sucrose during the procedure
B) Bright lights after the procedure
C) Adequate stimulation before and after the procedure
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) postprocedure, as needed
E) EMLA cream (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) before the procedure
Q2) What should the nurse teach to parents about using a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once a day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
Q3) The postpartum nurse is reviewing oral-nasal bulb suctioning with a first-time mom. Which statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "Depress the bulb prior to inserting the tip."
B) "Suction the nose first and then the mouth."
C) "Keep a bulb syringe in the bassinet at all times."
D) "Gradually release the pressure on the bulb while withdrawing it."
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) What should the nurse explain when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
Q2) A client who is receiving a pitocin (Oxytocin) infusion for the augmentation of labor is experiencing a contraction pattern of more than eight contractions in a 10-minute period. Which intervention would be a priority?
A) Increase the rate of pitocin infusion to help spread out the contraction pattern.
B) Place oxygen on the client at 8 to 10 L/min via face mask and turn the client to her left side.
C) Stop the pitocin infusion.
D) Call the physician to obtain an order for the initiation of magnesium sulfate.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement is true about growth and development during the first 6 months?
A) The infant will grow 1 cm in length per month.
B) The infant will gain about 2 pounds per month.
C) The infant will regain weight lost after birth within 1 week.
D) The infant will have a 1-inch increase in head circumference per month.
Q2) Infant immunizations should begin at which age?
A) Birth
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 4 months
Q3) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.
B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.
C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.
D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.
E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A client who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. Which scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been battered?
A) She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.
B) The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile.
C) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.
D) Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. Her husband asks her about her pain.
Q2) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
Q3) Which is a major barrier to health care for teen mothers?
A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.
B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.
C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.
D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the client is recovering from preeclampsia?
A) 1+ protein in urine
B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
C) Urine output >100 mL/hr
D) Deep tendon reflexes +2
Q2) The most appropriate nursing action for the client complaining of continuous headache 24 hours postpartum after a normal vaginal birth is to:
A) encourage bed rest.
B) administer analgesic.
C) assess blood pressure.
D) assess for pitting edema.
Q3) What is the value of the main line fluid rate for your client, whose total fluid intake is ordered at 150 mL/hr and who is also being given magnesium sulfate at 1 g/hr (1 g = 25 mL/hr) IV piggyback and pitocin at 15 mU/min (l mU/min = 1 mL/hr) IV piggyback.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) A client has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. Which action is appropriate?
A) Practice respiratory isolation.
B) Plan for retesting during the third trimester.
C) Discuss the recommendation to bottle feed her baby.
D) Anticipate administering the vaccination for hepatitis B as soon as possible.
Q2) A pregnant patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is reviewing infant care instructions with the prenatal nurse. Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A) "I will bathe my baby twice a day."
B) "I will use premixed formula to feed my baby."
C) "I will use gloves to change my baby's diapers."
D) "I will use alcohol wipes six times a day on the baby's cord until it falls off."
Q3) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention should be incorporated in a plan of care for a labor client who is experiencing hypertonic labor? Vaginal exam is unchanged from prior exam-3 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station presenting part vertex.
A) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) AROM
C) Performing a vaginal exam to denote progress
D) Preparing the client for epidural administration as ordered by the physician
Q2) A client who has had two previous cesarean births is in active labor when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae. Which should be the nurse's priority action?
A) Notify the health care provider promptly.
B) Observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone.
C) Decrease the rate of nonadditive intravenous fluid.
D) Reposition the client with her hips slightly elevated.
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to ambulating the client to the bathroom whose admission hemoglobin level was 10.2 g/dL, the nurse should:
A) request repeat hemoglobin and hematocrit.
B) assess the resting pulse rate.
C) dangle her on the side of the bed.
D) administer the ordered oral analgesic.
Q2) To prevent infection of the reproductive tract, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A) change the peripad once per shift.
B) cleanse the perineum from front to back.
C) perform pericare at least twice during the shift.
D) increase fluid intake to 2500 to 3000 mL/day.
Q3) Which observation of your client as she ambulates could indicate development of a DVT (deep vein thrombosis)?
A) Slow gait
B) Shuffling gait
C) Stiffness of right leg
D) Leans on husband for support
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is most true about large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants?
A) They weigh more than 3500g.
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome and fractured clavicles are the most common complications.
Q2) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q3) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) Which intervention should make phototherapy most effective in reducing the indirect bilirubin in an affected newborn?
A) Turn the infant every 2 hours.
B) Place eye patches on the newborn.
C) Wrap the infant in triple blankets to prevent cold stress.
D) Increase the oral intake of water between and before feedings.
Q3) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of:
A) a lack of surfactant.
B) hypoinflation of the lungs.
C) delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid.
D) a slow vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents to the Women's Health Clinic for continuation of her contraceptive method. She has been using Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) for 24 months. In preparation for instituting a plan of care, the nurse would consider which option as a priority?
A) Schedule the client for follow-up baseline diagnostic testing to confirm that the client is not pregnant.
B) Obtain information for an alternate contraception method.
C) Ask the client for additional information related to her menstrual cycle.
D) Inspect the skin for site selection of contraceptive method.
Q2) Which contraceptive method should be contraindicated in a client with a history of toxic shock syndrome?
A) Condom
B) Spermicide
C) Cervical cap
D) Oral contraceptives
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is:
A) in vitro fertilization.
B) tubal embryo transfer.
C) therapeutic insemination.
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer.
Q2) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q3) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
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34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sexually transmitted disease can be cured?
A) Herpes
B) AIDS
C) Chlamydia
D) Venereal warts
Q2) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Central nervous system
Q3) Which should the nurse teach to assist a client to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Do Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
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