Introduction to the Operating Room Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides an overview of the operating room (OR) environment, introducing students to the roles, responsibilities, and protocols essential for safe and effective surgical care. Topics include the layout and function of the OR, infection prevention strategies, basic instrumentation, aseptic techniques, patient preparation, and teamwork among surgical staff. Emphasis is placed on the principles of sterile technique, safety procedures, and professional conduct to prepare students for clinical experiences in surgical settings. Students will also explore the importance of communication and collaboration within the multidisciplinary OR team.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preceptor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate; provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: A
Q2) Mentor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate; provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: B
Q3) The term educator refers to the person responsible for planning,implementing,and evaluating the learner's experiences in the classroom and clinical setting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A universal checklist provides documentation for each step of care for patients undergoing a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which is one of the "seven rights" of medication administration for each patient?
A)Right pharmacy
B)Right color
C)Right route
D)Right answer
Answer: C
Q3) When does the intraoperative phase begin?
A)Placement of the patient on the OR bed
B)When the patient enters the OR
C)When waiting in the holding area
D)When taken to the recovery area or PACU
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes a DNR order?
A)Does not hold up in the OR
B)Patients cannot have surgery
C)Before going to the OR, the DNR order should be clarified
D)Does not hold up in an emergency
Answer: C
Q2) A 17-year-old mentally competent person can execute a living will or an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which is a charting modality used to document patient care?
A)Hand-off reporting
B)Verbal report
C)Block charting
D)Paper and pen charting
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification
A)after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B)after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C)once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D)after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q3) What is the scrub person's responsibility?
A)Establish and maintain the sterile field
B)Assist anesthesia providers with patient positioning
C)Complete procedure documentation and specimen requisitions
D)Maintain communication with waiting patient family members
Q4) Which is a member of the sterile perioperative team?
A)Scrub person
B)Anesthesia provider
C)Circulating nurse
D)Radiograph technician
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Q2) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q3) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The surgical first assistant's knowledge and skill level involves an understanding of A)surgical anatomy and physiology.
B)biochemical engineering.
C)psychomotor kinesiology.
D)advanced airway placement.
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which communication tool involves being continually vigilant for progress or regression of goals?
A)SBAR
B)Team STEPPS
C)Hands-free communication
D)STEP
Q2) What is the definition of SCIP?
A)Surgical Care Improvement Project
B)Surgical Cost Infection Project
C)Surgical Control Policy
D)Surveillance Control
Q3) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
Q5) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a condition that an obese patient is predisposed to A)hypolipidemia
B)hypotension
C)congestive heart failure
D)Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q2) A surgical patient with AIDS may present with which of the following?
A)Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B)Hormonal receptor infection
C)Negative nitrogen imbalance
D)Anticholinergic impairment
Q3) What does the "no-touch" technique mean?
A)The skin over the site of a tumor is not cleaned or prepped before the procedure.
B)Vigorous scrubbing is needed to clean and prep the skin over a tumor site.
C)The tumor is handled as little as possible during its removal.
D)The skin over the tumor site is to be manipulated before prepping.
Q4) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What criteria is fetal viability based on?
A)Gestational age greater than 18 weeks
B)Birthweight greater than 250 g
C)Ability to sustain life outside the uterus
D)Able to exchange oxygen using a ventilator
Q2) What type of shunt is placed when attempting to drain fluid from the ventricles to the right atrium of the heart?
A)Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B)Ventriculoamniotic shunt
C)Ventriculoatrial shunt
D)Ventriculocoronary shunt
Q3) Which is one of the most common causes of cardiac death within the first week of life?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C)Aortic valve insufficiency
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q4) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subcutaneous fat deposits increase with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A decrease in estrogen production can increase the risk for osteoporosis and heart disease in women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an influence that helps shape the prototype of the older adult's place in society?
A)Geographic
B)Physical
C)Social
D)Political
Q4) Which is a negative myth of aging?
A)Endocrine system declines in aging adults.
B)Older adults do not engage in sexual behavior.
C)All body systems change during the aging process.
D)Comorbidities are frequently found in the geriatric population.
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an equipment item commonly found in each OR?
A)PYXIS medication machine
B)Mayo stand
C)Crash cart
D)Scrub sink
Q2) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During construction of the OR,negative pressure must be maintained in halls,with exhaust filtered to the outside of the building.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many clocks should be in each OR?
A)At least three
B)One
C)Two
D)None
Q5) It is desirable to have all ORs be the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical
Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Federated Ambulatory Surgery Association (FASA)states that a true ASC is _______ in services and not _________ on a main hospital.
A)independent; dependent
B)somewhat dependent; dependent
C)lacking; independent
D)dependent; relying
Q2) Which is an example of an ambulatory surgery center according to the FASA?
A)Office-based center
B)Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
C)Hospital-based integrated unit
D)Hospital-based dedicated unit
Q3) When taking a verbal order either in person or over the phone,what must be done to ensure the correct order will be implemented?
A)Call another physician to verify the order is right.
B)Check with the head nurse for accuracy.
C)Read back the verbal order or results to the person delivering the information.
D)Ask another nurse to take the call to receive the order.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standardization is in the best interest of the patient and the personnel performing cleanup.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As long as the instrument and prep tables are within the confines of the OR,it does not particularly matter where they are placed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What item should a member of the sterile team discard and put in the trash before leaving the surgical room?
A)Hair cover
B)Eye protection
C)Scrubs
D)Shoe covers
Q4) How are solutions or fluids disposed of after a procedure?
A)Dump down the sink.
B)Dump it on the floor and mop it up.
C)Send it in a bucket in the case cart.
D)Solidify the canister with powder, use the closed suction system.
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When working with disinfectants such as phenol or povidone-iodine,what steps should be taken to protect you?
A)Wear goggles.
B)Use a fan in the OR to dissipate the fumes.
C)Wear corneal protectors.
D)Wear a mask with proper nasal and mouth openings to allow air to escape.
Q2) Which group of people is more prone to a latex allergy?
A)Children with spina bifida
B)Food service workers
C)People with allergy to shellfish
D)People allergic to poison ivy or dust
Q3) When using a fire extinguisher,what mnemonic device can be recalled to help one remember the correct usage steps?
A)RACE
B)PACE
C)PASS
D)PULL
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a sexually transmitted disease?
A)Gonorrhea
B)Herpes simplex
C)Shingles
D)Chlamydia
Q2) Resident flora aid in the synthesis of vitamins and folic acid while in the large intestine but may cause an infection if relocated to a surgical incision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with a compromised immune system are at risk for contracting tuberculosis (TB).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an example of active immunity against the prevention of disease?
A)A preformed immunoglobulin
B)A vaccine or booster shot
C)Vitamin supplements
D)Protein power bar
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Double-gloving during a procedure will keep the wearer from incurring a puncture wound caused by a suture or knife blade.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Every patient in the OR is considered infected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the recommendation for the setup of sterile tables?
A)Set up just before the procedure.
B)Set up all tables for the day in the morning.
C)Set up the night before and cover it.
D)Set up when you have time.
Q4) What is a way to prevent fomite contamination of items in the OR?
A)Weekly disinfection of OR surfaces after use
B)Keeping shipping boxes and cartons within the surgical suite for easy reach
C)Placement of dust covers over sterile items while in storage
D)Utilize a portable fan in the OR to prevent flies and other insects from inhabiting the space
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it necessary to wipe sterile gloves with a sterile damp towel after donning the gloves and before touching items on the sterile field?
A)To warm up one's hands before starting the procedure
B)To maintain a time-honored tradition started by the glove manufacturers
C)To decrease the amount of contaminants already present on sterile gloves
D)To remove powder sometimes present on sterile gloves
Q2) Since hair is a gross contaminate,bald caregivers don't have much to worry about.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The purpose of a mask is to filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled from the mouth.What is another purpose for the mask?
A)It's a good idea to wear two masks for better protection.
B)Many masks filter about 99% of particulate matter larger than 5 mm.
C)Masks are still effective if they become moist.
D)Reusable cotton masks are still appropriate.
Q4) Double gloving is recommended for all sterile team members.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disinfection is the same as sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one is an action completed in an OR's processing department to ensure that instruments are safe to handle?
A)Storing
B)Ionizing
C)Distilling
D)Rinsing
Q3) What is the purpose of prerinsing or presoaking instruments after use?
A)To prevent blood and debris from drying on instruments
B)To prevent the instruments from rusting
C)To soften and remove dried blood and debris
D)To eliminate the need for cleaning them before sterilization
Q4) For a chemical disinfectant to be labeled for use in a hospital,it should be effective against which organisms?
A)Viruses
B)Pseudomonas
C)Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus aureus, and salmonella
D)Gram negative bacteria only
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing to sterilize odd-shaped or single instruments,which packaging material is best?
A)Nonwoven fabric
B)Peel-pack pouch
C)Wrapped tray
D)Foam and two-ply paper wrap
Q2) When assembling instrument trays,sharp instruments should be placed on the bottom of the tray to prevent injury when removing instruments from the tray.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Like EO sterilization,hydrogen peroxide sterilization requires a lengthy aeration period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sterilization renders an item free of most microorganisms except for some spores.
A)True
B)False
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20
Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which angled suction device is best used in the mouth or to suction large quantities of fluid?
A)Poole
B)Frazier
C)Yankauer
D)Double-lumen
Q2) A trocar is an assembly instrument used to cut through tissue for access to fluid or a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of forceps might be used when suturing the epidermis closed?
A)Bayonet forceps
B)Rat-toothed forceps
C)Adson forceps with teeth
D)Allis forceps
Q4) The maximum length of most microinstruments is 4 inches (100 mm).
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a skin knife is not available to make the initial skin incision,electrosurgery may be used for the incision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is imperative that the surgical field be stable and immobile during a surgical procedure performed using the microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a responsibility of the biomedical laser technician?
A)Prepare and teach the patient intraoperatively.
B)Check the laser equipment brought into the OR.
C)Cover windows and provide appropriate eyewear.
D)Provide preventive maintenance of the laser periodically.
Q4) Always use the highest setting of current when beginning a procedure that uses electrosurgery so that the surgeon has the maximum available power to cut or coagulate tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient may be instructed not to eat any solid food or drink liquids after midnight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What documentation is routinely needed before a procedure?
A)Recent history and physical
B)Blood type and crossmatch
C)Urinalysis
D)DSM IV results
Q3) Which is a level of preoperative teaching?
A)Psychosocial support
B)Nursing diagnosis
C)Preoperative class
D)Empathy
Q4) Once the patient has entered the OR,he or she is sedated enough so as not to be cognizant of what is happening,so it is acceptable for the circulating nurse to remain on the other side of the room attending to paperwork and staying away from the patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a location where an infusion catheter can be inserted?
A)Artery
B)Lymph node
C)External pouch
D)Peripheral nailbed
Q2) What type of radiologic procedure is used to study a joint after the injection of gas or contrast into it?
A)Ventriculography
B)Computed tomography
C)Arthrography
D)Ultrasonography
Q3) Because MRI uses a large electromagnet,metallic devices are allowed into the MRI machine as long as they are stainless steel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of vigorous scrubbing while prepping over underlying tumors is discouraged because of potential complications that could result.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gas is used to power drills and saws?
A)Oxygen
B)Carbon monoxide
C)Nitrogen
D)Medical air
Q2) When dispensing ointment from a multidose pack,the tube should be squeezed to dispense 1/2 inch of ointment in the trash before applying a portion to the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which phase of clinical trials is performed on 100 to 300 people with an actual disease process for which the drug is the proposed treatment for 2 years?
A)Phase I
B)Phase II
C)Phase III
D)Phase IV
Q4) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ideal anesthetic agent should
A)provide no amnesia.
B)have a slow onset and easy reversibility.
C)provide analgesia that ends at the end of the procedure.
D)produce minimum side effects.
Q2) What position should a patient be in when receiving spinal anesthesia?
A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Lithotomy
D)Lateral
Q3) Local anesthetics with vasoconstrictors added to them should never be used in which areas?
A)Digits
B)Penis
C)Vascular structures
D)All of the above
Q4) Epidural narcotic analgesia provides prolonged postoperative pain relief.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scrub person should not gown and glove from the main field,but rather use a separate surface to place an open gown and gloves after scrubbing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sponges and tapes that have been counted and bagged can be tied and thrown into the trash and removed from the room after being bagged.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a surgeon is working deep within the peritoneal cavity,what is the best choice of sponge to hand up?
A)A Ray-Tec sponge
B)A laparotomy tape
C)A pattie
D)2 ´ 2 gauze sponge
Q4) It is acceptable to open sterile supplies into a rigid container because all the edges are sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What surgical staff person gives the approval that it is alright to move a patient to or from the OR table?
A)Circulator
B)Surgeon
C)First assistant
D)Anesthesia provider
Q2) What potential complication can occur while a patient is in a sitting position?
A)Hypertension
B)Air embolism
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Headache
Q3) When placing a patient's arm on an armboard,what should be avoided?
A)Hyperabduction of the arm
B)Extra padding on the armboard
C)Placing the arm at a 90° angle
D)Secure the arm to the board
Q4) During a one- or two-step prep,the skin is cleansed from the outside in,cleansing the incision site last.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal hourly urinary output?
A)5 to 10 mL/hr
B)10 to 20 mL/hr
C)30 to 60 mL/hr
D)Greater than 30 to 60 mL/hr
Q2) Which is a true statement about blood pressure (BP)measurement?
A)BP can be obtained by direct or indirect methods.
B)BP can be taken on an arm that has an IV.
C)Pressure is higher during diastole and lower in systole.
D)BP readings measure tissue perfusion.
Q3) Which is an example of an invasive monitoring device?
A)Intracardiac catheter
B)Blood pressure cuff
C)Pulse oximeter probe
D)Axillary thermometer
Q4) Cardiac output (CO)is measured to determine how many liters the right aorta pumps into the left ventricle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct technique to cut suture inside the body?
A)Cut the suture as close as possible to the knot.
B)Leave a long tail on the suture.
C)Cut the suture holding the scissors horizontal.
D)Cut the suture using a knife blade.
Q2) What type of incision is typically used for an open appendectomy procedure?
A)Thoracoabdominal incision
B)Pfannenstiel incision
C)Inguinal incision
D)McBurney's incision
Q3) What type of device is used to span an incision?
A)Bumper
B)Bolster
C)Bridge
D)Buttons or beads
Q4) What type of stitch is used for skin edges primarily?
A)Everting
B)Inverting
C)Diverting
D)Overting
30
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wound disruption is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
A)Bradycardia
B)Abnormal opening and exposure of the wound
C)Increased bowel gas pressure
D)Increased blood pressure
Q2) Why is a nasogastric tube inserted during an intraabdominal procedure?
A)To insert tube feeding contents
B)To insert air into esophagus
C)To aspirate stomach contents
D)To cauterize bleeding in stomach
Q3) What are the benefits of early ambulation?
A)Increased gas pain
B)Improved circulation
C)Increased gastroparesis
D)Decreased wound pain
Q4) Which layers of skin are cut into during the initial skin incision?
A)Glabrous and hairy
B)Epidermis and dermis
C)Fascia and epidermis
D)Adipose and fascia
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on
A)discharge.
B)all physiologic processes.
C)circulation.
D)documentation.
Q2) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A)Family location
B)Insurance information
C)Total surgical time
D)Type of dressing and drains
Q3) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU?
A)Linen container
B)Suction equipment
C)Computer monitor for documentation
D)Bedside table
Q4) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A)To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B)To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C)To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D)To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of autotransfusion system for blood collection collects the blood and then anticoagulates it before transfusion?
A)Automated cell salvage processor
B)Chest tube collection system
C)IVF collection bag
D)Jackson-Pratt reservoir
Q2) While a patient is under general anesthesia,it is a good practice to keep the patient's eyes open to prevent a corneal tear or abrasion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Allogeneic blood is a patient's own blood and requires no typing or crossmatching.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which vitamin is necessary in the clotting process?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin E
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient may be at risk for hypothermia if the carbon dioxide gas is not passed through a heating and humidifying element.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of robotic-assisted surgery is the expensive equipment and startup cost needed to perform the procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When using a robotic system to perform a surgical procedure,the surgeon is required to give the robot commands to activate its actions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a possible complication after having a mastectomy?
A)Depression
B)Need for reconstruction
C)Disfigurement
D)Lymphedema
Q2) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
Q3) Once the abdominal cavity is entered,all free 4 ´ 4 sponges should be removed from the field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which two structures are ligated with hemostatic clips and divided during gallbladder surgery?
A)Common bile duct and hepatic duct
B)Hepatic duct and cystic artery
C)Cystic duct and cystic artery
D)Pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
Q5) Mammography is the only diagnostic technique to diagnose breast cancer. A)True B)False
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When positioning a pregnant patient in the OR in the supine position,always place a wedge or small roll under the left side.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define cervical incompetence.
A)Early painless dilation and effacement of cervix
B)Any pregnancy involving a prior cesarean section
C)Any pregnancy with previous elective termination of pregnancy
D)Early diagnosed ectopic pregnancy
Q3) What diagnostic test involves staining cervical squamous epithelium with iodine-based Lugol's solution?
A)Pap smear
B)Endocervical test
C)Schiller's test
D)LEEP
Q4) Which is a method used to drain and evacuate a Bartholin cyst?
A)Herniation
B)Marsupialization
C)Crenation
D)Exenteration
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?
A)Colostomy
B)Ileal conduit
C)Nephrostomy
D)Cutaneous ureterostomy
Q2) A topical anesthetic is instilled into the urethra at the end of the prep such as 1% or 2% lidocaine to help with discomfort.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of procedure involves a kidney segment being removed along with the ligation of the renal blood supply to that segment?
A)Radical nephrectomy
B)Nephrectomy
C)Partial nephrectomy
D)Nephrostomy
Q4) Hemodialysis is the removal of waste products from the blood with the use of an artificial kidney.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What assessment for neurovascular impairment should take place after orthopedic surgery?
A)Pulse
B)Pain
C)Bleeding
D)Six Ps
Q2) What does ORIF stand for?
A)Offer surgical treatment
B)Open reduction and internal fixation
C)Close reduction fix later
D)Operating room ready if necessary
Q3) Which is a component of a total knee replacement?
A)Femoral head component
B)Tibial stem component
C)Patellar component
D)Humeral head component
Q4) Cancellous tissue is porous,spongy,and contains bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one reason cerebral revascularizations are primarily performed?
A)To close a dural defect
B)To prophylactically prevent development of a major brain attack
C)To create a fistula
D)To decompress the subdura
Q2) Which part of the brain is composed of gray matter?
A)Brainstem
B)Inner tissue
C)Outer cerebral cortex
D)Circle of Willis
Q3) Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A)Increased ICP allows increased cerebral cortex perfusion.
B)A normal adult ICP reading is from 5 to 8 mm Hg.
C)Manual blood pressure readings determine accurate ICP readings.
D)A ventricular catheter is the most accurate method of monitoring ICP.
Q4) Which is a measure taken during a craniotomy to decrease blood loss?
A)Hyperthermia
B)Lithotomy position
C)Neuroradiology
D)Controlled hypotension
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A)Radiograph
B)PET scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
Q2) What procedure is necessary and urgent when pressure on the spinal cord causes symptoms?
A)Vertebral alignment
B)Lumpectomy
C)Decompression
D)Discectomy
Q3) Which specific need of the spinal cord injury patient must be addressed after the injury?
A)Temperature control
B)Tactile sensation
C)Loss of vision
D)Loss of hearing
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) Which is the mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and the exposed surface of the sclera except the cornea?
A)Lens
B)Conjunctiva
C)Cataract
D)Cornea
Q2) What type of retinal detachment occurs when a hole in the retina is present?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
Q3) Miotic eye medications are used to constrict the pupil before ophthalmic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Who is a candidate for radial keratotomy?
A)Farsighted individuals
B)Blind individuals
C)Nearsighted individuals
D)Individuals with cataracts
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement would not be included in the plan of care for a patient undergoing a procedure involving a tissue allograft?
A)A dark antiseptic agent, such as Betadine, is used to prep the skin in the sterile field.
B)Hypothermia is to be avoided.
C)The patient is positioned on a gel mattress to prevent pressure sores.
D)Donor and recipient sites are draped separately.
Q2) Which is a benefit of using a split-thickness mesh graft of skin?
A)Can be cut to fit exactly to the recipient site
B)Prevents serum from escaping the openings in the recipient site
C)Can be placed over the recipient site with slight tension
D)Heals by first intention
Q3) What necessary environmental controls must be considered when caring for a severe burn patient?
A)Know preexisting medical history
B)Keep skin exposed to air
C)Let family visit to distract them from pain
D)Increase room temperature and practice reverse isolation
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42
Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a sign and symptom of an acoustic neuroma?
A)External ear pain
B)Bilateral hearing loss
C)Increased hearing sensitivity
D)Mild vertigo
Q2) From what area is autograft frequently taken for a mandibular reconstruction?
A)Femur
B)Humerus
C)Ilium
D)Tibia
Q3) A nasal fracture needs to be repaired immediately after the trauma to avoid malunion or nonunion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which area of the ear is responsible for conductive hearing loss?
A)Pinna
B)Middle ear
C)Inner ear
D)Cochlea
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bloody in the pleural space
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Pigeon chest
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid heartbeat
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) What procedure uses grafting to bypass obstructed vessels in the heart?
A)Median sternotomy
B)Anterolateral thoracotomy
C)Mitral valve replacement
D)Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Q3) A patient with a pacemaker should not have a procedure that uses an electrosurgical unit (ESU).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When creating an arteriovenous fistula,commonly used autologous vessels are the radial artery and cephalic vein at the wrist.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most common arterial disease?
A)Embolus
B)Venous stasis disease
C)Atherosclerosis
D)Varicose veins
Q3) Which of the following are used to protect the small intestine and colon during an abdominal aneurysmectomy?
A)Dry prep towels to soak up any blood loss
B)Warm, moist tapes
C)Warm, saline-soaked ray-tec
D)Sweetheart retractor
Q4) Veins are more difficult to anastomose and are more likely to occlude than arteries when used as a graft.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetically identical donor and recipient
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q2) Procured organs are placed in sterile containers and packed with dry ice to decrease ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What areas of the body is donor bone marrow taken from?
A)All bones
B)Ribs
C)Iliac crests and sternum
D)Sternum and femur
Q4) A child awaiting a liver transplant requires a liver donated by a child because of patient size and surface area of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Page 47
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