Introduction to Surgical Technology Question
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Surgical Technology offers a comprehensive overview of the principles, practices, and roles associated with surgical technology within the healthcare environment. The course familiarizes students with the operating room setting, sterile techniques, infection control, surgical instrumentation, and the responsibilities of the surgical technologist as a vital member of the surgical team. Emphasis is placed on preparing students to assist in surgical procedures, manage instrumentation and equipment, and uphold safety and ethical standards. Foundational knowledge in anatomy, medical terminology, and patient care is integrated to ensure students are prepared to support surgeons and other healthcare professionals throughout perioperative care.
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Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Q1) Hierarchical layers of hospital administrative departments, services, directors, and trustees
A)Resume
B)Surgical assistant
C)Job description
D)Organizational structure
E)Career ladder
F)Role
G)Allied Health
H)Feedback
I)Intraoperative case management
J)Problem-solving skills
Answer: D
Q2) Which term describes the relationship between the certified surgical technologist (CST) and the other members of the surgical team in the OR?
A) contractual
B) professional
C) social
D) therapeutic
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care?
A) A patient suffers a burn due to hot instruments.
B) Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.
C) A tissue specimen is misplaced by a transporter.
D) A retained surgical sponge is discovered in subsequent procedure.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct that results in harm to another"?
A) allegation
B) liability
C) malpractice
D) negligence
Answer: C
Q3) A surgical technology student who photographs a patient and posts the image on the Internet could be sued for invasion of privacy and HIPAA violation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Q1) Title XI of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986 requires hospitals to establish protocols for organ procurement or risk losing funding by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which type of general category of death would most likely generate high emotional trauma for family members and a need to follow protocols for preservation of evidence in the perioperative period?
A) accidental
B) chronic
C) prolonged
D) terminal
Answer: A
Q3) Maslow's research produced a hierarchical structure of ___________.
A) administrative authority
B) pathological diseases
C) human progression
D) insurance reimbursement
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Q1) What type of physiological measurement method is rarely done in a neonatal patient due to risk of anatomical trauma?
A) cut-down intra-arterial catheter placement
B) urethral catheterization for urinary output
C) esophageal temperature probe placement
D) pulse oximetry for blood oxygen saturation
Q2) Because of the types of drugs used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ, the recipient patient is considered to have which of the following?
A) autoimmune disorder
B) immunodeficiency syndrome
C) immunosuppressed status
D) T-lymphocyte compromise
Q3) Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent:
A) congestive heart failure
B) deep vein thrombosis
C) hypovolemic shock
D) respiratory arrest
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the type of head fixation device that attaches to the operating table used frequently for craniotomy procedures?
A) C-arm unit
B) lithotomy stirrups
C) Mayfield brace
D) Wilson frame
Q2) What are the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for OR air exchanges per hour?
A) 10-15 with 20% fresh outside air
B) 10-15 with 90% filtered recirculated air
C) 20-25 with 20% fresh outside air
D) 20-25 with 90% filtered recirculated air
Q3) What distance from the portable x-ray unit should sterile members of the surgical team stand to reduce their exposure while the image is being taken?
A) 1 foot
B) 2 feet
C) 4 feet
D) as far as possible
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Q1) Which of the following is a safety mechanism engineered into the ESU that alerts the surgical team that the device is being activated?
A) audible tone
B) flashing light on pencil
C) smoke from generator
D) vibration of electrodes
Q2) The bipolar mode of the ESU can be used only to cut tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Robotic manipulators are not sterilized, but are covered with disposable drapes for surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following terms related to electricity defines electrical potential (electrical charge)?
A) amperes
B) current
C) volts
D) watts
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Internal chemical indicator/integrators should be placed in the center or most challenging portion of a tray for the sterilant to reach.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
A)Prions
B)Helminths
C)Spores
D)Prokaryotes
E)Helicobacter pylori
F)Zygomycosis
G)Viruses
H)Clostridium perfringens
I)Flagella
J)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) What is the relationship of steam pressure to temperature in a steam sterilizer?
A) Increased pressure increases temperature.
B) Increased temperature increases pressure.
C) Decreased pressure increases temperature.
D) Decreased temperature increases pressure.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Q1) All of the following are examples of man-made disasters EXCEPT:
A) chemical or radiation release
B) hurricane
C) infrastructure incidents
D) transportation accidents
Q2) The lead federal agency ?that coordinates treatment to victims and food and shelter during a nationally declared emergency is called:
A) CDC
B) NDMS
C) FEMA
D) EPA
Q3) Which of the following disaster response units would include surgical technologist volunteer members?
A) Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)
B) Disaster Mortuary Operations Response Team (DMORT)
C) Incident Command System (ICS)
D) National Pharmacy Response Team (NPRT)
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Avitene is the brand name for which type of chemical hemostatic agent?
A) absorbable gelatin
B) microfibrillar collagen
C) oxidized cellulose
D) topical thrombin
Q2) Which anesthetic monitoring device registers the brain wave activity of the patient and enables anesthetic titration for optimal level of consciousness during surgical intervention?
A) bispectral index
B) Doppler device
C) electrocardiogram
D) pulse oximeter
Q3) Teratogens fall into which category of medication effects?
A) addiction
B) adverse
C) therapeutic
D) toxic
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) GI, chest, and airway are types of:
A) tubes
B) drains
C) catheters
D) instruments
Q2) The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:
A) location of the incision or wound
B) type and amount of drainage expected
C) ambulatory status of the patient post-op
D) condition of the incision/wound upon closure
Q3) Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?
A) intravascular catheter
B) nerve stimulator
C) pneumatic tourniquet
D) sequential compression device
Q4) One-layer dressings are used on large draining wounds to facilitate frequent dressing changes.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a method of achieving hemostasis?
A) apportional
B) chemical
C) mechanical
D) thermal
Q2) Natural absorbable sutures are broken down in the body by:
A) capillarity
B) enzymatic digestion
C) granulation
D) metabolic factors
Q3) Which type of suture needle is used on friable tissue such as liver or kidney?
A) blunt
B) cutting
C) taper
D) trocar
Q4) Which of the following wounds would be assigned a Class I?
A) compound femoral fracture
B) gunshot wound to the abdomen
C) appendectomy with no major intestinal spillage
D) inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
A)Apical
B)Lateral recumbent
C)Auscultation
D)Impervious
E)Perineum
F)Neutral zone
G)Tachypnea
H)Perfusion
I)Depilatory
J)Torsion
Q2) Up to what area of the arms does a surgical technologist scrub?
A) 1 inch below the elbows
B) 2 inches below the elbows
C) 1 inch above the elbows
D) 2 inches above the elbows
Q3) The legs of a patient being placed in the lithotomy position should be raised and lowered slowly and simultaneously by two unsterile personnel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following studies combines computed tomography with isotope scanning to highlight chemical or metabolic activity?
A) PET
B) IOC
C) MRI
D) EEG
Q2) What is the name of the 24-hour monitoring device for cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) Doppler monitor
B) Holter monitor
C) electrocardiogram
D) electromyogram
Q3) Which artery is MOST commonly accessed with the Seldinger technique during cardiac catheterization?
A) axillary
B) brachial
C) carotid
D) femoral
Q4) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another way of saying "cephalad to caudad"?
A) back to front
B) front to back
C) head to tail
D) inside to outside
Q2) Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III-b
D) Stage IV
Q3) What is the name of the fibrous and serous capsule that covers the liver?
A) Bowman's
B) Glisson's
C) Tenon's
D) articular
Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Q1) Which piece of operating room furniture would likely be unnecessary for many vaginal surgical procedures?
A) back table
B) ESU
C) kick bucket
D) Mayo stand
Q2) Delivery of the placenta is the conclusion of which stage of labor?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Q3) What is the general term for the treatment method that destroys genital condylomata with a carbon dioxide laser?
A) ablation
B) curettage
C) exenteration
D) suspension
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What structure is avascular, external, and its function is to refract light rays?
A) iris
B) sclera
C) retina
D) cornea
Q2) What is the name of the opening created in the outer tunic for insertion of the infusion cannula for excision of vitreous?
A) dacryocystorhinostomy
B) iridotomy
C) sclerotomy
D) vitrectomy
Q3) What is the portion of the eye between the cornea and the iris in which aqueous fluid flows and nourishes tissues?
A) anterior chamber
B) posterior chamber
C) fovea
D) macula
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In myringotomy procedures, what does "PE" stand for?
A) pus exudate
B) partial expulsion
C) pressure equalizing
D) peripheral examination
Q2) All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy EXCEPT:
A) inferior
B) laser
C) microdebrider
D) percutaneous
Q3) In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?
A) myringotomy
B) septoplasty
C) tonsillectomy
D) tracheotomy
Q4) Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered "plastic surgery" cases rather than otorhinolaryngological.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?
A) alveolar
B) buccal
C) labial
D) lingual
Q2) Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?
A) frontalis
B) platysma
C) temporalis
D) sternocleidomastoid
Q3) What is the name of the narrow, double-angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures?
A) Minnesota
B) mouth prop
C) plastic cheek
D) Senn
Q4) Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue transplanted from another person or cadaver
A)Eschar
B)Heterograft
C)Turban
D)Hypovolemia
E)Stratum
F)Aesthetic
G)Montgomery straps
H)Caliper
I)Denuded
J)Oscillating
Q2) Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:
A) breasts
B) cheeks
C) eyes
D) nares
Q3) Plastic and reconstructive surgeries must be done only after an individual has stopped growing, due to potential changes in anatomy of younger patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Q1) Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter?
A) renal artery
B) renal vein
C) proximal ureter
D) Gerota's fascia
Q2) Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene
A)Epididymis
B)Balanitis
C)Hyperplasia
D)Palladium
E)Torsion
F)Hypospadias
G)Robotic
H)Geiger counter
I)Chordee
J)Tunica vaginalis
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Q1) Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:
A) autografts for ACL repair
B) connections for hip movement
C) insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation
D) radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies
Q3) Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?
A) Brun curette
B) Gigli saw
C) intramedullary reamer
D) suction brush attachment
Q4) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
Q2) Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?
A) 6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
B) 2-0 or 3-0 polyester
C) 6-0 or 7-0 polyglactin
D) 2-0 or 3-0 poliglecaprone
Q3) What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?
A) aerobic culture tube
B) insufflation tubing
C) myringotomy tube
D) Lukens tube
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suture pledgets are used to bolster anastomosis sites when tissue is friable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Artery that serves the head and neck and arises directly from the aortic arch
A)Aortic bodies
B)Superior mesenteric
C)Left common carotid
D)Thoracic
E)Vascular clamp
F)Inferior mesenteric
G)Vasa vasorum
H)Abdominal
I)Vena cava
J)External iliac
Q3) What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy?
A) light
B) valves
C) strictures
D) clear visibility
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical technologist may have up to three separate setups in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure: nasal access, tumor excision, and fascial graft.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infection of central nervous system tissue via direct injury or remote circulatory transfer; may require surgical excision
A)Paraplegia
B)Brain stem
C)Exothermic
D)Radiculopathy
E)Collateral flow
F)CUSA
G)Bipolar
H)Tunneler
I)Brain abscess
J)Stereotaxis
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