

Introduction to Surgical Technology Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Surgical Technology provides students with a comprehensive overview of the foundational principles and practices essential to the surgical environment. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of the surgical technologist, aseptic techniques, sterilization procedures, equipment handling, patient care before, during, and after surgery, and an introduction to surgical instruments and sterile fields. Emphasis is placed on safety, teamwork, communication, and ethical considerations within the operating room setting, preparing students for further study and practical application in surgical technology programs.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes the relationship between the certified surgical technologist (CST) and the other members of the surgical team in the OR?
A) contractual
B) professional
C) social
D) therapeutic
Answer: B
Q2) The terms entry-level, proficient, and expert practitioners are applied to which of the following?
A) accreditation status of surgical technology programs
B) continuing education (CE) credit categories
C) NBSTSA certification titles
D) AST recommended clinical ladder levels
Answer: D
Q3) A private surgical technologist is usually employed by which of the following?
A) surgeon or physician group
B) ambulatory surgery center
C) instrument sales company
D) traveling staffing agency
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phrase "departure from the standard of care" BEST describes which of the following legal terms?
A) larceny
B) liability
C) malpractice
D) negligence
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following surgical patients would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law?
A) premedicated competent adult
B) adult in a persistent vegetative state
C) an emancipated 16-year-old minor
D) a foreign language speaker without an interpreter
Answer: C
Q3) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what circumstances would many hospitals rescind (invalidate) a "Do Not Resuscitate/Do Not Intubate" order?
A) A patient is admitted to ICU with pneumonia.
B) A family member disagrees with patient's wishes.
C) A patient must undergo a therapeutic surgical procedure.
D) A perianesthesia nurse discovers an unresponsive patient in the PCU.
Answer: C
Q2) The patient statement " I know I will be in a better place" is part of:
A) a coping mechanism
B) the hierarchy of needs
C) a physiological stressor
D) the acceptance stage of grief
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions?
A) Roman Catholic
B) Jehovah's Witness
C) Mormon
D) Protestant
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body system is highly susceptible to injury during positioning of bariatric and geriatric patients?
A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) integumentary
D) respiratory
Q2) Surgical site infections (SSIs) are the most common postoperative complication in patients with diabetes due to the increased perfusion of affected tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?
A) acetometer
B) glucometer
C) insulometer
D) ketometer
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Separate department with direct or indirect connections to OR suite where instrument decontamination, assembly, and sterilization takes place and may include hospital materials storage
A)CSPD
B)Anesthesia cart
C)Hypodermics
D)Suction outlets
E)Pre-op holding
F)Static electricity
G)Fluoroscopy
H)Substerile
I)Laminar flow
J)Laser
Q2) The Wilson frame is used for positioning a patient in which of the following surgical positions?
A) lateral kidney
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) sitting
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient return electrode for a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely be placed:
A) on the anterior thigh
B) under the buttocks
C) on the anterior left chest
D) around the right upper arm
Q2) Which of the following is an Internet address within a document or e-mail that is bolded or underlined and will open a Web page when it is clicked on?
A) attachment
B) hyperlink
C) icon
D) pixel
Q3) What is the term for the developing technology of performing a surgical procedure in real time but from a distant location?
A) Cartesian coordinate geometry
B) expert systems
C) revolute geometry
D) telesurgery
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8

Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) In steam sterilization, thermal destruction of microbes is the result of the denaturation and coagulation of protein within the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?
A) double wrapping
B) event related
C) Julian dating
D) time related
Q3) Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time?
A) asepsis
B) bioburden
C) infection
D) sepsis
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the primary role of the surgical technologist in an intraoperative cardiac arrest?
A) Break scrub and dial 911.
B) Break scrub and quickly pull an open-heart setup.
C) Perform chest compressions on the patient.
D) Protect the sterile field unless directed otherwise.
Q2) The objectives of emergency care and trauma surgery are:
A) to preserve life
B) to prevent deterioration of patient condition
C) to provide necessary care to restore the patient to his/her previous lifestyle
D) all of the above
Q3) DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and A) plasma
B) platelets
C) red cells
D) white cells
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10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient undergoes induced hypothermia to a level of 68°F or below, it is termed to be:
A) light
B) moderate
C) deep
D) profound
Q2) The apothecary system of measurement based weight measurement on a grain of:
A) bran
B) rice
C) sand
D) wheat
Q3) The ratio of a solution's solute to solvent is its:
A) chemical index
B) concentration
C) conversion rate
D) cumulative dose
Q4) Antibiotics and the anticoagulant heparin are frequently diluted with normal saline to achieve a more powerful dosage than the original strength.
A)True
B)False

Page 11
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of syringe has no calibrations?
A) Asepto
B) bulb/ear
C) Luer-Lok
D) Luer-Slip
Q2) A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of adhesive tape?
A) bolster
B) Montgomery straps
C) Minerva jacket
D) Queen Anne collar
Q3) GI, chest, and airway are types of:
A) tubes
B) drains
C) catheters
D) instruments
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of a raised, hypertrophic scar due to excessive collagen formation in some darker-skinned individuals?
A) cicatrix
B) granuloma
C) keloid
D) seroma
Q2) Which of the following sutures has comparatively inconsistent tensile strength and rapid absorption rate in vivo with moderate tissue reaction?
A) plain surgical gut
B) poliglecaprone
C) polyglyconate
D) polydioxanone
Q3) Suture gauge can range from #5 (being the smallest) to 11-0 (being the heaviest) diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about lateral kidney positioning is INCORRECT?
A) The lower leg is flexed, the upper leg is straight, and a pillow is between them.
B) The lower leg is straight and the upper leg is flexed, with a pillow under the lower leg.
C) A small roll is placed under the nonoperative side axillary area to facilitate respiration.
D) The patient's flank is positioned over the kidney lift to provide greater exposure of the operative area.
Q2) Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?
A) double gloving
B) full coverage system
C) lead aprons/shields
D) splash guard mask
Q3) The ability to anticipate the needs of the surgeon is one of the most important skills for a surgical technologist to develop.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thoracentesis is removal of fluid from the:
A) amniotic sac
B) pleural space
C) synovial space
D) peritoneal cavity
Q3) What is the symptom that a patient with myocardial ischemia would experience?
A) angina
B) eupnea
C) flatulence
D) itching
Q4) Which of the following devices would be used within the sterile field to determine the patency of an arterial anastomosis?
A) stethoscope
B) Doppler probe
C) cholangiogram catheter
D) echocardiography transducer
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Doyen, Kocher, Dennis, and Allen are names of which type of instrument?
A) abdominal retractors
B) intestinal clamps
C) laparoscopic graspers
D) tissue scissors
Q2) What type of hernia results from a failure of the deep internal ring to close during fetal development and allows intestinal protrusion into the scrotum?
A) direct
B) femoral
C) indirect
D) umbilical
Q3) What is the name for the first lymph node in the axillary chain that is frequently biopsied in conjunction with a breast biopsy, lumpectomy, or mastectomy?
A) attendant
B) guardian
C) leader
D) sentinel
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is used to achieve tissue destruction in an endometrial balloon ablation?
A) electrical energy
B) hot dextrose water
C) laser light energy
D) ultrasonic friction
Q2) All of the following are paired ligaments that support the uterus in the lower abdomen and attach it to the pelvis, EXCEPT:
A) broad
B) round
C) cardinal
D) Cooper's
Q3) For which procedure would the surgical technologist want to be sure to have adequate numbers of Allis or Allis-Adair tissue forceps?
A) A&P Colporrhaphy
B) D&C
C) LAVH
D) TAH-BSO
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for the traction sutures used to manipulate the globe of the eye?
A) bridle
B) buckle
C) retention
D) tunic
Q2) Gas injected into the posterior cavity of the eye following vitrectomy is more stable and requires fewer restrictions of a patient with regard to positioning and altitude than silicone oil.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?
A) chalazion repair
B) dacryocystorhinostomy
C) entropian repair
D) recession/resection
Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?
A) annulus
B) pars flaccida
C) pars tensa
D) umbo
Q2) Which procedure would require 4 mm or 5 mm, 0°, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intraoperative guidance?
A) Caldwell-Luc
B) FESS
C) radical neck dissection
D) SMR
Q3) Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?
A) ethmoid
B) frontal
C) maxillary
D) sphenoid
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A closed ventilation system and special endotracheal tube may be used in maxillofacial procedures to reduce risk of:
A) airway fire
B) aspiration
C) hyperthermia
D) obstruction
Q2) Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?
A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin
Q3) Which procedure is performed for removal of impacted wisdom teeth?
A) enucleation
B) extraction
C) mandibulectomy
D) odontectomy
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?
A) horizontal mattress
B) figure of eight
C) purse-string
D) vertical mattress
Q2) Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?
A) median
B) peroneal
C) radial
D) ulnar
Q3) What does a mesh graft device do?
A) It attaches a skin graft to the donor site.
B) It expands the size of the skin graft.
C) It slices a split thickness of donor skin.
D) It smoothes the skin graft to prevent bunching up.
Q4) Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?
A) thrombin
B) furosemide
C) protamine sulfate
D) Ringer's lactate
Q2) Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?
A) flank
B) Gibson
C) inguinal
D) scrotal
Q3) What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?
A) edema
B) impotence
C) premature ejaculation
D) surgical site infection
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Page 22

Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?
A) acromium
B) acetabulum
C) tuberosity
D) trochanter
Q2) The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:
A) pelvic girdle
B) rotator cuff
C) sternal notch
D) thoracic cage
Q3) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?
A) labrum (cartilage)
B) rotator cuff (muscles)
C) bicipital groove (tendon)
D) acromioclavicular (bone spur)
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree?
A) alveoli
B) bronchi
C) bronchioles
D) lobes of the lung
Q2) A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute
A)Asystole
B)Electrocardiograph
C)Perfusion
D)Ventricular fibrillation
E)Bradycardia
F)Heart block
G)Echocardiography
H)Ventricular tachycardia
I)Atrial fibrillation
J)Ejection fraction
Q3) Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24

Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the main obstacle of performing angioscopy?
A) light
B) valves
C) strictures
D) clear visibility
Q3) Names frequently associated with vascular instrumentation include DeBakey and Cooley, both of whom were cardiothoracic surgeons and pioneers of cardiothoracic and peripheral vascular surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transient cerebral ischemic episodes are treated surgically by:
A) angioplasty
B) atriovenous fistula and shunt
C) carotid endarterectomy
D) coronary artery bypass
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penfield #1 through #5 are:
A) aneurysm clips
B) dissectors
C) drill bits
D) scalp clips
Q2) In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?
A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
B) fronto-temporal craniotomy for aneurysm
C) placement of ventriculo-atrial shunt
D) rhizotomy for intractable trigeminal neuralgia
Q3) Which anatomical structure is the soft, gelatinous part of the intervertebral disc, which is sent as specimen after diskectomy?
A) annulus fibrosis
B) intervertebral foramina
C) nucleus pulposus
D) posterior longitudinal ligament
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