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Introduction to Surgical Technology Exam Preparation
Guide
Course Introduction
Introduction to Surgical Technology provides students with foundational knowledge of the roles and responsibilities of surgical technologists within the operating room environment. This course covers essential topics such as aseptic techniques, sterilization procedures, surgical instrumentation, and patient safety protocols. Students will learn about the various phases of perioperative care, the surgical teams structure, and the proper handling of equipment and supplies. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking skills, professional behavior, and effective communication in support of surgical procedures, preparing students for further clinical training and certification.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prioritizing, considering alternatives, evaluating abilities, working with others to address challenges to patient care
A)Resume
B)Surgical assistant
C)Job description
D)Organizational structure
E)Career ladder
F)Role
G)Allied Health
H)Feedback
I)Intraoperative case management
J)Problem-solving skills
Answer: J
Q2) Which of the following membership organizations would the circulating RN in the operating room likely join as a member?
A) ACS
B) AMA
C) AAMI
D) AORN
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?
A) EPA
B) FDA
C) HIPAA
D) OSHA
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms meets the following definition: a voluntary and informed act in which one party gives permission to another party to "touch"?
A) advance directive
B) battery
C) consent
D) time-out
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional?
A) battery
B) defamation
C) foreign bodies left in patient
D) invasion of patient privacy
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) For what type of research was Sister Callista Roy best known?
A) adaptation model
B) hierarchy of needs
C) patient care partnership
D) five stages of grief
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions?
A) Roman Catholic
B) Jehovah's Witness
C) Mormon
D) Protestant
Answer: B
Q3) Under what circumstances would many hospitals rescind (invalidate) a "Do Not Resuscitate/Do Not Intubate" order?
A) A patient is admitted to ICU with pneumonia.
B) A family member disagrees with patient's wishes.
C) A patient must undergo a therapeutic surgical procedure.
D) A perianesthesia nurse discovers an unresponsive patient in the PCU.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which pediatric age group would all of the craniofacial sinuses be fully developed?
A) neonatal
B) toddler
C) preschooler
D) adolescent
Q2) During which part of pregnancy would an abdominal surgery be considered safest for both mother and fetus?
A) first trimester
B) second trimester
C) third trimester
D) concurrent with delivery
Q3) What is the chemical and physiological classification of insulin?
A) carbohydrate
B) hormone
C) protein
D) sugar
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An erasable board is usually hung in the OR that is within easy viewing range of the surgical team to record:
A) sponge usage
B) sharps
C) instrument counts
D) all of the above
Q2) Effective surgical smoke evacuator units suction and filter particles as small as:
A) 0.1-0.5 µm
B) 1.0-5.0 µm
C) 0.1-0.5 mm
D) 1.0-5.0 mm
Q3) Equipment with the highest potential for serving as ignition sources in surgical fires include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) electrosurgical units
B) fiber-optic light cables
C) laser fibers or beams
D) phacoemulsification probes
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current that requires a wall outlet and reverses direction periodically
A)Internet
B)Modern
C)Electrons
D)Alternating
E)Font
F)Insulator
G)Resistance
H)Software
I)Power
J)Ground
K)Port
L)Matter
M)Battery
N)Hardware
O)Scanner
Q2) The acronym laser stands for light application by special electromagnetic radiation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sterilization method presents the greatest exposure risk to CSPD personnel, is expensive, and requires the longest total cycle time?
A) ethylene oxide
B) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam under pressure
Q2) Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist's hands?
A) clasped together in front at waist level
B) grasping edge of draped back table with fingers coiled under table edge
C) hanging down at sides with hands below table level
D) tucked into axillary region (armpits)
Q3) Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?
A) ethylene oxide
B) ionizing radiation
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is a division of which governmental group?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) Food and Drug Administration
C) Department of Health and Human Services
D) Department of Homeland Security
Q2) DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and
A) plasma
B) platelets
C) red cells
D) white cells
Q3) Which member of the U.S.government makes a federal disaster declaration and mobilizes FEMA?
A) governor
B) president
C) secretary of state
D) surgeon general
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Category of drugs used to alter pH of gastric secretions, reduce gastric volume, and promote pyloric emptying
A)Induction agents
B)Ringer's solution
C)Volatile agents
D)Pharmacokinetics
E)Narcotic antagonists
F)Histamine antagonists
G)Indications
H)Calibrations
I)Depolarizing agents
J)Benzodiazepines
K)Over-the-counter
L)Inhalation agents
M)Pharmacodynamics
N)Drug actions
O)Fresh frozen plasma
Q2) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?
A) Balfour
B) Bookwalter
C) Greenburg
D) Thompson
Q2) Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement?
A) #10
B) #11
C) #12
D) #20
Q3) The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?
A) arthroscopy
B) craniotomy
C) laparotomy
D) tonsillectomy
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interweaves its fibers during the maturation phase of wound healing and increases its tensile strength?
A) collagen
B) enzymes
C) fibrin
D) protein
Q2) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which layer of the abdominal wall must be approximated securely, even if the other layers are not?
A) skin
B) fascia
C) peritoneum
D) subcutaneous fat
Q4) Which suture gauge would be MOST appropriate for ophthalmic surgery?
A) #5
B) 0
C) 3-0
D) 8-0
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a radiofrequency tracking system in the operating room?
A) Aid in chargeable items being input into system.
B) Assist CSPD personnel in locating instrument trays.
C) Prevent potential for patient misidentification.
D) Reduce possibility of retained foreign objects.
Q2) Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?
A) Count packages, leaving paper bands around and intact to prevent mixing of sponges before use.
B) Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.
C) Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with the circulator
D) Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.
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14
Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular imaging technique that removes the background structures from view
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
Q2) In a Gram stain study, the bacteria that retains the blue coloration following staining, alcohol rinse, and restaining is:
A) gram positive
B) gram negative
C) gram sensitive
D) gram resistant
Q3) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vagotomy is a surgical treatment option for:
A) appendicitis
B) ductal carcinoma
C) gastric ulcers
D) pancreatitis
Q2) Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:
A) anal fissure
B) fistula-in-ano
C) hemorrhoid
D) pilonidal cyst
Q3) Which surgical position is used exclusively for anorectal surgical procedures?
A) Kraske
B) supine
C) Trendelenburg
D) reverse Trendelenburg
Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the MOST common surgical intervention for a vaginal delivery?
A) cerclage
B) episiotomy
C) labioplasty
D) marsupialization
Q2) Tubal ligation is performed for:
A) blood gas collection
B) elective sterilization
C) unruptured tubal pregnancy
D) urinary incontinence treatment
Q3) What is the general term for the treatment method that destroys genital condylomata with a carbon dioxide laser?
A) ablation
B) curettage
C) exenteration
D) suspension
Q4) Adhesion formation is a normal physiologic inflammatory response to abdominal surgery that cannot be prevented or minimized.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for the traction sutures used to manipulate the globe of the eye?
A) bridle
B) buckle
C) retention
D) tunic
Q2) The normal condition of the lens of the eye is:
A) opaque and biconcave
B) opaque and biconvex
C) transparent and biconcave
D) transparent and biconvex
Q3) Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride are used to:
A) anesthetize the eye
B) constrict the pupil
C) keep pressure on the retina
D) prevent post-op infections
Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?
A) forceps
B) knife
C) pick
D) suction
Q2) An otorhinolaryngologist is more commonly known as which type of specialist?
A) allergist
B) ENT
C) OB/GYN
D) pediatrician
Q3) Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?
A) BMT
B) FESS
C) SMR
D) UPPP
Q4) Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:
A) allergic reaction
B) ear infection
C) nose bleed
D) upper respiratory inflammation
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Care must be taken when preauricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve?
A) third (III)
B) fifth (V)
C) seventh (VII)
D) eighth (VIII)
Q2) Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?
A) frontalis
B) platysma
C) temporalis
D) sternocleidomastoid
Q3) Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?
A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin
Q4) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?
A) basale
B) corneum
C) granulosum
D) lucidum
Q2) Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?
A) to prevent confusion because multiple surgeons will work simultaneously
B) to prevent potential for retained foreign objects in the wounds
C) to prevent overcrowding of the back table with multiple trays
D) to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
Q3) Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?
A) free flap
B) full thickness
C) pedicle flap
D) split thickness
Q4) Patients with cleft palates may have difficulty sucking, swallowing, or forming sounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT:
A) genetic predisposition
B) end-stage renal disease
C) liver cirrhosis
D) tobacco use
Q2) What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?
A) The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.
B) A purse-string suture is placed to cinch it shut.
C) It is cut into four sections and tacked to the skin.
D) A Penrose drain is inserted and pulled over the edge.
Q3) What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?
A) hydrocele
B) ileal conduit
C) Koch pouch
D) orchiopexy
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?
A) flat and irregular
B) long and short
C) sesamoid only
D) irregular only
Q2) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?
A) cranium
B) femur
C) ilium
D) scapula
Q4) What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?
A) bursa
B) canaliculi
C) ganglion
D) osteocytes
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disorganized stimulation of the atria that prevents atrial contraction and does not allow for ventricular filling
A)Asystole
B)Electrocardiograph
C)Perfusion
D)Ventricular fibrillation
E)Bradycardia
F)Heart block
G)Echocardiography
H)Ventricular tachycardia
I)Atrial fibrillation
J)Ejection fraction
Q2) The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system (CNS)?
A) phrenic nerve
B) vagus nerve
C) Purkinje system
D) medulla oblongata
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Portion of the aorta that runs between level of diaphragm and bifurcation of iliac arteries
A)Aortic bodies
B)Superior mesenteric
C)Left common carotid
D)Thoracic
E)Vascular clamp
F)Inferior mesenteric
G)Vasa vasorum
H)Abdominal
I)Vena cava
J)External iliac
Q2) Which arterial aneurysm is more likely to rupture due to lack of detection over time?
A) femoral
B) iliac
C) popliteal
D) radial
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which retractor has a proximal hook placed in the wound and a distal hook for attachment of a weight or sandbag using a sterile Kerlix roll for suspension?
A) Cloward
B) Greenburg
C) Love
D) Taylor
Q2) Which of the following layered structures has the closest and most intimate contact with the brain?
A) arachnoid
B) dura
C) galea
D) pia
Q3) Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:
A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
B) craniectomy for craniosynostosis
C) lumbar hemilaminotomy
D) ulnar nerve transposition
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