Introduction to Surgery for Nurses
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Surgery for Nurses is designed to provide nursing students with foundational knowledge and skills related to the surgical care environment. The course covers the principles of aseptic technique, preoperative and postoperative patient care, surgical instrumentation, and the roles and responsibilities of nurses within the operating room. Emphasizing patient safety and communication, it introduces concepts of infection control, pain management, anesthesia support, and surgical documentation. Through a blend of theory and practical simulations, students will gain confidence in supporting surgical teams and delivering high-quality care to patients undergoing surgical interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse first assistant (RNFA)is considered an advanced practice nurse when he/she has achieved:
A) RNFA certification.
B) clinical performance ladder level 4 or above.
C) graduate degree in nursing (MSN).
D) facility practice privileges.
Answer: C
Q2) The perioperative nurse implements protective measures to prevent skin or tissue injury caused by thermal sources.Successful accomplishment of this intervention would meet which of the following desired nursing outcomes?
A) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of chemical injury.
B) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of electrical injury.
C) The patient is free from signs and symptoms of radiation injury.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Norma Miller,a 49-year-old long-distance runner with dysfunctional uterine bleeding,was scheduled for a hysteroscopy.During the procedure,sterile saline was used to expand the intrauterine compartment and enhance visualization.The perioperative nurse meticulously monitored fluid use and documented infiltration to the uterus and fluid collected as drainage from the uterus.The perioperative nurse was concerned that approximately 500 ml of fluid was unaccounted for and alerted the surgeon.The nurse's motive for this surveillance was to:
A) determine the potential for intravascular uptake of fluid or third spacing.
B) estimate the likelihood for fluid puddles on the floor,causing a fall hazard.
C) determine the potential for dependent pooling under the patient and subsequent electrical burn.
D) determine the potential for dependent pooling under the patient and sacral maceration.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical site infections (SSIs)are most often caused by gram-positive cocci and may arise from the patient's own endogenous sources.The most typical causative microorganism cultured from SSIs is:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Enterococcus.
Answer: C
Q2) A swab of a fluid collection from an edematous,red,and separating postoperative wound is sent to the microbiology lab for culture,sensitivity,and Gram stain.The surgeon expects that the result will show a gram-positive coccus.This Gram stain designation is based on the:
A) ability to cause plasma to coagulate and form a microscopic clot.
B) physical and chemical properties of the cell wall.
C) formation of aerobic clustered spheres.
D) appearance of a thicker and brownish colored cell wall.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pediatric,geriatric,and physiologically compromised patients have impaired thermal regulatory mechanisms that place them at risk for hypothermia.The perioperative nurse should prepare the OR bed before patient arrival by placing:
A) an infrared warming lamp 18 inches from the OR bed surface.
B) hot bath blankets over the OR bed surface as the patient transport vehicle enters the room.
C) a forced air-warming hose towel-clipped under the lifting sheet.
D) a patient-sized forced air-warming blanket on top of the OR bed surface.
Q2) Malignant hyperthermia (MH)is a rare,multifaceted syndrome with an increased incidence in individuals with central core diseases such as:
A) spinal cord injury.
B) muscular dystrophy.
C) congenital myopathies.
D) muscular dystrophy and congenital myopathies
Q3) The instillation of a local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space is termed:
A) spinal anesthesia.
B) epidural anesthesia.
C) perfusion block.
D) stellate ganglion block.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in lateral position for a right nephrectomy.
a.After induction,intubation,and urinary catheter insertion,prepare for lifting.
b.Transfer patient to locked OR bed and place in supine position.
c.Slowly elevate kidney bridge,flex bed to lower legs,and create horizontal line between hip and shoulder;tape hip to OR bed underside.
d.Using at least 4 people,lift patient and turn lateral,left side down with iliac crest below lumbar break.
e.Select OR bed and check mobility/operation of kidney bridge before patient transfer.
f.Place leg strap across mid thighs and abduct arms less than 90 degrees.
g.Secure right arm in an elevated armboard.
h.Elevate right leg with pillows,maintaining straight alignment;bend left leg and pad dependent bony prominences;secure with leg strap.
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical instruments that do not fall under the category of clamps,retractors,or cutting instruments,but are used in most procedures,are typically included within the category of:
A) specialty instruments.
B) microsurgical instruments.
C) endomechanicals.
D) accessory and ancillary instruments.
Q2) Linda,a veteran perioperative nurse,remembers a time when all suture needles had eyes and she even had her own needle rack.She hand-threaded all sutures according to the surgeon's preference.The newer sutures were originally called "atraumatic" sutures because they did not double back through a needle eye and cause tissue trauma during pulling or suturing through the tissue.Today,we call this manufacturing process of connecting the suture thread to the needle:
A) engineered crimp.
B) controlled release.
C) reverse cutting.
D) swaged.
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Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
Q2) The design of laparoscopic instruments aims to provide a clamping,cutting,dissecting,electrocoagulating,suturing,or stapling instrument on the tip of a shaft that is long or short enough to reach the target tissue.The hand control on the surgeon's end of the instrument is engineered to provide:
A) ergonomic comfort and control.
B) smooth operation of the lubricated instrument tips to prevent tissue adherence or entrapment.
C) a perception of haptic and tactile sense to prevent crushing or losing tissue.
D) adaptors for monopolar electrosurgery connection and laser fibers.
Q3) Dr.Wheeler's patient,a 72-year-old man with a single early-stage liver tumor,has an implanted automatic internal defibrillator that the anesthesia provider has decided not to disarm for the procedure.What energy-generated dissection device should Dr.Wheeler use to replace the argon beam coagulator?
A) An ultrasonic dissector
B) A monopolar suction-irrigator
C) A monopolar hydrodissector
D) A CO laser with articulating arm and handpiece
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9
Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pilar Slayton has just seen her surgeon for her first postoperative visit after a modified radical mastectomy 6 days ago.Her incision is healing well and the closed drain was removed.There are no signs of infection or impaired healing.The surgeon reviewed the operative report and noted that Pilar's wound classification was documented in the perioperative record as classification II.After Pilar left,the surgeon called the perioperative nurse to investigate the reason wound classification II was assigned during the surgery.What is the most probable explanation for this notation?
A) A break in aseptic technique
B) An error of transmission in the perioperative record
C) The nurse thought that the closed drain warranted classification II.
D) Any of these events could have occurred and were not communicated to the team.
Q2) Which statement best reflects the appropriate purpose of a surgical drain?
A) Drains can prevent the development of deep wound infections.
B) Drains provide pockets through which air and fluids can collect in the surgical site.
C) Drains provide a portal for antibiotic irrigation.
D) Drains can provide opportunities for wound aeration.
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the appropriate example of physiologic symptoms of pain.
A) A proxy pain rating by someone who knows the patient well
B) Facial grimacing and crying
C) The patient's self-report of pain
D) Physiologic indicators,such as elevated vital signs
Q2) Virginia Grier,a 33-year-old female who had a D&C with laparoscopic tubal ligation and has been in phase II recovery for 3 hours,collapsed while sitting on the toilet.The perianesthesia nurse had recently finished giving Virginia her discharge instructions and helped her dress.Virginia was assessed for loss of consciousness and ineffective breathing patterns and lifted to a transport vehicle.What action should the phase II nurse take next?
A) Transfer Virginia back to phase I PACU and begin airway interventions.
B) Determine if Virginia has resedated and is a candidate for a dose of naloxone.
C) Begin airway interventions and obtain vascular access;revert to phase I criteria.
D) Initiate a cardiac arrest call and get the crash cart.Prepare to intubate.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ramona Guerne has been admitted through the emergency department for severe abdominal pain,distended abdomen,and fever.The surgery service has been consulted and has scheduled her for exploratory surgery.Ramona has undergone two abdominal surgeries in the past for "female problems" and states that she has a tendency to form keloids.A small bowel obstruction is suspected.Postoperative ileus is a common complication of open abdominal surgery.Select the procedure that is least likely to promote postoperative ileus formation in this patient.
A) Long (4-hour) laparoscopic procedure,with incidental peritonitis
B) Open small bowel resection with postoperative signs of pancreatitis
C) Laparoscopic lysis of adhesions with release of bowel torsion
D) Laparoscopic-assisted hemicolectomy with mild peritoneal inflammation
Q2) The general risks associated with gastrointestinal surgery parallel those risks associated with most abdominal procedures.Select a complication that is the most typical risk associated with surgery of the large bowel.
A) Colitis
B) Peritonitis
C) Paralytic ileostomy
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The donor liver OR is prepared for an open laparotomy procedure with basic laparotomy and vascular instruments and accessories.A second sterile instrument table is set up to receive and prepare the procured liver.Select the additional instruments and accessories needed on the donor organ preparation table.
A) vascular instruments,silk sutures and ties,sterile ice,flushing solution,and slush machine.
B) flushing solution,ice chest,sterile ice,powered sternal saw,and long Kocher clamps.
C) culture tubes,Wisconsin University forceps,Deaver retractors,and slush machine.
D) toothed forceps,vessel loops,two sterile plastic draw-string bags,and flushing solution.
Q2) The functional units of the liver are the lobules.The functional cells of the liver are the __ and they manufacture ___.
A) Kupffer cells;phagocytes
B) sinusoid cells;lymphocytes
C) hepatocytes;bile
D) portal triad cells;ductal epithelium
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the open hernia procedures listed below,which classic hernia procedure is considered,by some surgeons,to not be anatomically correct because the superior transversalis fascia is sutured to the inguinal ligament instead of to the inferior portion of the transversalis fascia or the Cooper ligament?
A) Shouldice repair
B) Bassini repair
C) McVay repair
D) Cooper repair
Q2) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.
A) Inguinal ligament,rectus abdominis muscle,deep epigastric vessels
B) Rectus abdominis muscle,Cooper ligament,aponeurosis
C) Scarpa's fascia,deep epigastric vessels,external oblique muscle
D) Inguinal ligament,inguinal canal,Cooper ligament
Q3) While direct and indirect hernias both protrude into the inguinal canal and represent tears in the transversalis fascia,which one of the two occurs within the Hesselbach triangle?
A) Direct inguinal hernia
B) Indirect inguinal hernia
C) Both options occur within the triangle
D) Neither option occurs within Hesselbach's triangle
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matilda Gunderson,a 55-year-old woman with uterine cancer,is scheduled for an open panhysterectomy.She is positioned in low lithotomy with her legs symmetrically arranged in padded cradle stirrups.After the incision is made and primary dissection accomplished,she will be positioned in Trendelenburg position to facilitate exposure of the lower pelvis and displacement of the small bowel from the operative area.Matilda is at risk for compromise and injury related to prolonged Trendelenburg tilt,which promotes:
A) decreased pulmonary compliance and functional residual capacity.
B) increased popliteal congestion and peripheral vascular collapse.
C) shearing force injury from sliding toward the head of the OR bed.
D) avascular ischemic changes to the lower leg and feet from gravitational devascularization.
Q2) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients having genitourinary surgery are at risk for impaired urinary elimination.Select the statement that best reflects a desired outcome for an adult patient.
A) The patient will be able to urinate before the bladder exceeds 350 ml of fullness.
B) The patient will regain his or her normal pattern of urinary elimination.
C) The patient will excrete 50 ml of urine per hour.
D) All of the options are desired outcomes.
Q2) The PSA test is a serum lab test for prostate-specific antigen.If the test value is elevated,the patient is at risk for carcinoma of the prostate;a PSA value greater than 10 ng/ml is highly suggestive of prostatic carcinoma.Tissue from a transrectal prostate biopsy provides the cellular information to confirm the diagnosis.The American Urological Association (AUA)prostate cancer staging tool essentially provides what important information about the tissue specimen?
A) Prostate cancer stages of severity
B) Indications for selecting appropriate intervention
C) Prognosis and potential for recovery
D) All of the options define the AUA score system.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with hyperthyroidism most likely has received appropriate drug therapy that has returned thyroid hormone levels and metabolic state to normal;however,the perioperative nurse should assess for any symptoms that relate to accelerated metabolism.Select the set of symptoms that is most commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.
A) Atrial fibrillation,anxiety,weight gain,and cold intolerance
B) Tachypnea,dry mouth,systemic pruritus,and heavy menses
C) Fatigue,vision changes,disturbed concentration,and vertigo
D) Increased sweating,insomnia,tremor,and muscle weakness
Q2) Thyroid storm can occur in patients whose hyperthyroidism is partially controlled or untreated.Thyrotoxic crisis can be precipitated by a stressful event,such as surgery.An example of a nursing action(s)to reduce the risk of thyroid storm is:
A) administer potassium iodide before transfer to the OR.
B) provide a quiet,calm atmosphere and help the patient relax.
C) provide comfort measures,including a cooling blanket.
D) provide a quiet,calm atmosphere and help the patient relax,and provide comfort measures,including a cooling blanket.
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maureen Gilroy,a 39-year-old mother of 5 children,was recently diagnosed with early stage,noninvasive ductal carcinoma in situ.She is an athletic woman who is very involved with her children and community activities.She has decided to have a bilateral preemptive modified radical mastectomy to minimize her risk of metastatic disease.She is calm and confident that she has made the right decision,but is concerned about the length of her recovery.The perioperative nurse recognizes Maureen's concern and assigns her a nursing diagnosis of:
A) Knowledge Deficit related to unfamiliarity with perioperative routines.
B) Knowledge Deficit related to ineffective preoperative preparation.
C) Knowledge Deficit related to anxiety about her future.
D) Knowledge Deficit related to delayed discharge teaching.
Q2) Fibrocystic changes in the breast describe many different breast changes.These changes affect almost all women at some time in their lives.Nipple discharge is more commonly associated with benign lesions than with cancer;however,discharge is usually significant only if it is spontaneous,persistent,and:
A) chronic.
B) unilateral.
C) bloody.
D) All of the options are significant.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure for cataract extraction with implantation of an intraocular lens (IOL)exposes the patient to risks of infection of the anterior chamber and corruption of the implanted device.Appropriate measures for the circulating nurse and scrub person include managing patient safety needs.Efforts are directed at preventing foreign substances from being introduced intraocularly.Select all of the nursing actions that may ensure this outcome.
A)The sterile field should be created with lint-free drapes.
B)Powder-free gloves should be worn.
C)Instruments should be cleaned with gauze sponges.
D)Gloved hands should not touch the intraocular tip of the instrument.
E)Instruments should be soaked in sterile water when not in use.f.The procedure room should be warm,quiet,and peaceful.
Q2) Select the appropriate procedure performed for a patient with Fuchs' dystrophy,edema after cataract surgery,or keratoconus (abnormal steepening)of the cornea.
A) Keratoplasty
B) Keratorefraction
C) Laser epithelial keratomileusis
D) Laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis
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Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both ears provide stereophonic hearing that gives us very specific hearing capabilities.Binaural hearing makes it possible for:
A) determination of the source location of sounds.
B) enhanced voice recognition.
C) amplification and resolution of sound properties.
D) recognition of more than one sound at a time.
Q2) Microlaryngoscopy facilitates improved diagnosis and allows the laryngologist to view,with relative ease,areas that previously were inaccessible or difficult to visualize.What are the two most common indications for microlaryngoscopy?
A) Chronic hoarseness and cough
B) Laryngeal polyps and nodules
C) Epiglottitis and frequent choking
D) Laryngeal injury and cancer
Q3) Of the three salivary glands,which one is the largest?
A) Sublingual
B) Submandibular
C) Zygomatic
D) Parotid
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Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Remodeling
Q2) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?
A) Deltoid,teres major,and teres minor
B) Supraspinatus,infraspinatus,teres minor,and subscapularis
C) Latissimus dorsi,deltoid,and teres major
D) Supraspinatus,subscapularis,pectoralis major,and deltoid
Q3) Hematoma formation
Q4) In an open anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)repair,an examination under anesthesia (EUA)is performed immediately after induction of anesthesia,when the ligaments are completely lax,to evaluate the severity of the injury.The surgeon then makes a straight midline or slightly medial incision across the knee.Arthroscopic repair causes less patellar pain and decreased disturbance of extensor mechanisms.What preoperative indicators contribute to selecting the surgical approach (open or arthroscopic)of choice?
A) Classification and severity of the tear or capsular instability
B) Surgeon experience and preference
C) Patient history of a prior failed repair or gross knee joint disruption
D) All of the options are contributing factors.
Q5) Invasion of osteoblasts
Q6) Layer of elastic,resilient supporting tissue found at the ends of the bones
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Q1) Microsurgical techniques have been applied to cranial,spinal,and peripheral nerve operations.Some procedures in which microsurgery is of value are explorations of the posterior fossa,especially for tumors of the fourth ventricle or cerebellopontine angle,and removal of small acoustic neuromas,with resulting preservation of the facial nerve.Each time the surgeon must look away and then back to the surgical field,open wound time and anesthesia time are increased while the surgeon becomes reoriented to the field.A nursing action,in the scrub person role,directed toward assisting the surgeon in efficiency and expediting the microsurgical procedure would be:
A) have the patient prepped and draped before the time out.
B) place the instruments and accessories within the surgeon's peripheral vision.
C) hand instruments proficiently,in direction of use,without delay.
D) transfer micro-wiped instruments and accessories via the first assistant.
Q2) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Denise Michaelson,a 46-year-old woman with an early-stage second primary cancer in her left breast,has elected to have a bilateral mastectomy with saline implants.She has requested that the surgeon also revise a small unsightly scar on her right knee and pierce her ears.While Denise's breast tumor could be treated with an excisional biopsy,she has decided to have a mastectomy of both breasts,which is considered an appropriate preemptive (preventative)surgery for a woman of her age with two primary cancers of the breast.The saline implant insertion surgery is considered a ___ procedure,the scar revision is considered a ___ procedure,and the ear piercing is considered a ___ procedure.
A) reconstructive;reconstructive;reconstructive
B) reconstructive;cosmetic;reconstructive
C) cosmetic;reconstructive;cosmetic
D) reconstructive,cosmetic and cosmetic
Q2) A broad range of implant materials are used in plastic and reconstructive surgery.Select the implant that represents a biologic composition of a surgical implant.
A) Autologous human tissue
B) Medical-grade sterile silicone
C) Gold
D) Polypropylene
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Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Assessment of the skin and the patient's general condition is important in preventing perioperative complications.The nurse should assess the patient's smoking history (including the use of cigars,pipes,tobacco,or controlled substances)and any exposure to secondhand smoke within the home and/or workplace and reinforce the need to abstain following surgery.Patients might be sensitive about smoking history because of the assumed relationship between smoking and lung disease.Select the statement that best reflects an appropriate strategy that the nurse could use in assessing the patient's smoking history.
A) The nurse should begin preparing the patient for nicotine withdrawal.
B) The nurse should avoid making assumptions about smoking and a cancer diagnosis.
C) The nurse should note packs/day consumption to alert the surgeon to write postoperative orders for medication.
D) The nurse should phrase questions so as not to suggest guilt about smoking behaviors.
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Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) While arteriosclerosis is a natural part of the aging process and occurs when the walls of the arterial vasculature undergo changes such as increased thickness and hardening,reducing the elasticity of the arteries,certain risk factors for arteriosclerosis are modifiable by the individual.Select the dyad of modifiable risk factors that could minimize the potential for acute or chronic vascular insufficiency.
A) Past surgical history and hypercholesterolemia
B) Cigarette smoking and sedentary lifestyle
C) Hypertension and diabetes
D) Hyperhomocysteinemia and hypertriglyceridemia
Q2) Surgically created arteriovenous fistulas are also referred to as a(n)_ and are indicated for enabling __.
A) axillo-femoral bypass;end-stage renal disease
B) bridge shunt;peritoneal dialysis
C) arteriovenous shunt;hemodialysis
D) side-to-side anastomosis;cannulation
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Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Identify the correct path of the cardiac conduction system.
A) From the area where the superior vena cava meets the right atrium to the atrioventricular junction close to the tricuspid valve to the right side of the interventricular system into a network of fibers by way of the right and left bundle branches
B) From the SA node to the AV node to the bundle of His to the Purkinje system
C) Both from the area where the superior vena cava meets the right atrium to the atrioventricular junction close to the tricuspid valve to the right side of the interventricular system into a network of fibers by way of the right and left bundle branches,and from the SA node to the AV node to the bundle of His to the Purkinje system
D) Neither from the area where the superior vena cava meets the right atrium to the atrioventricular junction close to the tricuspid valve to the right side of the interventricular system into a network of fibers by way of the right and left bundle branches,and from the SA node to the AV node to the bundle of His to the Purkinje system
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26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carlos Gracia is a 12-year-old boy scheduled for a laparoscopic hernia repair.During the preoperative assessment and interview,the perioperative nurse notes that Carlos has mild myotonia congenita.Carlos' mother states that she is worried about the anesthesia because her husband's brother died many years ago when he became very feverish during surgery and they could not cool him.The perioperative nurse's appropriate risk reduction strategy in this situation would be to:
A) perform a careful assessment of family history to identify risk for developing malignant hyperthermia (MH).
B) advise the anesthesia provider to find an alternative to succinylcholine and sevoflurane.
C) plan an inservice for the OR staff on MH crisis management.
D) pursue a physician order for a laboratory test to rule out MH.
Q2) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone),which can be induced by:
A) painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B) anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C) environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D) thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperthyroidism is the great masquerader in the elderly population and can easily be missed in patients older than 60 years.It can be severe and even life-threatening.An important assessment point during the preoperative interview,that could influence the positioning for the surgical procedure,is based on which true statement?
A) The patient may have osteoporosis caused by hyperthyroidism.
B) Euthyroid syndrome is prevalent in hyperthyroidism and impairs neck flexion.
C) Positional injury can trigger thyroid storm.
D) Patients who have been exposed to radioactive iodine are at risk for pressure injuries.
Q2) As a person ages digestive secretions decrease,mucus becomes thicker (causing dysphagia),and saliva becomes more alkaline.Decreased peristalsis and gastric motility,resulting in muscle tone loss,will cause delayed stomach emptying.What perioperative concern may be influenced by this age-related digestive condition?
A) Traumatic injuries to the bowel
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Esophageal reflux
D) Retention of lipophilic drugs
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency medical services system consists of trained prehospital personnel who arrive at the scene and perform definitive interventions designed to reduce morbidity and mortality.What is the primary role of the prehospital personnel? Select all that apply.
A) Scoop and run to the nearest hospital emergency department while performing ABCs.
B) Deliver the victim to the hospital before the end of the golden hour.
C) Determine the severity of injury and initiate medical treatment.
D) Identify the most appropriate facility to which to transport the victim.
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a geriatric trauma patient before surgery?
A) They may have preexisting diseases and conditions.
B) They may take many prescription and nonprescription drugs.
C) They have decreased physiologic reserves.
D) All of the options can negatively impact the geriatric patient's perioperative experience.
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Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small amounts of a thrombolytic drug can be instilled into portacaths and aspirated to ensure patency of the device.An example of a true statement regarding thrombolytics is:
A) thrombolytic drugs break down the fiber matrix of active plasmin.
B) there are no reported complications to thrombolytic drugs.
C) thrombolytic drugs work best on a fresh clot.
D) thrombolytic drugs convert plasminogen to fibrin.
Q2) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anesthesia providers are concerned about the potential increased risk of instability intraoperatively resulting from inhibition of coagulation.Which herbal supplement,from the list below,would be implicated in a coagulation interaction?
A) Feverfew
B) Lavender
C) Rosemary
D) Licorice
Q2) What therapeutic and healing therapy can the patient use throughout the perioperative experience (e.g.,preoperative,intraoperative,and postoperative phases)?
A) Biofield therapy with transcutaneous electrodes
B) Music therapy with headphones
C) Aromatherapy with saturated cotton balls in a net bag
D) Warmed herbal packs placed on the neck and chest
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wet floors are a common hazard causing slips,trips,and falls (STFs).Select a prevention strategy that is a best practice for preventing STFs from spills on wet floors.
A) Transport liquids in covered containers with lids in place.
B) Place bright yellow low-profile pop-up signs in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
C) Position highly visible yellow absorptive pads in areas where STFs are most likely to occur.
D) Use a dripless,brush-free gel solution for surgical patient skin preps.
Q2) Select the appropriate nursing action that supports hands-free instrument passing and sharps safety.
A) Create a neutral hands-free area between the scrub person and surgeon with a basin or magnetic mat.
B) Use a hands-free area for sharps and all small clamps or sponges.
C) Announce the transfer of the sharp or clamp as soon as possible after it is placed.
D) During the hand-off report,ask the relief scrub person if he/she will want to use the hands-free technique for passing sharps.
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