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Introduction to Statistics provides students with a foundational understanding of statistical concepts and methods essential for analyzing and interpreting data. The course covers topics such as descriptive statistics, probability theory, sampling distributions, hypothesis testing, confidence intervals, correlation, and regression analysis. Emphasis is placed on practical applications, enabling students to collect, organize, and analyze data in various fields, and to make informed decisions based on statistical reasoning. Through lectures, hands-on activities, and real-world examples, students gain the skills necessary to understand and critically evaluate statistical information in academic, professional, and everyday contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Business Statistics Concepts and Applications 12th Edition by Mark L. Berenson
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145 Verified Questions
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Q1) The amount of coffee consumed by an individual in a day is an example of a discrete numerical variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The number of defective apples in a single box will be measured on an interval scale.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The Dean of Students conducted a survey on campus. The gender of the student is an example of a ________ variable.
Answer: categorical
Q4) A summary measure that is computed to describe a characteristic of an entire population is called
A) a parameter.
B) a census.
C) a statistic.
D) the scientific method.
Answer: A

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Q1) Referring to Table 2-14, ________ percent of the 600 were males who owned a portable DVD.
Answer: 16%
Q2) The percentage distribution cannot be constructed from the frequency distribution directly.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Referring to Table 2-8, the person who has the largest leaf associated with the smallest stem visited the facility ________ times.
Answer: 9
Q4) The main principle behind the Pareto chart is the ability to separate the "vital few" from the "trivial many."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Referring to the histogram from Table 2-10, ________ percent of the job applicants scored between 10 and 20.
Answer: 20%
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Q1) The Z score of a value can never be negative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Referring to Table 3-1 determine the first quartile of the ages of the senior citizens.
Answer: 65.5 years
Q3) Referring to Table 3-13, what is the sample covariance between the exam scores and the number of energy drinks consumed?
Answer: 3.7667
Q4) Which of the arithmetic mean, median, mode, and geometric mean are resistant measures of central tendency?
A) The arithmetic mean and median only
B) The median and mode only
C) The mode and geometric mean only
D) The arithmetic mean and mode only
Answer: B
Q5) Referring to Table 3-7, what is the standard deviation of the change in the cost?
Answer: $491.8
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Q1) A business venture can result in the following outcomes (with their corresponding chance of occurring in parentheses): Highly Successful (10%), Successful (25%), Break Even (25%), Disappointing (20%), and Highly Disappointing (?). If these are the only outcomes possible for the business venture, what is the chance that the business venture will be considered Highly Disappointing?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Q2) Referring to Table 4-10, what is the probability that a randomly selected worker is black and had not claimed bias?
Q3) Referring to Table 4-6, if a randomly selected student has not passed the ELM, the probability the student is from southern Texas is ________.
Q4) Referring to Table 4-6, if a randomly selected student is not from out-of-state, the probability the student has passed the ELM is ________.
Q5) Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) = 0.5. Then P(A and B) = ________.
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Q1) A national trend predicts that women will account for half of all business travelers in the next 3 years. To attract these women business travelers, hotels are providing more amenities that women particularly like. A recent survey of American hotels found that 70% offer hairdryers in the bathrooms. Consider a random and independent sample of 20 hotels. Find the probability that at least 9 of the hotels in the sample do not offer hairdryers in the bathrooms.
Q2) The number of power outages at a nuclear power plant has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 6 outages per year. The probability that there will be at least 3 power outages in a year is ________.
Q3) The number of power outages at a nuclear power plant has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 6 outages per year. The probability that there will be at least 1 power outage in a year is ________.
Q4) Referring to Table 5-9, what is the probability that in the next 1,000 customer, the hotel chain will have no more than three mishandled bags?
Q5) Referring to Table 5-8, if you decide to choose Design A for 90% of the production lines and Design B for the remaining production lines, what is the coefficient of variation of your investment?
Q6) Referring to Table 5-8, what is your expected profit when Design B is chosen?
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Q1) Suppose students arrive at an advising office at a rate of 30 per hour. Which of the following distributions would you use to determine the probability that the next two students will arrive 30 minutes apart?
A) Normal distribution
B) Poisson distribution
C) Uniform distribution
D) Exponential distribution
Q2) You were told that the amount of time lapsed between consecutive trades on the New York Stock Exchange followed a normal distribution with a mean of 15 seconds. You were also told that the probability that the time lapsed between two consecutive trades to fall between 16 to 17 seconds was 13%. The probability that the time lapsed between two consecutive trades would fall below 13 seconds was 7%. What is the probability that the time lapsed between two consecutive trades will be longer than 17 seconds?
Q3) The owner of a fish market determined that the average weight for a catfish is 3.2 pounds with a standard deviation of 0.8 pound. Assuming the weights of catfish are normally distributed, the probability that a randomly selected catfish will weigh more than 4.4 pounds is ________.
Q4) Referring to Table 6-6, 10% of the annual returns will be less than what amount?
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Q1) The manager of the customer service division of a major consumer electronics company is interested in determining whether the customers who have purchased a DVD player made by the company over the past 12 months are satisfied with their products. Which of the following will be a good frame for drawing a sample?
A) Telephone directory
B) Voting registry
C) The list of customers who returned the registration card
D) A list of potential customers purchased from a database marketing company
Q2) The professor of a business statistics class wanted to find out the mean amount of time per week her students spent studying for the class. She divided the students into the left, right and center groups according to the location they sat in the class that day. One of these 3 groups was randomly selected and everyone in the group was asked the mean amount of time per week he/she spent studying for the class. This is an example of a cluster sample.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ results from the failure to collect data on all subjects in the sample.
Q4) Referring to Table 7-2, what is the probability that the sample mean is more than 3 hours below the population mean?
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Q1) Referring to Table 8-1, due to financial limitations, the managers decide to take a sample of 45 employees. This yields a mean score of 88.0 points. A 90% confidence interval would go from ________ to ________.
Q2) An economist is interested in studying the incomes of consumers in a particular country. The population standard deviation is known to be $1,000. A random sample of 50 individuals resulted in a mean income of $15,000. What is the width of the 90% confidence interval?
A) $232.60
B) $364.30
C) $465.23
D) $728.60
Q3) Referring to Table 8-10, using the 90% one-sided confidence interval, the president can be 85% confident that no more than 5% of the students at the university had used illicit drugs during the last 12 months.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referring to Table 8-3, the critical value used in constructing a 90% confidence interval is ________.
Q5) Referring to Table 8-2, the confidence interval goes from ________ to ________.
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Q1) If an economist wishes to determine whether there is evidence that mean family income in a community equals $50,000
A) either a one-tail or two-tail test could be used with equivalent results.
B) a one-tail test should be utilized.
C) a two-tail test should be utilized.
D) None of the above.
Q2) Suppose we wish to test H : 47 versus H : > 47. What will result if we conclude that the mean is greater than 47 when its true value is really 52?
A) We have made a Type I error.
B) We have made a Type II error.
C) We have made a correct decision.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q3) Referring to Table 9-8, what critical value should the company officials use to determine the rejection region?
Q4) Referring to Table 9-9, the lowest level of significance at which the null hypothesis can still be rejected is ________.
Q5) Referring to Table 9-8, what will be the p-value if these data were used to perform a two-tail test?
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Q1) Referring to Table 10-10, what is/are the critical value(s) when performing a Z test on whether population proportions are different if = 0.05?
A) ±1.645
B) ±1.96
C) -1.96
D) ±2.08
Q2) Referring to Table 10-15, suppose = 0.01. Which of the following represents the result of the relevant hypothesis test?
A) The alternative hypothesis is rejected.
B) The null hypothesis is rejected.
C) The null hypothesis is not rejected.
D) Insufficient information exists on which to make a decision.
Q3) Referring to Table 10-15, suppose = 0.05. Which of the following represents the correct conclusion for a test on a difference in the variances?
A) There is no evidence of a difference in the variances.
B) There is evidence of a difference in the variances.
C) There is no evidence that the variances are the same.
D) There is evidence that variances are the same.
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Q1) Referring to Table 11-3, the value of MSA is ________, while MSW is ________.
Q2) Referring to Table 11-11, what was the total number of doctors included in the study?
A) 20
B) 40
C) 159
D) 160
Q3) Referring to Table 11-12, based on the results of the hypothesis test, it appears that there is a significant effect associated with the shape of the logo.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referring to Table 11-6, based on the Tukey multiple comparison procedure with an overall level of significance of 0.01, the agronomist would decide that there is a significant difference between the crop yield of Smith and Walsh seeds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Referring to Table 11-6, what is the critical value of the randomized block F test for the difference in the means at a level of significance of 0.01?
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Q1) Referring to Table 12-10, what is the expected number of employees with 1 to 4 years of training time and a high defect rate?
A) 12.00
B) 8.64
C) 6.67
D) 6.00
Q2) Referring to Table 12-11, the value of the test statistic is ________.
Q3) Referring to Table 12-18, what is the standard deviation of the Wilcoxon rank sum test statistic T ?
Q4) Referring to Table 12-16, what is the value of the test statistic?
Q5) Referring to Table 12-5, the value of the test statistic is ________.
Q6) Referring to Table 12-20, what is the critical value of the Kruskal-Wallis test statistic?
Q7) Referring to Table 12-19, the calculation of the Kruskal-Wallis test statistic H involves obtaining the total of the ranks for each sample. These totals are ________, ________, ________, and ________.
Q8) Referring to Table 12-5, the critical value of the test is ________.
Q9) Referring to Table 12-6, what are the degrees of freedom of the test statistic?
Q10) Referring to Table 12-16, the parameter of interest in the test is ________.
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Q1) Referring to Table 13-6, which of the following statements is true?
A) If attendance increases by 0.341%, the estimated mean score received will increase by 1 percentage point.
B) If attendance increases by 1%, the estimated mean score received will increase by 39.39 percentage points.
C) If attendance increases by 1%, the estimated mean score received will increase by 0.341 percentage points.
D) If the score received increases by 39.39%, the estimated mean attendance will go up by 1%.
Q2) In performing a regression analysis involving two numerical variables, you are assuming
A) the variances of X and Y are equal.
B) the variation around the line of regression is the same for each X value.
C) that X and Y are independent.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Referring to Table 13-4, the total sum of squares (SST) is ________.
Q4) Referring to Table 13-10, what are the degrees of freedom of the F test statistic when testing whether the number of customers who make purchases is a good predictor for weekly sales?
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Q1) Referring to Table 14-8, the critical value of an F test on the entire regression for a level of significance of 0.01 is ________.
Q2) Referring to Table 14-4, what is the value of the calculated F test statistic that is missing from the output for testing whether the whole regression model is significant?
A) 0.0001
B) 0.0299
C) 0.726
D) 45.5340
Q3) The coefficient of multiple determination measures the proportion of the total variation in the dependent variable that is explained by the set of independent variables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referring to Table 14-3, the p-value for GDP is
A) 0.05.
B) 0.01.
C) 0.001.
D) None of the above.
Q5) Referring to Table 14-10, the adjusted r² is ________.
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Q1) Referring to Table 15-1, does there appear to be significant upward curvature in the response curve relating the demand (Y) and the price (X) at 10% level of significance?
A) Yes, since the p-value for the test is less than 0.10.
B) No, since the value of is near 0.
C) No, since the p-value for the test is greater than 0.10.
D) Yes, since the value of is positive.
Q2) Referring to Table 15-6, the variable X should be dropped to remove collinearity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Referring to Table 15-6, the variable X should be dropped to remove collinearity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referring to Table 15-6, the model that includes all six independent variables should be selected using the adjusted r² statistic.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Referring to Table 16-10, the residuals for the first-order autoregressive model are ________, ________, ________, ________, and ________.
Q2) Referring to Table 16-13, what is the exponentially smoothed forecast for the 13 month using a smoothing coefficient of W = 0.25 if the exponentially smooth value for the 10 and 11 month are 9,477.7776 and 9,411.8332, respectively?
Q3) Referring to Table 16-12, the best interpretation of the coefficient of X (0.012) in the regression equation is
A) the quarterly compound growth rate in revenues is around 2.8%.
B) the annual growth rate in revenues is around 2.8%.
C) the quarterly growth rate in revenues is around 1.2%.
D) the annual growth rate in revenues is around 1.2%.
Q4) Referring to Table 16-6, the estimate of the amount by which sales (in millions of dollars) is increasing each year is ________.
Q5) Referring to Table 16-4, exponential smoothing with a weight or smoothing constant of 0.4 will be used to smooth the wine sales. The value of E , the smoothed value for 2004 is ________.
Q6) Referring to Table 16-8, the forecast for profits in 2010 is ________.
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Q1) Referring to Table 17-2, which expression best characterizes the p chart?
A) In-control
B) Increasing trend
C) Decreasing trend
D) Individual outliers
Q2) Referring to Table 17-5, a p control chart is to be made for these data. The upper control limit is ________, and the lower control limit is ________.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the Shewhart-Deming cycle?
A) Plan
B) Do
C) React
D) Act
Q4) Referring to Table 17-6, a p control chart is to be constructed for these data. The center line for the chart should be located at ________.
Q5) Common causes of variation are correctable without modifying the system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Referring to Table 17-4, what is the value of d factor?
Q7) ________ causes of variation are correctable without modifying the system.
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Q1) A physician and president of a Tampa Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) are attempting to show the benefits of managed health care to an insurance company. The physician believes that certain types of doctors are more cost-effective than others. To investigate this, the president obtained independent random samples of 20 HMO physicians from each of 4 primary specialties General Practice (GP), Internal Medicine (IM), Pediatrics (PED), and Family Physicians (FP) and recorded the total charges per member per month for each. A second variable which the president believes influences total charges per member per month is whether the doctor is a foreign or US medical school graduate. To investigate this, the president also collected data on 20 foreign medical school graduates in each of the 4 primary specialty types described above. So information on charges for 40 doctors (20 foreign and 20 US medical school graduates) was obtained for each of the 4 specialties. Which of the following tests will be the most appropriate to find out if the primary specialty and the origin of medical school degree interact to affect the charges?
A) Tukey-Kramer multiple comparisons procedure for one-way ANOVA
B) One-way ANOVA F test for differences among more than two means
C) One-way ANOVA F test for interaction effect
D) Two-way ANOVA F test for interaction effect
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Q1) Using the Cook's distance statistic D to determine influential points in a multiple regression model with k independent variable and n observations and letting F denote the critical value of an F distribution with v and v degrees of freedom at a 0.50 level of significance, X is an influential point if
A) D < Fk ,n k .
B) D > Fk ,n k .
C) D < Fn k , k .
D) D > Fn k , k .
Q2) Which of the following is an assumption required by the Analysis of Proportions (ANOP)?
A) The variance of the groups is different.
B) The observations from each of the groups are assumed to be approximately normally distributed.
C) The shape of the distribution of the observations from the groups is different.
D) The number of observations in each group has to be large.
Q3) Referring to Table 7-1, 10% of all the samples of 4 will have a sample mean of at least how many hours below the population mean?
Q4) Referring to Table 19-6, how many possible events are there?
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