Introduction to Respiratory Therapy Exam Questions - 851 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Respiratory Therapy

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Introduction to Respiratory Therapy provides students with an overview of the respiratory care profession, including its history, roles, and responsibilities within the healthcare team. The course covers foundational concepts of human respiratory anatomy and physiology, common respiratory disorders, and essential therapeutic modalities such as oxygen therapy, aerosol treatment, and airway management. Students are introduced to basic clinical skills, equipment, patient assessment techniques, and safety protocols, preparing them for advanced coursework and hands-on experiences in respiratory care settings. Ethics, communication, and the importance of patient-centered care are emphasized throughout the course.

Recommended Textbook

Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary

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Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most frequent cause of needle sticks?

A) Attempting to recap a needle

B) Removing discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers

C) Attempting to force a needle into an already full container

D) Using puncture-proof containers

Answer: A

Q2) What is defined as the complete destruction of all forms of microorganisms?

A) Isolation

B) Standard precautions

C) Asepsis

D) Sterility

Answer: D

Q3) When performing tracheostomy care,which piece of personal protective equipment should be used to protect the health care provider from being splashed in the eyes with contaminated secretions?

A) Mask

B) Goggles

C) HEPA mask

D) Cover gown

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath

Sounds

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Q1) Which of the following environmental conditions should be considered when auscultating a patient's chest?

I.Close the door before initiating the examination

II.The temperature should be comfortable,especially not too cold

III.Turn off noise producing appliances in the room

A) III only

B) II and III

C) I and II

D) I, II, and III

Answer: D

Q2) What breath sounds are normally heard over the sternum at around the second intercostal space,between the scapulae and over the right apex of the lung; are somewhat muted; are without a pause between inspiration and expiration; and have inspiratory and expiratory phases roughly equal in length?

A) Vesicular

B) Bronchovesicular

C) Bronchial

D) Tracheal

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,

Palpation, and Percussion

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Q1) Which way would the trachea shift if the patient had a tension pneumothorax on the right side?

A) Toward the right

B) Away from the right side

C) Away from the left side

D) Superiorly on the left side

Answer: B

Q2) What is an increase in the depth of respirations to greater than normal?

A) Hyperventilation

B) Hypopnea

C) Hyperpnea

D) Hypercapnia

Answer: C

Q3) Immediately lateral to the sternal angle is (are)the _________________.

A) fourth rib.

B) clavicles.

C) manubrium.

D) second rib.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment

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Q1) The most radiodense material viewed on a chest x-ray will _______________.

A) appear black.

B) not show up on a standard chest x-ray.

C) appear as gray shadows.

D) appear white.

Q2) Which of the following materials is the least radiodense?

A) Air

B) Water

C) Fat

D) Bone

Q3) If the density of an object being x-rayed is great,_____________________.

A) penetration is high.

B) penetration is low.

C) then the x-rays are being absorbed by the object.

D) the energy is not admitted by the tube.

Q4) Which of the following views is also called a portable chest x-ray?

A) Posterior-anterior (PA) view

B) Lateral view

C) Lateral decubitus view

D) Anterior-posterior (AP) view

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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing

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Q1) What device moves at different speeds to allow the measurement of slow and forced maneuvers?

A) Kymograph

B) Peak flowmeter

C) Respirometer

D) Spirometer

Q2) What is a device called that measures ventilatory volumes and air flow?

A) A respirometer

B) A peak flowmeter

C) A spirometer

D) A flowmeter

Q3) Anatomical dead space is approximately _____________.

A) 1 ml/kg.

B) 165 ml.

C) 10 ml/kg.

D) 1 ml/lb.

Q4) Why are three pulmonary function test trials performed for simple spirometry and flow volume loops and how should the results be reported?

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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography

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Q1) What is the total absence of any cardiac electrical activity called?

A) Ventricular tachycardia

B) Ventricular fibrillation

C) Ventricular asystole

D) Premature ventricular contractions

Q2) Which of the following waves in an ECG tracing represents atrial depolarization?

A) 'P' wave

B) 'QRS'complex

C) 'T' wave

D) 'U' wave

Q3) A female patient comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain.She is from a very conservative culture and objects to a male performing her EKG.How should the male practitioner approach this problem since no female is available to do the EKG?

Q4) Which lead(s)is (are)placed at the fourth intercostal space adjacent to the sternum?

A) V1

B) V2

C) V3

D) V1 and V2

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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy

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Q1) Which of the following techniques will reduce the probability of infection with a blood draw?

A) Proper cover over the site

B) Good aseptic technique before venipuncture

C) Reviewing the chart for infections

D) Both a and b

Q2) What is the key to maintaining a safe work environment?

A) Patient

B) Supervisor

C) Exposure control policy

D) Physician

Q3) What is the first obligation of the therapist related to the performance of phlebotomy?

A) To the lab

B) To themselves

C) To the patient

D) To the hospital

Q4) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?

Q5) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?

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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling

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Q1) Why should a capillary blood draw NOT be performed on infants less than 24 hours old?

A) Because of possible nerve damage

B) Increased risk of infection

C) Because fetal hemoglobin prematurely clots the blood

D) Poor peripheral perfusion

Q2) Which blood gas or hemoximetry value is used to assess a patient's ventilatory status?

A) PaCO

B) pH

C) PaO

D) O Hb

Q3) The artery is surrounded by a layer of muscle.When an artery is punctured the artery may _________.

A) spasm.

B) form of an embolus.

C) become infected.

D) enhance circulation.

Q4) How should the practitioner ensure that the arterial line's measured blood pressure is accurate?

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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring

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Sample Questions

Q1) Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is _________________.

A) 6-12 mmHg

B) 10-22 mmHg

C) 0-6 mmHg

D) 80-120 mmHg

Q2) A patient has a CVP catheter inserted.The patient is then placed on CPAP to maintain oxygenation.What will happen to the patient's CVP reading?

A) It will decrease.

B) It will not change.

C) It will increase.

D) It will either increase or decrease.

Q3) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated. \( \begin{array}{lc}\text { Cardiac Output } & 2.5 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{min} \\ \text { PAP } & 22 / 10 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { PCWP } & 2 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { CVP } & 1 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { HR } & 125 / \mathrm{min}\end{array} \) How should the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?

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Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is considered the standard of care during anesthesia?

A) Exhaled volume monitoring

B) Transcutaneous monitoring

C) Oximetry

D) Capnography

Q2) How do the transcutaneous PO and PCO arterialize the sample site?

A) Oximetry

B) Red and infrared light

C) Photospectrometry

D) Heat

Q3) When assessment of acid-base status and/or PaO is not required,what is used to assess a patient's oxygenation?

A) End-tidal CO

B) SpO

C) Vital capacity

D) Tidal volume

Q4) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?

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Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment

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Q1) When attempting to achieve ventilation goals the respiratory care practitioner should assess the ________________.

A) PaO .

B) SaO .

C) PaCO .

D) HCO .

Q2) Which part of the chart contains temperature,pulse,respiration,blood pressure,urine output,oral intake (fluids),and daily weights?

A) Physician's Orders

B) History and Physical Examination

C) Multidisciplinary Records

D) Graphic Record

Q3) How are entries entered into the medical record?

A) In chronological order

B) In random order

C) In order of department

D) Alphabetical order

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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a cylinder needs to be placed in the horizontal position for a transport,which type of flowmeter would be the best to use?

A) Multi-stage regulator

B) Back-pressure compensated flowmeter

C) Uncompensated Thorpe Tube flowmeter

D) Bourdon gauge

Q2) The ____________ has developed a color code for the different gases and gas mixtures.

A) U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT)

B) Compressed Gas Association (CGA)

C) Pin Index Safety System (PISS)

D) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Q3) Each floor of a building is divided into several zones.Each zone has a safety shutoff valve called a _______________

A) zone valve.

B) riser.

C) reserve valve.

D) reducing valve.

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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following arterial blood gas or oximetry values would be an indication for oxygen in the hospital setting?

I.PaO - 50 mmHg

II.SaO - 91%

III.PaO - 89 mmHg

IV.SaO - 60%

A) I and IV

B) II and III

C) IV only

D) I, II, and III

Q2) If the FIO is 50% or greater,all of the following hazards are possible EXCEPT

A) absorption atelectasis.

B) bacterial contamination.

C) depression of ciliary function.

D) oxygen toxicity.

Q3) A patient has an oxygen saturation of 95% on room air.The patient's vital signs reveal a heart rate of 120/minute with occasional PVCs,a respiratory rate of 38/minute,and mild cyanosis of the patient's mucous membranes.What should be done?

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) After delivery of an adrenergic bronchodilator with a small volume nebulizer,a patient complains of "shakiness" and feeling "nervous".He notes palpitations and his heart feels like it is racing.What is happening and how could these problems be corrected?

Q2) Acetylcholine stimulates ____________________

A) the Vagus nerve.

B) the adrenergic receptors.

C) the sympathetic nervous system.

D) the cholinergic receptors.

Q3) A pediatric patient is admitted to the emergency department from a physician's office with the suspected diagnosis of croup.An inspiratory stridor is heard.Which aerosolized sympathomimetic would you recommend to decrease the stridor?

A) Racemic epinephrine

B) Albuterol

C) Levalbuterol

D) Isoproterenol

Q4) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a tracheostomy is receiving oxygen via T-piece.The physician orders 70% oxygen to be delivered by heated aerosol.The patient's inspiratory flowrate is 35 LPM.How should this oxygen therapy be set up on the patient?

Q2) Despite having the flowrate set on 15 LPM on a 30% aerosol to a T-piece,there is very little aerosol seen coming out of the aerosol tubing.What should the practitioner check?

Q3) A patient has an ultrasonic nebulizer ordered every 4 hours to help with secretion mobilization.After the treatment the patient complains of chest tightness and wheezing is heard upon auscultating the chest.What could be done to alleviate this problem?

Q4) When administering a medication via a small volume nebulizer to a patient,instruct the patient to take slow,deep breaths with a slight pause before exhaling.What is the purpose of the pause before exhaling?

A) Allow deeper penetration of the medication into the lungs.

B) Decrease the risk of medication side effects.

C) Help the aerosol to deposit in the lungs.

D) Increase the delivered FI02 from the small volume nebulizer.

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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Postural drainage therapy is indicated for adult patients with secretion production of at least _______________

A) 10-15 ml per day.

B) 15-20 ml per day.

C) 20-25 ml per day.

D) 25-30 ml per day.

Q2) What bronchial hygiene technique is indicated for a patient who has poor oxygenation associated with a unilateral lung disease?

A) Turning

B) Postural drainage

C) External manipulation of the thorax

D) Suctioning

Q3) The respiratory therapy practitioner asks the patient how she feels during postural drainage therapy.The patient complains of feelings of pain,shortness of breath,and nausea.What should be done at this time?

A) Stop the therapy, allow the patient to rest, and continue the therapy.

B) The patient should be suctioned and then the therapy should be continued.

C) The patient should be comforted and the therapy should be shortened slightly.

D) A decision should be made to modify or stop therapy.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy

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Q1) After inhalation during IPPB therapy,exhalation should _________________

A) take place quickly to maintain an I:E ratio of 1:1.

B) be performed against resistance to prolong exhalation.

C) take place forcefully.

D) take place passively.

Q2) How does expiration take place after a positive-pressure breath during an IPPB treatment?

A) The elastic recoil of the lungs and thorax allows the patient to exhale

B) The sensitivity is set to allow the ventilator to be 'sensitive' to the patient when exhalation is started

C) The expiratory timer is set to limit the amount of time inspiration takes place

D) The flow rate through the Venturi is cut off cycling the ventilator into expiration

Q3) The respiratory care department puts you in charge of the hyperinflation monitoring committee.What should be monitored to determine the type and the effectiveness of the hyperinflation therapy?

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19

Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting

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Q1) A patient's chest radiograph indicates a right lower lobe infiltrate with atelectasis.The resident asks the respiratory therapy practitioner for recommendations.The practitioner should recommend which of the following?

A) Diagnostic bronchoscopy with a Wang needle

B) Small volume nebulizer with a mucolytic medication

C) Diagnostic bronchoscopy

D) Therapeutic bronchoscopy

Q2) A rigid bronchoscope cannot remove large foreign body in the tracheobronchial tree in the airways lower than the _________________

A) trachea.

B) mainstem bronchi.

C) segmental bronchi.

D) terminal bronchioles.

Q3) The practitioner being oriented on the pediatric unit finds that one of the duties she will be performing will be helping with bronchoscopy procedures.Why would bronchoscopies be performed on pediatric patients?

Q4) What instructions would you give a patient who is to have a bronchoscopy procedure?

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance

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Q1) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?

Q2) Which sterilization/disinfection method requires an aeration times period after the method?

A) Ethylene oxide

B) Pasteurization

C) Steam autoclave

D) Glutaraldehyde

Q3) What is done to provide data on the effectiveness of disinfection and sterilization methods?

A) Gram staining

B) Aliquot Culturing

C) Bacteriological surveillance

D) Alkylation

Q4) Which of the following is NOT a bacterial shape?

A) Rod-shaped

B) Spiral

C) Round

D) Flat

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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management

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Q1) Defibrillation is contraindicated when immediate danger to the rescuers is present due to: I.the environment.

II.the patient's condition.

III.the patient's location.

A) II and III

B) I, II, III

C) III only

D) I and II

Q2) Partial upper airway obstruction is characterized by ________________

A) bronchospasm.

B) asymmetrical chest movement.

C) noisy inspiratory efforts.

D) no sound of air movement.

Q3) As a person loses consciousness,what happens to the reflexes that protect the airway?

A) They remain intact

B) They are lost in ascending order

C) They are lost in descending order

D) The cough reflexes are lost but the others remain intact

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care

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Q1) What is the maximum amount of time that a suction procedure should last?

A) 5 seconds

B) 10 seconds

C) 15 seconds

D) 20 seconds

Q2) What is the proper size of a suction catheter to be used through an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube?

A) The inside diameter of the catheter should not exceed one-half of the inside diameter of the artificial airway

B) The outside diameter of the catheter should not exceed one-third of the inside diameter of the artificial airway

C) The outside diameter of the catheter should not exceed one-half of the inside diameter of the artificial airway

D) A size 14-Fr suction catheter should be used for a 5-mm inside diameter of the artificial airway, otherwise a size 12-Fr catheter should be used.

Q3) You cannot pass the suction catheter down the endotracheal tube on an intubated patient.What should you do and how would you correct the problems?

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Chest Tubes

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Q1) A patient with a chest tube in place suddenly develops chest pain and severe respiratory distress.What could be causing this?

Q2) After insertion of a chest tube,how should the position of the chest tube be assessed?

A) By auscultating the patient's chest

B) By percussing the patient's thoracic cavity

C) By having the patient cough and observing the drainage chamber bottle

D) By obtaining a chest radiograph

Q3) A patient with a chest tube in place develops swelling of the tissue surrounding the chest tube with crackling sensations also noted in the same area.What could be causing this and how is it treated?

Q4) What controls the amount of suction applied to a patient's chest tube?

A) The vacuum regulator on the wall outlet

B) The depth of water in the suction control chamber

C) The direction the chest tube is positioned in the patient's chest

D) The diameter of the patient's chest tube

Q5) A pneumothorax develops while a patient is being mechanically ventilated.A chest tube is placed and the lung fails to seal.There is a large amount of air bubbling through the water seal chamber.What could be causing this?

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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines

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Q1) The patient complains of tenderness at the IV site in his lower arm.The practitioner notes swelling and redness at the IV site.The site feels very warm but the IV is still running.What is the most likely cause of these findings?

A) Infiltration of the IV

B) A thrombus in the vessel

C) Cellulitis of the tissues

D) An air embolism has developed

Q2) A patient has been brought to the emergency department suffering from heat exhaustion and dehydration.Which of the following fluids would enhance the function of cells that are hampered owing to the absence of necessary intracellular fluid?

A) Hypotonic solution

B) Hypertonic solution

C) Isotonic solution

D) Lactated Ringer's solution

Q3) What happens to the small air bubbles that pass through the IV tubing and enter into the patient?

Q4) You are asked to start an IV on a 94 year-old,115 lb (52.3 kg)patient.What precautions,if any,should you take with this geriatric patient?

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation

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Q1) A patient is set up on NPPV without humidification.Which of the following should the practitioner tell the nurse are potential hazards of inadequate humidification?

A) Drying of the respiratory mucosa

B) Mucous plugging

C) Gastric insufflation

D) a and b

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a sign of increased ventilatory work?

A) Accessory muscle usage

B) Respiratory rate of 18/min

C) Retractions

D) Pursed lip breathing

Q3) The respiratory care practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a pneumonia patient for impending ventilatory failure.Arterial blood gases (ABGs)are drawn and the results are as follows: PaO 49 mmHg,PaCO 58 mmHg,pH 7.24,HCO 23 mEq/L,FIO 0.6.What do the patient's ABGs indicate?

A) The patient has impending ventilatory failure.

B) The patient has normal PaO status for an increased FIO .

C) The patient has chronic ventilatory failure.

D) The patient's RSBI needs to be measured to determine ventilatory status.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation

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Q1) The high and low minute volume alarm is used to ______________________

A) identify hypoventilation and hyperventilation.

B) prevent changing of the tidal volume setting.

C) measure the patient's spontaneous respiratory efforts.

D) alert the staff when there is a change of 5-10 lpm.

Q2) Type II respiratory failure is which of the following?

A) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO within normal levels

B) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO less than 50 mmHg with pH below 7.35

C) High PaCO with a low PO but a normal pH

D) PaO of less than 59 mmHg with a normal PaCO

Q3) For the initial ventilator setting,the inspiratory flowrate is ___________________

A) set at 70 lpm.

B) tidal volume time respiratory rate.

C) adjusted to allow adequate expiratory emptying of the lungs.

D) to give a 1:2 I:E ratio.

Q4) How does a practitioner perform a system leak test?

Q5) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?

Q6) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?

Q7) How is tubing compliance determined?

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation

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Q1) The oxygenation goal for most mechanically ventilated patients is

A) SpO 95-100%, PaO 100-105 mm Hg.

B) SpO 88-90%, PaO 60+ mm Hg.

C) SpO 93-98%, PaO 75 mm Hg.

D) PaO 80-100 mm Hg.

Q2) Tidal volume delivery during APRV is __________________

A) affected by lung compliance.

B) affected by airway resistance.

C) affected by Phigh and Plow.

D) all of the above.

Q3) Time cycled breath control _______________

A) identifies periods of apnea.

B) is adjusted in increments of 1-3 mm Hg.

C) adjusts the end of inspiration after a specified time.

D) increases pressure to a set value.

Q4) What are the purposes of ventilator alarms and backup modes?

Q5) What is the auto-set-point control?

Q6) What is proportional assist ventilation?

Q7) What are three problems that mandatory minute ventilation cannot prevent?

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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis

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Q1) Which of the following are true regarding ventilator air trapping"

I.It is also called AutoMode.

II.It is detected when expiratory flow does not return to baseline prior to next inspiration.

III.It can be reduced by allowing more expiratory time.

A) I, II and III

B) I and II

C) II and III

D) II only

Q2) The respiratory care practitioner determines that a patient has increased airway resistance.How was this identified?

A) On the flow-volume loop by evaluating the shape of the curve

B) On the flow-volume loop by identifying the maximum delivered volume

C) On the pressure-volume loop by the amount of beaking

D) On the pressure-volume loop by the amount of bowing

Q3) Static pressure is determined by which of the following methods?

A) Adding an inspiratory pause and stopping air flow

B) Adding an expiratory pause and waiting for slight rise in baseline pressure

C) Assessing pressure generated in tubing at 100-200 mL volume

D) Dividing rate by tidal volume

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40362

Sample Questions

Q1) What four general questions should the respiratory care practitioner assess prior to weaning from mechanical ventilation?

Q2) The respiratory therapist notices the mechanically ventilated patient's work of breathing is increased due to the resistance caused by the artificial airway.This problem can be reduced using _______________

A) BiPAP.

B) ATC.

C) PRVC.

D) PEEP.

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding a protocol?

A) It prevents non-therapists from performing respiratory care.

B) It reduces the need for continual physician input and involvement.

C) It can lengthen the time a patient spends on a ventilator.

D) It gives the respiratory care practitioner a duty that nurses are not allowed to perform.

Q4) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?

Q5) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?

Q6) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?

Q7) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?

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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363

Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for mode,rate and flow rate.

Q2) Which of the following is true of a "lifespan" ventilator?

A) This is the term used when a ventilator is used on a comatose patient.

B) It provides pressure and volume ventilation.

C) It can be used on infants, pediatric, or adult patients.

D) It is the brand name of mechanical ventilators.

Q3) Transillumination is which of the following?

A) Used to reduce bilirubin

B) A technique to detect a pneumothorax in newborns

C) The light reflecting from the ventilator

D) Used to identify pulmonary secretions

Q4) The respiratory care practitioner is placing a Drager Babylog 8000 plus on a patient.What mode can she use to insure a steady tidal volume?

A) Pressure Control

B) SIMV

C) CPAP

D) Volume guarantee

Q5) Describe the 5 characteristics of the Apgar scoring system.

Q6) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator alarm setting are determined.

Page 31

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