Introduction to Respiratory Care Test Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Respiratory Care provides students with a foundational understanding of the respiratory care profession, including its history, scope of practice, and the essential roles and responsibilities of respiratory therapists. The course covers basic respiratory anatomy and physiology, common respiratory diseases, and fundamental patient assessment skills. Students are introduced to the principles of therapeutic modalities such as oxygen therapy and aerosol medication delivery, as well as infection control and patient safety. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, communication skills, and the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration in delivering effective respiratory care.
Recommended Textbook
Raus Respiratory Care Pharmacology 9th Edition by Douglas S. Gardenhire
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23 Chapters
730 Verified Questions
730 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once a drug is released for general clinical use,how long must a detailed reporting system remain in place to track any problems that arise with the drug's use?
A)For 6 months
B)For 1 year
C)For 5 years
D)For 10 years
Answer: A
Q2) The preparation and dispensing of drugs is known as A)toxicity.
B)pharmacy.
C)pharmacognosy.
D)pharmacogenetics.
Answer: B
Q3) The art of treating disease with drugs is referred to as A)toxicity.
B)therapeutics.
C)pharmacognosy.
D)pharmacology.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of genetic factors and their influence on drug response is termed
A)pharmacogenetics.
B)functional antagonism.
C)competitive antagonism.
D)pharmacokinetics.
Answer: A
Q2) After inhalation of an aerosol by a spontaneously breathing patient with no artificial airway,a proportion of the aerosol does which of the following?
1)Impacts in the oropharynx
2)Is swallowed
3)Is absorbed by the lungs
4)Is exhaled
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)1,2,and 3 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Administration of Aerosolized Agents
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A device that disperses individual doses that are premetered into a blister,which is mechanically punctured when the cover is lifted (example: Diskhaler),is called a A)unit dose DPI.
B)multiple unit dose DPI.
C)multiple-dose DPI.
Answer: B
Q2) The physician has granted your request to change a patient from a small volume nebulizer (SVN)to a metered dose inhaler (MDI)for administration of albuterol.The dose via SVN was 2.5 mg of drug.What is the equivalent dose via MDI to administer to your patient?
A)1 puff
B)2 puffs
C)3 puffs
D)4 puffs
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Calculating Drug Doses
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Latin prefixes means 1/1,000,000?
A)Micro
B)Milli
C)Centi
D)Deci
Q2) A physician orders 5 mL of a medication to be administered to your patient.If the drug is supplied as 10 mg in 20 mL of solution,how many milligrams of active drug will you be giving?
A)2.5
B)5
C)7.5
D)10
Q3) A physician orders 3 mL of an 8% drug solution.You have only a 10% solution available.How many milliliters of 10% solution do you need to make the new 8% solution?
A)0.24 mL
B)2.6 mL
C)24 mL
D)12.4 mL
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6
Chapter 5: Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system,what name is given to the neurotransmitter that conducts nerve transmission at the ganglionic site?
A)Cholinesterase
B)Acetylcholine
C)Epinephrine
D)Norepinephrine
Q2) The stimulation of which receptor sites produces bronchial smooth muscle relaxation?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C)
D) <sub>1</sub> and <sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which type of impulse travels from the brain to the neuroeffector sites?
A)Afferent
B)Reflex
C)Ganglionic
D)Efferent
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Chapter 6: Adrenergic Sympathomimeticbronchodilators
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51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is receiving continuous albuterol treatment for an acute exacerbation of her asthma.What would you monitor during her treatment?
1)The patient's subjective reaction to treatment
2)The patient's heart rate
3)The patient's pulse oximeter saturation
4)Laboratory values (CBC)
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)2,3,and 4 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
Q2) Which of the following is the generic name for Performist?
A)Indacterol
B)Salmeterol
C)Formoterol
D)Arformoterol
Q3) Short-acting \(\beta\)<sub>2</sub> agonists are indicated for
A)reduction of airway edema.
B)relief of acute reversible airflow obstruction.
C)maintenance of bronchodilation.
D)thinning of secretions.
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Chapter 7: Anticholinergic
Parasympatholyticbronchodilators
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the generic name for Incruse Ellipta?
A)Aclidinium bromide
B)Tiotropium bromide
C)Ipratropium bromide
D)Umeclidinium bromide
Q2) Drugs that competitively block the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic postganglionic effector cell receptors are called
A)muscarinic agents.
B)adrenergic agents.
C)antimuscarinic agents.
D)cholinergic agents.
Q3) Quaternary ammonium compounds cause bronchodilation by
A)blocking cholinergic sites.
B)stimulating cholinergic sites.
C)blocking adrenergic sites.
D)stimulating adrenergic sites.
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9
Chapter 8: Xanthines
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors will increase theophylline levels?
1)Alcohol
2)\(\beta\)-blocking agents
3)Zileuton
4)Isoniazid
5)Loop diuretics
6)Rifampin
7)Calcium channel blockers
8)Influenza virus vaccine
A)1,2,7,and 8 only
B)1,2,3,7,and 8 only
C)2,3,6,7,and 8 only
D)1,2,3,and 4 only
Q2) The xanthine of choice to treat apnea of prematurity is A)theophylline.
B)dyphylline.
C)caffeine citrate.
D)aminophylline.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Mucus-Controlling Drug Therapy
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician asks you to suggest an airway clearance technique or device to use for a patient with neuromuscular weakness who is unable to cough effectively.Which of the following should you suggest?
A)Postural drainage
B)Chest physical therapy (CPT)
C)An insufflation-exsufflation device
D)Active cycle of breathing (ACB)
Q2) Expectorated phlegm that contains respiratory tract,oropharyngeal,and nasopharyngeal secretions and bacteria and products of inflammation including polymeric DNA and actin is called A)gel.
B)mucus.
C)phlegm.
D)sol.
E) sputum.
Q3) Agents that increase volume or hydration of airway secretions are called A)mucoregulatory.
B)mucolytics.
C)bronchodilators.
D)expectorants.
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Chapter 10: Surfactant Agents
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ is not a hazard or complication of exogenous surfactant.
A)Airway occlusion
B)Overoxygenation
C)Tachycardia
D)Pulmonary insult via barotrauma
Q2) Surfactant is primarily composed of
A)proteins.
B)phospholipids.
C)neutral lipids.
D)water.
Q3) You are assessing a 26-week gestational age newborn immediately after birth.The newborn weighs 1200g.On assessment,you find the newborn has poor color,substernal retractions,nasal flaring,respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min,and heart rate of 140 beats/min.You note that it is difficult to ventilate the newborn with the bag mask.Which of the following agents would you recommend?
A)Cromolyn sodium
B)Albuterol
C)Beractant
D)Solu-Medrol
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Corticosteroids in Respiratory Care
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the generic name of Advair HFA?
A)Budesonide/formoterol fumarate HFA
B)Fluticasone propionate/salmeterol
C)Mometasone furoate/formoterol fumarate HFA
D)Beclomethasone/formoterol fumarate HFA
Q2) The major cells responsible for an inflammatory response in asthma are
A)macrophages and mast cells.
B)mast cells and eosinophils.
C)T lymphocytes and macrophages.
D)basophils and SRS-A.
Q3) Corticosteroids are used with asthmatics and patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)to achieve which effect?
A)Antiinflammatory
B)Breakdown of secretions
C)Reduced surface tension
D)Immunosuppression
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Chapter 12: Nonsteroidal Antiasthma Agents
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient begins using cromolyn sodium,how long may it take before clinical improvement in the patient's symptoms is seen?
A)24 hours
B)4 to 6 days
C)2 to 4 weeks
D)1 to 3 months
Q2) Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody used to treat asthma?
A)Omalizumab
B)Zileuton
C)Zafirlukast
D)Montelukast
Q3) Bobby is in a sickle cell crisis.Along with his pain medications,he received a medication via inhalation.His mother asks you if you know what the medication was.What is one possibility?
A)Albuterol
B)Cromolyn
C)Combivent
D)Relenza
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14
Chapter 13: Aerosolized Antiinfective Agents
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tobramycin is a member of which antibiotic group?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Antifungals
C)Fluoroquinolones
D)First-generation cephalosporins
Q2) Zanamivir would be indicated for A)cystic fibrosis.
B)exacerbation of COPD.
C)RSV infections.
D)uncomplicated influenza.
Q3) The nebulizer used to aerosolize ribavirin is the A)Respirgard II.
B)SPAG
C)handheld.
D)ultrasonic.
Q4) Ribavirin is classified as A)an antibiotic.
B)bacteriostatic.
C)virostatic.
D)virucidal.
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Agents
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isoniazid is indicated to treat A)pneumonia.
B)cystic fibrosis.
C)tuberculosis (TB).
D)asthma.
Q2) The natural penicillins are primarily effective against 1)gram-negative bacteria. 2)gram-positive bacteria.
3)viruses.
4)anaerobes.
5)mycoplasmas.
A)1 and 5 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)3 and 5 only
D)1,2,3,and 4 only
Q3) Caspofungin is indicated for the treatment of A)aspergillosis.
B)candidemia.
C)Both A and B.
D)Neither A nor B.
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Chapter 15: Cold and Cough Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tagamet and Zantac are examples of
A)H<sub>1</sub>-receptor antagonists.
B)H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonists.
C)H<sub>3</sub>-receptor antagonists.
D)anticholinergics.
Q2) A wheal and flare reaction is characterized by which of the following?
1)Headache
2)Welt formation
3)Local redness
4)Fever
5)Local swelling
A)5 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)2,3,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
Q3) What type of drug is used to dry up a runny nose in a common cold?
A)Decongestant (\(\alpha\)-sympathomimetic).
B)Antihistamine.
C)Antitussive.
D)Expectorant.
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Chapter 16: Selected Agents of Pulmonary Value
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include which of the following?
1)Irritability
2)Weight gain
3)Craving for nicotine
4)Anxiety
5)Sleep disturbances
A)3 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)2,3,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
Q2) The recommended dosage of Prolastin is
A)30 mg/kg once daily.
B)40 mg/kg once weekly.
C)50 mg/kg once weekly.
D)60 mg/kg once weekly.
Q3) An 80-kg man should receive what dose of Prolastin?
A)2400 mg weekly
B)480 mg daily
C)4800 mg weekly
D)240 mg daily
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Chapter 17: Neonatal and Pediatric Aerosolized Drug Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is considered an infant if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
Q2) A patient is considered an adolescent if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
Q3) What is the average minute ventilation for a neonate?
A)200-300 mL/kg/min
B)2 L/min
C)4 L/min
D)6 L/min
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants Neuromuscular Blocking
Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agents that paralyze skeletal muscle by simple competitive inhibition of acetylcholine at muscle receptor sites are called A)nondepolarizing.
B)depolarizing.
C)antagonizing.
D)repolarizing.
Q2) Maximal paralyzing effect of succinylcholine is reached in
A)60 to 90 seconds.
B)2 to 5 minutes.
C)5 to 10 minutes.
D)10 to 20 minutes.
Q3) A nondepolarizing agent has a(n)_____________duration of action to a depolarizing agent.
A)longer
B)shorter
C)equal
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Chapter 19: Diuretic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osmotic diuretics function by
A)blocking reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal tubule.
B)blocking reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
C)blocking reabsorption of NaCl in the proximal tubule and descending limb of the loop of Henle.
D)blocking reabsorption of sodium and bicarbonate from the proximal tubule.
Q2) Which diuretics have been associated with hyperglycemia?
A)Loop and osmotic
B)Osmotic and thiazide
C)Thiazide and loop
D)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and loop
Q3) Your patient has mild hypertension.Which group of diuretic agents would you expect the physician to prescribe?
A)Loop
B)Osmotic
C)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D)Thiazide
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Chapter 20: Drugs Affecting the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the brain,the control area for autonomic functions such as breathing is located in the A)cortex.
B)midbrain.
C)medulla.
D)reticular activating system.
Q2) Abrupt withdrawal after prolonged use of alcohol may result in A)liver failure.
B)respiratory failure.
C)coma.
D)delirium tremens.
Q3) Barbiturates are indicated for A)reducing anxiety.
B)seizure control.
C)inducing sleep in infants.
D)reversal of anesthesia.
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22
Chapter 21: Vasopressors,inotropes,and Antiarrhythmic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs)are indicated for the following conditions:
1)Cardiac arrest caused by pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT)
2)Spontaneous sustained VT
3)Asystole
4)Pulseless electrical activity
5)Electrophysiologically inducible VT or ventricular fibrillation (VF)not suppressed by class I antiarrhythmics
A)1 only
B)1,2,and 5 only
C)1,2,3,and 4 only
D)1,2,3,4,5
Q2) Lidocaine is used to treat
A)ventricular arrhythmias.
B)atrial arrhythmias.
C)atrioventricular node delays.
D)supraventricular tachycardia.
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Chapter 22: Drugs Affecting Circulation: Antihypertensives,
Anti-anginals, Anti-thrombotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unmonitored dosing for unfractionated heparin for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism is
A)bolus of 60 U/kg (maximum 400 U)and then 12 U/kg/hr.
B)175 U/kg every 24 hours.
C)initial 333 U/kg and then 250 U/kg every 12 hours.
D)1 mg/kg subcutaneously every 12 hours.
Q2) What agents act to lower blood pressure by stopping the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?
A)Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)
B)Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C)Diuretics
D) blockers
Q3) Centrally acting adrenergic agents lower blood pressure by
A)affecting cardiac output.
B)affecting peripheral resistance.
C)neither A nor B.
D)both A and B.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Sleep and Sleep Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Side effects of phenobarbital include
1)potential risk for addiction.
2)respiratory suppression when taken with alcohol.
3)insomnia.
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1 and 2 only
D)1,2,and 3
Q2) The trade name for Zolpidem is
A)Ambien.
B)ProSom.
C)Sonata.
D)Rozerem.
Q3) Melatonin is secreted
A)exclusively during the subjective night.
B)exclusively during the subjective day.
C)during day and night.
D)continuously.
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