Introduction to Radiologic Technology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Radiologic Technology offers students a foundational overview of the field of radiologic sciences, focusing on the role of radiologic technologists within healthcare settings. The course covers the history and development of radiologic technology, the basic principles of radiation physics and safety, ethical and legal considerations, and patient care concepts. Students will also learn about the structure and function of imaging departments, professional organizations, and career opportunities in diagnostic imaging. By the end of the course, students will understand the responsibilities of radiologic technologists and how they contribute to the diagnosis and treatment of patients using medical imaging technology.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 7th Edition by Nina Kowalczyk
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12 Chapters
375 Verified Questions
375 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Dysplasia
A)A generalized decrease in cell size
B)A generalized increase in cell size
C)An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation
D)Conversion of one cell type into another cell type
E)Abnormal changes of mature cells
Answer: E
Q3) An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed
A) autoimmune.
B) iatrogenic.
C) idiopathic.
D) nosocomial.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the A) brain.
B) breast.
C) lung.
D) colon.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conducive for life?
A) Anencephaly
B) Craniosynostosis
C) Encephalopathy
D) Osteomyelitis
Answer: A
Q3) "Brittle bone" disease is also known as A) achondroplasia.
B) DDH.
C) osteogenesis imperfecta.
D) osteopetrosis.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Respiratory System
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include
1)Staphylococcus aureus.
2)parainfluenza.
3)H.influenza.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n)_____ disease.
A) genetic
B) inflammatory
C) degenerative
D) neoplastic
Answer: A
Q3) On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left hemidiaphragm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth?
A) Ductus arteriosus
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Foramen ovale
Q3) A pulmonary embolus (PE)is best visualized with A) a VQ scan.
B) a nuclear perfusion scan.
C) CT.
D) angiography.
Q4) The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is A) coronary artery disease.
B) rheumatic fever.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) ventricular septal defect.
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Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer?
A) GI bleed scans
B) Gastric emptying scans
C) Urea breath test
D) SPECT gastric imaging
Q2) Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending colon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases, particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in the fetus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fluid collection that develops from the pancreas is termed A) ascites.
B) pancreatitis.
C) polycystic disease.
D) a pseudocyst.
Q2) The impaction of a gallstone in the small bowel is referred to as A) cholelithiasis.
B) gallstone ileus.
C) obstructive jaundice.
D) medical jaundice.
Q3) Which type of jaundice occurs because of hemolytic disease in which too many red blood cells are destroyed or because of liver damage from cirrhosis or hepatitis?
A) Medical jaundice
B) Obstructive jaundice
Q4) Fatty infiltration of the liver is termed A) hyperlipidemia.
B) cirrhosis.
C) metabolic syndrome.
D) steatosis.
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Chapter 7: Urinary System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A congenital, familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant is
A) renal agenesis.
B) polycystic kidney disease.
C) crossed ectopy.
D) medullary sponge kidney.
Q2) Which anatomic structures are located in the hilum of the kidney?
1)Renal artery
2)Renal vein
3)Nerve plexus
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The retention of urea in the blood is termed pyuria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cure rate for Stage I-III Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)is 95%.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Central Nervous System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What imaging modality is most commonly used to image the brain of neonates?
A) CT
B) Conventional radiography
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound
Q2) The appearance of craniopharyngioma tumors on both CT and MR depends on the solid and cystic components of the mass.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the modality of choice for detecting cerebrovascular hemorrhage following acute head trauma?
A) Computed tomography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Sonography
Q4) The most common location for herniated disks in the lower back are
A) L2-L3.
B) L3-L4.
C) L4-L5.
D) L5-S1.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with which type of lymphatic cells?
1)Reed-Sternberg cells
2)B cells
3)T cells
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which blood type is considered to be a universal recipient?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q3) The presence of which of the following cell types differentiate Hodgkin lymphoma from other types of lymphomas?
A) CD4 receptors
B) B cells
C) T cells
D) Reed-Sternberg cells
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Chapter 10: Reproductive System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best imaging examination to determine whether blood flow exists in the testicle?
A) FDG-PET
B) CT of pelvis
C) MRI of pelvis
D) Doppler ultrasound
Q2) The Eklund maneuver is used in imaging patients with breast implants to isolate the native breast tissue for imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lab test for CA-125 is associated with which type of malignant disease?
A) Endometrial carcinoma
B) Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
C) Carcinoma of the cervix
D) Fibroadenoma
Q4) Corpus luteum ovarian cysts are always malignant neoplasms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sheehan syndrome is associated with A) hypothyroidism.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypopituitarism.
D) hyperpituitarism.
Q2) The hypothalamus controls the 1)pineal gland.
2)pituitary gland.
3)thyroid gland.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The outer portion of the adrenal glands, the adrenal cortex, is responsible for corticosteroid production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calcitonin is an antagonist of PTH and serves to lower blood calcium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Traumatic Disease
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures form the bony nasal septum?
1)Vomer
2)Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
3)Cribriform plate
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which fracture classification generally requires surgical intervention such as an irrigation and debridement?
A) Closed
B) Buckle
C) Open
D) Impacted
Q3) What is the term commonly used to describe fractures involving the epiphysis of children?
A) Glasgow scale
B) Trauma scale
C) Salter-Harris
D) Fracture scale
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