Introduction to Radiologic Technology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides an overview of the field of radiologic technology, introducing students to the history, roles, and responsibilities of radiologic technologists within the healthcare system. Emphasis is placed on the basic principles of radiation, medical imaging modalities, patient care, ethical and legal considerations, and the structure of radiology departments. Students will gain insight into professional organizations, certification requirements, radiation safety practices, and the importance of effective communication in patient interactions. This foundational knowledge prepares students for more advanced studies in radiographic procedures and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Bontragers Textbook of Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 9th Edition by John Lampignano
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20 Chapters
2119 Verified Questions
2119 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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199 Verified Questions
199 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When placing radiographs of the hand on the view box, the digits should be pointing upward.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Pelvis
A)One projection
B)Two projections
C)Three projections
Answer: A
Q3) When placing radiographs of the lower leg, the toes of the foot must be pointing upward.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Tangential and axial projections are the same type of projection.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chest
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A correctly positioned lateral chest radiograph demonstrates some separation of the posterior ribs owing to the divergent x-ray beam.But a separation of greater than ____ cm indicates objectionable rotation from a true lateral.
A)0.5
B)2
C)3
D)1
Answer: D
Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit with multiple injuries.The attending physician is concerned about a pleural effusion in the left lung.The patient had surgery recently and cannot stand.Which position/projection would be best to rule out the pleural effusion?
A)AP supine
B)Right lateral decubitus
C)Apical lordotic
D)Left lateral decubitus
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Abdomen
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old female patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible kidney stone.She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region.Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding?
A)Do not use it.
B)Use it on all projections if correctly placed.
C)Use it on the preliminary projection only.
D)Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads.
Answer: A
Q2) Which term describes an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen?
A)Adynamic ileus
B)Volvulus
C)Intussusception
D)Ascites
Answer: D
Q3) The most common type of involuntary motion in the abdomen is peristalsis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which special projection of the wrist will open up the interspaces on the ulnar side of the wrist?
A)Radial deviation
B)Ulnar deviation
C)Carpal canal
D)Carpal bridge
Q2) An ellipsoidal joint allows movement in ____ directions.
A)two
B)all
C)four
D)six
Q3) The interphalangeal joints have a(n) ____ type of joint movement.
A)plane
B)saddle
C)ellipsoidal
D)ginglymus
Q4) Advanced osteoporosis
A)Increase (+)
B)Decrease (-)
C)No change (0)
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The recommended SID for AP AC joint study is 72 inches (~183cm).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A referring physician suspects that a subacromial spur may be the cause for a patient's shoulder impingement.She asks the technologist for a projection that would best demonstrate any possible spurs in the suprasinatus outlet.Which of the following projections would accomplish this objective?
A)Tangential projection with 10° to 15° caudad angle
B)Tangential projection with 10° to 15° cephalad angle
C)AP oblique shoulder with 45° caudad angle
D)AP shoulder with 10° to 15° caudad angle
Q4) What type of CR angle is required for the apical AP axial projection?
A)30° caudad
B)15 to 20° cephalad
C)45° caudad
D)10 to 15° caudad
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major disadvantage of using 45° of flexion for the mediolateral projection of the knee?
A)Draws the patella into the intercondylar sulcus.
B)May cause injury to the anterior cruciate ligament.
C)Prevents superimposition of the distal aspect of the femoral condyles.
D)Can distort any visible fat pads.
Q2) Which metatarsal bone of the foot has a prominent tuberosity most frequently fractured?
A)First
B)Third
C)Fourth
D)Fifth
Q3) Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called:
A)bursae.
B)menisci.
C)synovial membranes.
D)synovial bodies.
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8
Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of CR angle is required for the posterior axial oblique projection for the acetabulum (Teufel method)?
A)12° cephalad
B)10° cephalad
C)20° to 25° caudad
D)15° cephalad
Q2) The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during:
A)walking and running.
B)flexing and extending.
C)labor and delivery.
D)voiding.
Q3) Which of the following lateral hip projections cannot be performed on a trauma patient with a possible hip fracture?
A)Modified Cleaves method
B)Clements-Nakayama
C)Danelius-Miller
D)Judet method
Q4) Cephalopelvimetry is still commonly performed in the United States.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of CR angle is recommended when performing the AP axial C-spine projection erect?
A)15° cephalad
B)20° cephalad
C)15° caudad
D)25° cephalad
Q2) A patient comes to radiology for a thoracic spine routine.The patient has a history of arthritis of the spine.The radiologist requests that additional projections be taken to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints.What position(s) and/or projection(s) would be ideal to demonstrate these structures?
A)Pillar view projection of interest region
B)Swimmer's lateral projection
C)Spot AP and lateral projections of interest region
D)70° oblique projections
Q3) The posterior cervical oblique projections demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicles on the side closest to the image receptor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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Sample Questions
Q1) A geriatric patient comes to radiology for a lumbar spine series.She has severe kyphosis of the thoracolumbar spine.Which one of the following modifications should be applied to this patient?
A)Perform all positions erect.
B)Perform all positions recumbent; include flexion and extension projections.
C)Include the entire spine for all projections regardless of what was ordered by the physician.
D)Use high (90 kV) for all projections.
Q2) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is superior to computed tomography (CT) for evaluation of spinal cord and intervertebral disks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The LPO position for sacroiliac joints will best demonstrate the right joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A female is more likely to suffer a fracture of the coccyx due to a backward, sitting type of fall than a male.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Bony Thoraxsternum and Ribs
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67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the joint space between the manubrium and body of sternum called?
A)Sternal notch
B)Costocartilage
C)Sternal angle
D)SC joint
Q2) Which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?
A)Neck
B)Tubercles
C)Head
D)Facets
Q3) Which ribs are considered to be true ribs?
A)First only
B)First through seventh ribs
C)First through ninth ribs
D)Eleventh and twelfth ribs
Q4) The widest aspect of the bony thorax generally occurs at the level of:
A)the eleventh and twelfth ribs.
B)T7.
C)the sternoclavicular joints.
D)the eighth or ninth ribs.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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181 Verified Questions
181 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum CR angulation used for the axiolateral/axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible?
A)10° to 15°
B)25°
C)30°
D)45°
Q2) Which three cranial bones articulate directly with the zygomatic bone?
A)Frontal, ethmoid, temporal
B)Frontal, sphenoid, temporal
C)Sphenoid, frontal, occipital
D)Ethmoid, parietal, frontal
Q3) The recommended digital systems kV range for the superoinferior tangential (axial) projection of the nasal bones is:
A)40 to 50.
B)50 to 60.
C)70 to 80.
D)75 to 85.
Q4) The lateral projection of the facial bones is typically a unilateral projection.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using computed radiography (CR), inadequate kV or mAs will produce a ____ image.
A)dark
B)light
C)blurry
D)mottled
Q2) The esophagus is located ____ to the larynx.
A)anterior
B)posterior
C)inferior
D)proximal
Q3) Presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia
A)Ulcers
B)Hiatal hernia
C)Achalasia (cardiospasm)
D)Zenker diverticulum
E)Schatzki ring
F)Gastritis
G)Esophageal varices
H)Gastric carcinoma
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Chapter 13: Lower Gi System
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83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is oral contrast media sometimes given during computed tomography colonography?
A)To determine if a fistula is present
B)To mark or "tag" possible fecal matter
C)To demonstrate possible diverticula
D)To prevent spasm of the large intestine
Q2) Which of the following conditions may lead to an adynamic ileus?
A)Small bowel tumor
B)Scar tissue within the jejunum
C)Peritonitis
D)Stricture of ileum due to an inguinal hernia
Q3) Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?
A)Left colic flexure
B)Right colic flexure
C)Sigmoid colon
D)Cecum
Q4) CT may be performed to diagnose acute appendicitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media?
A)Moderate itching and sneezing
B)Metallic taste in mouth and a temporary hot flash
C)Mild condition of urticaria (hives)
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?
A)350 to 500 mL
B)100 to 250 mL
C)500 to 750 mL
D)1000 to 1200 mL
Q3) A male patient comes to radiology for a voiding cystourethrogram.Which of the following projections and/or positions would be performed for this procedure?
A)30° RPO
B)Erect lateral
C)Recumbent lateral
D)Erect PA
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16
Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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108 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?
A)10° cephalad
B)15° caudal
C)30° cephalad
D)40° caudal
Q2) Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot stand or sit erect?
A)Right lateral decubitus
B)AP supine
C)Left lateral decubitus
D)Dorsal decubitus
Q3) How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters) projection for the facial bones?
A)Perpendicular to the plane of the IR
B)Parallel to the mentomeatal line
C)Parallel to the lips-meatal line
D)15° cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the average transit time for the barium to reach the ileocecal valve during a pediatric small bowel study?
A)30 minutes
B)1 hour
C)2 hours
D)3 hours
Q2) A condition of irreversible widening (dilation of the bronchi); frequently begins in early childhood (may require a slight increase in exposure factors)
A) Atelectasis
B) Cretinism (a thyroid gland disorder)
C) Croup
D) Hyaline membrane disease
E) Cystic fibrosis
F) Bronchiectasis
Q3) What type of contrast media is most effective in reducing an intussusception?
A)Barium
B)Iodinated, water soluble
C)Helium
D)Air
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following vessels is not part of the arterial circle (circle of Willis)?
A)Middle cerebral artery
B)Internal carotid artery
C)Posterior communicating artery
D)Anterior cerebral artery
Q2) A procedure for vertebral pain due to instability and compression fractures caused by osteoporosis and/or other reasons
A)Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
B)Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
C)Embolization
D)Thrombolysis
E)Percutaneous vertebroplasty
F)Percutaneous biliary drainage (PBD)
G)Stent placement
H)Inferior vena cava filter
I)Kyphoplasty
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19
Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ controls the brightness of an image within a certain range.
A)Window level
B)Window width
C)Voxel
D)CT number
Q2) Major functions of the cerebellum include:
A)regulation of body temperature.
B)visual perception.
C)coordination, posture, and balance.
D)regulation of blood pressure.
Q3) Gray brain matter
A)+50
B)+40
C)+20
D)-100
E)-200
F)-1000
G)+1000 or higher
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The technologist must follow standard precautions when handling bile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The wrist should be placed into the pronated PA position for a long bone study of the upper limb.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a myelogram performed with the patient prone, why is a positioning block (bolster) placed under the abdomen for the lumbar puncture?
A)To force the contrast media toward the head
B)For patient comfort
C)To widen the interspinous spaces
D)To prevent reflux of contrast media back into the syringe
Q4) The uterine (fallopian) tubes are approximately ____ cm in length.
A)3 to 4
B)6 to 8
C)10 to 12
D)15 to 18
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Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) CSF will appear as a bright signal on T1-weighted images.
A)True
B)False
Q2) PET and MRI data sets cannot be co-registered to create a hybrid image.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following factors helps reduce peristaltic motion during an MRI of the abdomen?
A)Physiologic gating
B)Use of a gradient pulse sequence
C)Use of a spin echo pulse sequence
D)Higher magnet strength
Q4) All tissues within the same strength magnetic field respond at the same relaxation rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Computed radiography has lower operating costs over analog mammography imaging.
A)True
B)False
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