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Introduction to Radiologic Sciences provides students with a comprehensive overview of the field of medical imaging and the vital role radiologic technologists play in healthcare. The course explores the history, principles, and applications of various imaging modalities, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and ultrasound. Emphasis is placed on patient care, radiation safety, basic anatomy, ethical considerations, and the professional responsibilities of radiologic technologists. Students will gain foundational knowledge necessary for advancing in radiologic sciences and for providing quality care in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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12 Chapters
345 Verified Questions
345 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ is a small, discrete bundle of energy.
A) phaser
B) quark
C) photon
D) mesion
Answer: C
Q2) X-rays are invisible.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) X-rays used in radiography have wavelengths that are measured in:
A) angstroms.
B) millimeters.
C) centimeters.
D) inches.
Answer: A
Q4) Chemical changes may occur as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 3
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Q1) What is the anode target of a mammographic tube made of?
A) Molybdenum
B) Tungsten
C) Rhenium
D) Beryllium
Answer: A
Q2) Increasing the kVp will do which of the following?
A) Decrease the tube current.
B) Increase the speed of the electrons.
C) Increase the penetrability of the beam.
D) b and c
Answer: D
Q3) _____ is the phenomenon that occurs around the filament during thermionic emission and prevents the further escape of electrons from the filament.
A) Saturation current
B) Space charge effect
C) mA rectification
D) Line focus principle
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) At higher kilovoltage, _____ photon interactions occur, resulting in _____ transmission.
A) more, increased
B) more, less
C) fewer, increased
D) fewer, less
Answer: C
Q2) The _____ image occurs first on the image receptor, and the _____ image occurs following proper image development/processing.
A) manifest, latent
B) invisible, latent
C) visible, manifest
D) latent, manifest
Answer: D
Q3) During image intensification, the electrons are focused by the:
A) input phosphor.
B) output phosphor.
C) electrostatic lenses.
D) TV monitor.
Answer: C
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Q1) Assuming all exposure factors remain unchanged, what is the result of changing to an image receptor with a higher relative speed?
A) Density increases.
B) Density decreases.
C) Patient dose increases.
D) b and c
Q2) Kilovoltage does not affect radiographic density until adequate penetration is reached.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With all other factors remaining the same, a patient with which body habitus would require the highest exposure factors?
A) Asthenic
B) Sthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Hyposthenic
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the selection of the focal spot size, the radiographer is really determining the: A) angle of the anode used.
B) actual size of the filament used.
C) number of electrons available for tube current.
D) distance the electrons travel from cathode to anode.
Q2) Using a small focal spot size may be prohibited due to the:
A) amount of heat produced by x-ray exposure.
B) amount of exposure time used.
C) SID used.
D) speed of the film-screen system.
Q3) What effect will using a higher grid ratio have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
Q4) Magnification is affected by:
A) AEC.
B) OID.
C) SID.
D) b and c

7
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Q1) The height of the lead strips relative to the distance between the lead strips is the measure of:
A) contrast improvement.
B) grid ratio.
C) Bucky factor.
D) grid selectivity.
Q2) The number of lead strips per inch in a grid is a measure of:
A) grid selectivity.
B) grid ratio.
C) grid frequency.
D) contrast improvement number.
Q3) An optimal AP abdomen radiograph can be produced using 40 mAs, 75 kVp and a 12:1 grid. How much mAs would be needed if the only grid available is a 6:1 ratio grid?
A) 20 mAs
B) 24 mAs
C) 67 mAs
D) 80 mAs
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Q1) The material used as the CR photostimulable phosphor is:
A) gadolinium oxysulfide with terbium.
B) barium fluorohalide with europium.
C) lanthanum oxybromide with thulium.
D) yttrium oxysulfide with terbium.
Q2) What is achieved when the color of light emitted by an intensifying screen matches the color of light a film responds to?
A) Chromatic spectrometry
B) Orthochromatic sensitivity
C) Panchromatic matching
D) Spectral matching
Q3) What is the purpose of the intensifying screen?
A) To decrease the production of scatter radiation
B) To reduce the amount of scatter striking the film
C) To reduce the amount of exposure to the patient
D) b and c
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Q1) If the developer temperature is too high, the processed image will appear:
A) milky.
B) dark.
C) light.
D) streaked.
Q2) The process of replacing processing chemicals with fresh chemicals is known as: A) recirculation.
B) replenishment.
C) temperature control.
D) transport.
Q3) While in the developer solution, additional electrons are added to the: A) fixer.
B) silver.
C) sensitivity specks.
D) water.
Q4) A 40 watt light bulb is appropriate for a safelight.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following has an inverse relationship with contrast?
A) Density
B) Average gradient
C) Latitude
D) Speed
Q2) What is the name of the curve associated with film analysis?
A) D log E
B) Hurter and Driffield
C) Characteristic
D) All of the above
Q3) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the optical density increases by 0.3, the percentage of light transmitted through the film:
A) decreases by a factor of 2.
B) increases by a factor or 2.
C) increases by a factor of 4.
D) remains the same.
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Q1) When using a fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart, if part thickness increases by 5 cm, what needs to happen to the mAs?
A) It should be halved.
B) It should be doubled.
C) It should be quartered.
D) It should be tripled.
Q2) Two identical rooms, having the same generator and tube and installed at the same time, do not require development of separate technique charts. The chart for one room can accurately be used in the other.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Departmental standards, such as the SID or whether an exam is done table-top or Bucky, should be determined:
A) prior to the development of technique charts.
B) after the development of technique charts.
C) at the same time as the development of technique charts.
D) whenever the department can come to an agreement.
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Q1) Why was automatic exposure control (AEC) originally developed?
A) To decrease the need for technique charts
B) To make the technologist more of a "button pusher"
C) To reduce repeats and improve image quality
D) To increase productivity and patient dose
Q2) When using AEC, what should the radiographer adjust to manipulate the contrast of the image?
A) kVp
B) Detector location
C) Time
D) Focal spot size
Q3) When exposure factors are selected using APR, the variables should not be adjusted.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When doing a film-screen study using AEC, what will happen to the density in the area of interest when changing from 70 kVp to 90 kVp?
A) Density will increase.
B) Density will decrease.
C) Density will not change.
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Q1) The pixel bit depth determines the amount of shades of gray the system is capable of displaying on the digital image.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which imaging method(s) is/are difficult to use for mobile radiography?
A) Film-screen
B) CR
C) DR
D) b and c
Q3) The density/brightness of the digital image may be manipulated by changing the:
A) window width.
B) window level.
C) matrix size.
D) detective quantum efficiency.
Q4) What type of laser is used to release the energy stored in the CR phosphor?
A) Neon-helium
B) Argon
C) Krypton
D) Fluorohalide
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