Introduction to Radiography
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Radiography provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles, techniques, and applications of medical imaging. This course covers the history and evolution of radiography, the basic physics of X-rays, radiation safety procedures, and the operation of radiographic equipment. Students will explore the anatomy and physiology relevant to imaging, learn about image production and evaluation, and discuss the ethical and professional responsibilities of radiographers. Through both theoretical study and practical exercises, the course prepares students for further study and clinical practice in diagnostic imaging.
Recommended Textbook
Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long
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26 Chapters
1134 Verified Questions
1134 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Role of the Limited X-Ray Machine Operator
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On what date were x-rays discovered?
A) November 8, 1895
B) November 10, 1923
C) October 31, 1859
D) October 31, 1895
Answer: A
Q2) The specialized area of radiology that uses x-rays to measure the bone mineral content and density of bones is:
A) fluoroscopy.
B) computed tomography.
C) bone densitometry.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the proper term for the "pictures" produced by x-rays?
A) Photographs
B) Radiographs
C) Rayopictures
D) X-images
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to Radiographic Equipment
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal source of scatter radiation is the:
A) x-ray tube.
B) collimator.
C) patient.
D) control booth.
Answer: C
Q2) The absorption of x-rays by matter is called:
A) scatter.
B) attenuation.
C) fog.
D) remnant radiation.
Answer: B
Q3) Where is the image originally obtained and stored in computed radiography (CR)?
A) On a film
B) In a phosphor material
C) On a laser disk
D) In a microprocessor
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Basic Mathematics for Limited Operators
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lateral thoracic spine on a 33-cm patient is usually taken using 200 mA (large focal spot),0.25 sec,86 kVp,40-inch SID,12:1 grid ratio. If the mA is increased to 400 to stop motion blur from tremors,which of the following technique changes will produce a radiographic density and contrast most similar to the original?
A) 0.13 sec, 86 kVp
B) 0.13 sec, 98 kVp
C) 0.65 sec, 76 kVp
D) 36-inch SID with no other change
Answer: A
Q2) What is a denominator?
A) The bottom or lower number of a fraction
B) The upper or top number of a fraction
C) The number divided into in a division problem
D) The answer to a division problem
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Basic Physics of Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that applies to the quantity of electrons flowing through a circuit is:
A) potential difference.
B) voltage.
C) frequency.
D) current.
Q2) What term refers to the force or strength of the electron flow in the current?
A) Potential difference
B) Resistance
C) Circuit
D) Ampere
Q3) Electricity is produced when a magnet is moved around a conductor or the conductor is moved around the magnet. This process is called:
A) kilovoltage.
B) amperage.
C) resistance.
D) electromagnetic induction.
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Production
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47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of tungsten?
A) Tungsten has a low melting point.
B) Tungsten is a very soft metal.
C) Tungsten is a very unstable element.
D) Tungsten has a high melting point.
Q2) The density in the radiographic image is primarily controlled by the:
A) mA.
B) mAs.
C) kVp.
D) SID.
Q3) The difference in x-ray intensity (or volume of x-rays)between the anode and the cathode side of the x-ray beam is:
A) 45%.
B) 60%.
C) 75%.
D) 80%.
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Chapter 6: X-Ray Circuit and Tube Heat Management
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What electrical system and device terminates the exposure time after an exact amount of radiation for a given body part has been detected?
A) Synchronous exposure control
B) Electronic exposure control
C) Automatic exposure control
D) Milliamperage control
Q2) Which of the following are true concerning high-frequency (HF)generators,compared to 1-phase and 3-phase generators?
1) Produce x-rays more efficiently.
2) Require less exposure time.
3) Produce the greatest amount of x-rays for the same technique.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 7: Principles of Exposure and Image Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fog is primarily caused by:
A) a kVp that is too high.
B) a kVp that is too low.
C) scattered radiation.
D) patient size.
Q2) If the SID doubles,the quantity of x-rays will increase:
A) 1X.
B) 2X.
C) 3X.
D) 4X.
Q3) The relationship between SID and x-ray beam intensity is expressed in the _____ law.
A) proportional square
B) inverse square
C) reciprocity
D) target-distance
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Chapter 8: Digital Image Receptor Systems
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the calibration of an image display system that ensures that all radiographic images' gray scales are presented consistently?
A) Postprocessing
B) Edge enhancement
C) Health level-7
D) DICOM gray-scale function
Q2) "Window width" controls which aspect of the radiographic image?
A) Shuttering
B) Noise
C) Density
D) Contrast
Q3) Which of the following must be used with digital-based x-ray processors to ensure that the ALARA concept is practiced?
A) A grid
B) A 40-inch SID
C) An exposure technique chart
D) Added aluminum at the port of the x-ray tube
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10
Chapter 9: Scatter Radiation and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Grids with lead strips that are aligned to coincide with the primary beam angle are called _____ grids.
A) crosshatch
B) focused
C) parallel
D) Bucky
Q2) Compton scatter that is directed from the patient back toward the x-ray tube is called:
A) backscatter.
B) front scatter.
C) side scatter.
D) coherent scatter.
Q3) The radiographic appearance of decreased density on the lateral margins of the image is most likely caused by grid:
A) frequency.
B) motion.
C) ratio.
D) cutoff.
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11
Chapter 10: Formulating X-Ray Techniques
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much of a change in mAs is needed if there is a 2-cm increase in the part size?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Q2) Which of the following pathologic conditions require an increase in exposure factors?
1) Pneumonia
2) Paget disease
3) Bowel obstruction
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Technique charts are based on:
A) patient weight and body habitus.
B) processor temperature and replenishment rates.
C) thickness of the body part to be radiographed.
D) nature of the suspected pathologic condition.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Radiobiology and Radiation Safety
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52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old radiation worker can have an annual cumulative effective dose of:
A) 28 Sv
B) 280 Sv
C) 28 mSv
D) 280 mSv
Q2) The annual effective dose limit for an occupational radiation worker is:
A) 25 mSv
B) 50 mSv
C) 1 Sv
D) 5 Sv
Q3) A common and observable short-term effect of radiation is:
A) erythema.
B) mutations.
C) leukemia.
D) carcinogenesis.
Q4) The most widely used and most accurate personnel monitor is the:
A) visual dosimeter.
B) film badge.
C) thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD).
D) optically stimulated luminescence (OSL).
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Anatomy, positioning, and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is applied to joints that are not moveable?
A) Synarthrosis
B) Amphiarthrosis
C) Diarthrosis
D) Biarthrosis
Q2) What term is applied to joints that are freely moveable?
A) Synarthrosis
B) Amphiarthrosis
C) Diarthrosis
D) Biarthrosis
Q3) When the long side of the IR is placed perpendicular to the long axis of the body,then the IR placement is:
A) lengthwise.
B) crosswise.
C) incorrect.
Q4) A hole in bone that provides a passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a:
A) foramen.
B) styloid.
C) fissure.
D) sinus.
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Chapter 13: Upper Extremity and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the proper patient instructions for the AP projection of the shoulder?
A) Stop breathing and do not move.
B) Breathe quietly and do not move.
C) Slow deep breaths and do not move.
D) Pant quickly and do not move.
Q2) Which of the following is located at the distal end of the radius?
A) Styloid process
B) Radial head
C) Radial tuberosity
D) Olecranon process
Q3) Which of the following describes the proper position of the forearm when taking a lateral projection of the forearm?
A) Elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to IR, hand supinated
B) Elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to IR, hand pronated
C) Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, wrist lateral, medial surface of forearm in contact with IR
D) Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, wrist parallel to IR, anterior surface of forearm in contact with IR with hand pronated
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Chapter 14: Lower Extremity and Pelvis
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patella is classified as a(n)______ bone.
A) irregular
B) short
C) sesamoid
D) long
Q2) Which patient population is most likely to suffer a hip fracture?
A) Children
B) Young adults, especially athletes
C) Elderly
D) Males who are long-term smokers
Q3) How are the toes identified?
A) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the medial side.
B) The toes are numbered 1 to 5 beginning on the lateral side.
C) The toes are referred to as digits without identifying numbers.
D) The toes have individual names.
Q4) When taking an AP axial projection of the foot,the central ray is directed:
A) 10 degrees toward the toes.
B) 10 degrees toward the heel.
C) 25 degrees toward the heel.
D) perpendicular to the IR.
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Chapter 15: Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a 30 × 35 cm IR,where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?
A) At the level of the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
B) At a level 1 \( \frac{1}{2} \) inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
C) At the level of the sacrum along the coronal plane of the patient
D) This size IR is not appropriate for lumbar spine images
Q2) What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae?
A) Cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
B) Cervical vertebrae do not have bodies.
C) Cervical vertebrae, with the exception of C7, do not have spinous processes.
D) Cervical vertebrae have special articular facets on the sides of the bodies.
Q3) What is the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the sacrum?
A) 10 degrees cephalad
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 15 degrees cephalad
D) 15 degrees caudad
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bony Thorax, Chest, and Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the CR enter the patient on the upright,AP projection of the abdomen?
A) Midsagittal plane at 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest
B) Midsagittal plane at the level of the iliac crest
C) Midcoronal plane at 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest
D) Midcoronal plane at the level of the iliac crest
Q2) The membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and surrounds the abdominal organs is called the:
A) peritoneum.
B) pleura.
C) colon.
D) spleen.
Q3) The xiphoid process is the ______ of the sternum.
A) proximal portion
B) distal tip
C) middle portion
D) longest portion
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18
Chapter 17: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the articulation between the mandible and the cranium?
A) Craniomandibular joint
B) Temporomandibular joint
C) Mastomandibular joint
D) Mentomandibular joint
Q2) What is the medical term for the bony sockets that house the eyes?
A) Eye sockets
B) Supraorbital margins
C) Glabella
D) Orbits
Q3) Where is the coronal suture?
A) Between the frontal and parietal bones
B) Between the right and left parietal bones
C) Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones
D) Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone
Q4) Which projection best demonstrates the maxillary sinuses?
A) Parietoacanthial (Waters method)
B) SMV
C) PA axial (Caldwell method)
D) AP axial (Towne method)
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Radiography of Pediatric and Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding pediatric anatomy?
A) It is the same as an adult's.
B) The pediatric skeleton is denser than an adult's.
C) "Baby fat" is more difficult to penetrate than an older child's muscle tissue.
D) The pediatric skeleton is easier to penetrate than the adult skeleton.
Q2) Which of the following strategies is usually helpful in dealing with patients who have impaired hearing?
1) Put your mouth close to the person's ear and shout.
2) Avoid noisy background situations.
3) Have their attention before you begin to speak.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What patient population is usually affected by osteoporosis?
A) Children
B) Young adults
C) The elderly
D) Osteoporosis is common across all patient populations.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Image Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper method to hang an AP projection of the foot?
A) With the toes pointing toward the floor
B) With the toes pointing toward the ceiling
C) With the toes pointing toward the right
D) With the toes pointing toward the left
Q2) Radiographs made with the patient in the ______ position are usually hung horizontally.
A) supine
B) prone
C) decubitus
D) upright
Q3) Which of the following describes optimum radiographic viewing conditions?
A) Radiographs should be viewed with a "hot light."
B) Radiographs should be viewed in a totally darkened room.
C) Radiographs should be viewed in a normally lit room.
D) Radiographs should be viewed in a room with low light.
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21
Chapter 20: Ethics, Legal Considerations, and Professionalism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of appropriate self-care if demonstrated by a limited operator?
1) Working while running a fever because the schedule is full
2) Wearing an apron while ensuring patient safety during an imaging procedure
3) Using proper body mechanics when transferring a patient from a stretcher to the x-ray table
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following are true regarding informed consent?
1) Informed consent may be revoked at any time.
2) Patient must be legally competent to sign.
3) Patient may sign an incomplete form and the blanks may be filled in later by the physician.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 21: Safety and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A limited operator who does not change linens between patients is:
A) providing an opportunity for fomite transmission.
B) saving money in laundry expenses.
C) making wise decisions, as long as there are no stains on the linens.
D) increasing productivity by saving time between patients.
Q2) What type of disease transmission is possible when the limited operator does not clean the Bucky device after performing an examination on a patient with influenza?
A) Vector transmission
B) Direct contact transmission
C) Fomite transmission
D) Airborne transmission
Q3) When infection is spread by means of contaminated dust that contains endospores or droplet nuclei,the means of transmission is called:
A) a vehicle.
B) a vector.
C) a fomite.
D) airborne contamination.
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Chapter 22: Assessing Patients and Managing Acute Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When oxygen is administered in response to an emergency situation,an appropriate flow rate is _____ liters per minutes.
A) 1
B) 3 to 5
C) 5 to 10
D) 20
Q2) Temperature readings are highest when taken with which of the following methods?
A) Rectal method
B) Oral method
C) Tympanic method
D) Axillary method
Q3) What is the layman's term for a cerebrovascular accident?
A) Heart attack
B) Coma
C) Headache
D) Stroke
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Chapter 23: Medications and Their Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is flow rate measured?
A) Drops/second
B) Drops/minute
C) Liters/minute
D) Liters/second
Q2) When used for intramuscular injections,which of the following sites results in pain at the time of injection and persists afterwards?
A) Deltoid muscle of the upper arm
B) Gluteal muscles in the hip area
C) Muscles of the anterior thigh
D) Vastus lateralis muscle of the lateral thigh
Q3) Which drug administration route means that the medications are injected directly into the body?
A) Parenteral
B) Topical
C) Submucosal
D) Oral
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25
Chapter 24: Medical Laboratory Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before placing an adhesive bandage or tape to cover the puncture site,the limited operator should check to see if the patient is:
A) HIV positive.
B) still bleeding.
C) allergic to adhesives.
D) taking anticoagulant medications.
Q2) What is the standard size of a venipuncture needle?
A) 16 gauge
B) 18 gauge
C) 21 gauge
D) 40 gauge
Q3) The vein most commonly used to draw blood specimens is the _____ vein.
A) median cubital
B) cephalic
C) basilic
D) saphenous
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26
Chapter 25: Additional Procedures for Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper distance to assess near vision?
A) 2 to 4 inches
B) 6 to 8 inches
C) 10 to 12 inches
D) 14 to 16 inches
Q2) A person who cannot see well at close range has a condition known as which of the following?
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Hemianopia
D) Hypopia
Q3) Where does the cardiac impulse originate?
A) Sinoatrial (SA) node
B) Atrioventricular (AV) node
C) Bundle of His
D) Purkinje fibers
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27
Chapter 26: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When positioning a proximal femur,the patient's feet should always be:
A) straight.
B) pointed inward.
C) pointed outward.
D) oblique.
Q2) The FRAX® algorithm gives the ____-year probability of fracture.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q3) Which of the following external landmarks are used for placement of the central ray of the proximal femur?
A) 7 to 8 cm below xiphoid process
B) 7 to 8 cm below greater trochanter
C) 7 to 8 cm above xiphoid process
D) 7 to 8 cm above greater trochanter
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