Introduction to Radiography
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Radiography provides students with foundational knowledge of the field of medical imaging, emphasizing the fundamental principles and practices of radiography. The course covers topics such as radiation physics, image formation, basic patient care, safety protocols, equipment operation, and the ethical and legal responsibilities of radiographers. Through both theoretical instruction and hands-on laboratory experiences, students gain essential skills in image acquisition, positioning techniques, and quality assurance, preparing them for further study and clinical practice in diagnostic imaging environments.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Q1) The source of radiation in an x-ray tube (the anode) shall not be closer than _____ inches from the _____.
A) 12; patient
B) 15; patient
C) 12; tabletop
D) 15; tabletop
Answer: A
Q2) Information that must be included on all radiographic images includes all of the following except:
A) right or left side marker.
B) patient's name or ID number.
C) radiographer's name.
D) date of exam.
Answer: C
Q3) The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
A) kVp.
B) dust.
C) collimation.
D) scatter radiation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q2) A commonly performed projection that is significantly improved with the use of a compensating filter is the AP: A) hand.
B) skull.
C) leg.
D) thoracic spine.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serious fracture in which the bones are not in anatomic alignment is called: A) impacted.
B) compression.
C) displaced.
D) nondisplaced.
Answer: C
Q2) The jugular notch is located at the level of:
A) T2-T3.
B) T4-T5.
C) L2-L3.
D) L4-L5.
Answer: A
Q3) A plane passing through the body parallel with the midsagittal plane is termed: A) coronal.
B) sagittal.
C) axial.
D) oblique.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement is known as a _____ fracture.
A) Colles
B) Smith's
C) Boxer's
D) Bennett's
Q2) A fracture of the metacarpal neck is known as a _____ fracture.
A) Colles
B) Smith's
C) Boxer's
D) Bennett's
Q3) How many degrees is the hand rotated for a PA oblique projection of the digit?
A) 25
B) 40
C) 45
D) 40 to 45
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) To obtain a more uniform image density, the respiration phase for the AP projection of the clavicle should be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) shallow breathing.
D) suspended respiration.
Q2) The PA oblique projection of the shoulder joint (scapular Y) is performed in which of the following positions?
A) AP
B) Lateral
C) RAO or LAO
D) RPO or LPO
Q3) If the patient places the palm of the hand against the thigh, the humerus will be in:
A) lateral position.
B) external rotation.
C) internal rotation.
D) neutral position.
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Q1) How far should the IR/collimated field extend below the knee for a lateral projection of the femur?
A) 1 inch
B) 2 inches
C) 3 inches
D) 4 inches
Q2) All of the joints of the foot are synovial (freely movable) except the:
A) femorotibial.
B) patellofemoral.
C) distal tibiofibular.
D) proximal tibiofibular.
Q3) How many bones are in the foot?
A) 14
B) 26
C) 27
D) 29
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the central-ray entrance point for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?
A) 2 inches superior to the ASIS
B) 2 inches inferior to the ASIS
C) 3 inches superior to the ASIS
D) 3 inches inferior to the ASIS
Q2) How much should the thighs be abducted for the AP oblique projection of the femoral necks (modified Cleaves method)?
A) 10 degrees
B) 20 degrees
C) 30 degrees
D) 45 degrees
Q3) Flattening of the femoral head due to a vascular interruption is known as:
A) chondrosarcoma.
B) Paget's disease.
C) congenital hip dysplasia.
D) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Q1) Which thoracic vertebrae contain costal facets on the transverse process?
A) T1-T3
B) T1-T9
C) T1-T10
D) T1-T12
Q2) The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine open:
A) laterally.
B) 45 degrees anteriorly.
C) 70 degrees anteriorly.
D) 45 degrees anteriorly and 15 degrees inferiorly.
Q3) The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:
A) sacroiliac joint.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) acetabulum.
D) lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint.
Q4) How many foramina are located in each cervical vertebra?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Q1) Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?
A) 1 inch lower
B) 1 inch higher
C) 3 to 5 inches lower
D) 3 to 5 inches higher
Q2) Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum?
A) Locked behind the back
B) Straight down at the side
C) Locked above the head
D) Back of the hands against the thighs
Q3) What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the ribs below the diaphragm?
A) Suspended respiration
B) Full inspiration
C) Full expiration
D) Slow, shallow breathing
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11
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Q1) Where does the trachea lie in relation to the esophagus?
A) Posterior
B) Anterior
C) To the left
D) To the right
Q2) Which of the following will be observed on a supine AP chest radiograph?
1)Clavicles projected higher
2)Lung fields appear shorter
3)All 12 ribs are seen
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The Lindblom method is used to demonstrate the:
A) posterior ribs.
B) upper anterior ribs.
C) heart and great vessels.
D) pulmonary apices.
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12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Q1) Long bone measurement is most frequently used on the: A) spine.
B) upper limbs.
C) lower limbs.
D) femora only.
Q2) Which of the following is currently the examination method of choice for long bone measurements because of its accuracy and reduced dose?
A) Conventional radiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Computed tomography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q2) Which of the following contrast media may be injected into a joint space for radiography of the menisci, cartilage, bursae, etc.?
1)Air
2)Barium
3)Iodine contrast medium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Q1) If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional should:
A) assess the patient's airway.
B) check the patient's pulse.
C) notify the ED physician immediately.
D) check the patient's pupil responses.
Q2) Signs of shock include all of the following except:
A) cool, clammy skin.
B) diaphoresis.
C) excessive thirst.
D) vomiting.
Q3) Which projection must be evaluated before taking any other images on a trauma patient?
A) AP projection of the atlas and axis, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the C-spine, dorsal decubitus position
D) AP axial C-spine
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Q1) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
Q2) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular
Q4) Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:
A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Q1) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
Q2) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
Q3) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Q1) The folds of peritoneum that support the abdominal organs are called the: 1)omenta.
2)mesentery.
3)pleura.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position?
A) Suspended
B) Inspiration
C) Expiration
D) Variable, depending on the patient status
Q3) The outer portion of the sac that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is termed the:
A) parietal peritoneum.
B) visceral peritoneum.
C) parietal pleura.
D) visceral pleura.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Q1) The widest portion of the small bowel is the:
A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) sigmoid.
Q2) The stomach wall is composed of how many layers?
A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Which drug may be given to the patient before a double-contrast examination of the stomach to relax the gastrointestinal tract?
A) Heparin
B) Glucagon
C) Demerol
D) Oral chlorhydrate
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Q1) The cup-shaped recesses in the center of each kidney that receive the urine from the collecting ducts are called the:
A) hilum.
B) calyces.
C) renal sinuses.
D) renal pelvis.
Q2) Nearly all life-threatening reactions to contrast media occur immediately or within _____ minutes of the injection.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Q3) Where is the IR centered for an AP axial projection of the urinary bladder (cystogram)?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) 1 inch above the upper border of the pubic symphysis
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the upper border of the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches above the upper border of the symphysis pubis
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20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Q1) Measurement of the fetal head and pelvic outlet can be performed using which of the following?
1)Sonography
2)Hysterosalpingography
3)Pelvimetry (Colcher-Sussman method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Parts of the male reproductive system include the: 1)testes.
2)seminal vesicle.
3)bulbourethral glands.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) The central ray and center of the image receptor position for a lateral projection of the skull is _____ inch(es) _____ the EAM.
A) 1; below
B) 2; below
C) 1; above
D) 2; above
Q2) Which of the following bones are contained in the calvarium?
1)Frontal
2)Parietal
3)Temporal
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For a lateral projection of the facial bones, the image receptor is centered to the:
A) glabella.
B) nasion.
C) acanthion.
D) zygomatic bone.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) For which projection of the breast is the AEC turned off?
A) CC with full implant
B) CC with displaced implant
C) All magnification projections
D) Mediolateral oblique
Q2) Which projection of the breast is performed if the lateral breast tissue is not all seen on the craniocaudal projection?
A) Axillary
B) Caudocranial
C) Exaggerated craniocaudal
D) Craniocaudal (cleavage view)
Q3) What type of generators do mammography machines have?
A) Single-phase
B) Three-phase
C) Falling load
D) High frequency
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
Q2) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q3) The brain and spinal cord are enclosed by three protective membranes called the: A) meninges.
B) pia mater.
C) arachnoid.
D) subarachnoid layer.
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed:
A) "gamma knife" therapy.
B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
C) interventional radiology.
D) transcatheter embolization.
Q2) A stent is used to:
A) open up a stenosis in a vessel.
B) reduce or stop blood flow.
C) remove plaque within artery walls.
D) filter emboli from the blood.
Q3) The central organ of the blood-vascular system is the:
A) brain.
B) lung.
C) heart.
D) aorta.
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25
Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) An important safety rule for pediatric radiography is to:
A) never leave the patient unattended.
B) speak directly to the child using age-appropriate language.
C) maintain adequate lighting in the exam room.
D) always immobilize the patient to avoid repeats.
Q2) Common reasons for performing skull radiography on a pediatric patient are:
A) craniosynostosis and fracture.
B) sinusitis and fracture.
C) craniosynostosis and meningomyelocele.
D) meningomyelocele and sinusitis.
Q3) Which of the following can protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure?
1)Appropriate use of filters
2)Precise collimation
3)Gonad shielding always
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following help with communications with geriatric patients?
A) Speaking lower and closer
B) Bright lighting in the exam room
C) Assistance in stepping down from the table
D) Allowing time for the patient to rest between positions
Q2) Dementia is a natural part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one of the leading causes of death among the elderly?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pancreatitis
C) Bronchitis
D) Emphysema
Q5) It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as "honey" or "dear."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) To keep exposure times to a minimum during mobile radiography, the recommended SID should be _____ inches.
A) 30
B) 36
C) 40
D) 48
Q2) The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is:
A) distance.
B) exposure time.
C) choice of kVp.
D) use of a nongrid technique.
Q3) During mobile radiography, the least amount of scattered radiation will occur at what angle to the object being radiographed?
A) 45 degrees
B) 50 degrees
C) 70 degrees
D) 90 degrees
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Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) When positioning the IR under the OR table, the radiographer should:
A) lift the drapes up high to keep them away from the IR.
B) not lift the drapes above table level to avoid the sterile field.
C) squat down to place the IR below the table.
D) give the IR to a sterile team member to place.
Q2) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
Q3) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
Q4) Institution-approved attire worn in the OR:
A) can be worn over 2 days.
B) should be fresh for each shift.
C) can be used regardless of condition.
D) is not necessary in the semirestricted areas.
Page 29
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Factors that affect image quality in CT consist of:
1)spatial resolution.
2)noise.
3)contrast media.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except:
A) volume rendering.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) shaded surface display.
D) pixel-voxel reregistration.
Q3) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Problems associated with installing MRI units are:
1)stray radio waves.
2)weight.
3)effects on electronics.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Gadolinium is a contrast agent used for MRI because it has paramagnetic properties. Compared with iodine contrast, it is:
A) excreted through the bowel.
B) more toxic and has more side effects.
C) less toxic and has fewer side effects.
D) similar in all aspects.
Q3) Generally MRI is considered safe; however, there are some hazards, which would include:
A) rapid echo spin.
B) local burns from wires on a patient.
C) headaches from the magnetic field.
D) spontaneous random molecular motion.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) Hertz measures:
A) cycles per second.
B) amplitude of an echo.
C) number of waves.
D) wavelength.
Q2) If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass it is termed:
A) heterogeneous.
B) homogeneous.
C) complex.
D) anechoic.
Q3) Sound is attenuated by:
A) soft tissue.
B) fluid-filled structures.
C) most bony structures.
D) solid organs.
Q4) The exam to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis and venous insufficiency is:
A) duplex sonography.
B) endovaginal.
C) transabdominal.
D) volume scanning.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) An array of photomultiplier tubes (PMTs) is located:
A) in front of the crystal.
B) to the back of the crystal.
C) after the pulse height analyzer.
D) after the collimator.
Q2) The radiotracer for PET scanning is chosen for:
A) studies that will show only anatomy.
B) its long half-life compared with nuclear medicine.
C) its similarity to naturally occurring biochemicals.
D) faster examination times.
Q3) Half-life (T \(1 / 2\) ) is described as the time required for:
A) half the nuclide to leave the body.
B) half the nuclide to disappear.
C) the nuclide to decay to half its original activity.
D) the original activity to increase by one half.
Q4) The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the:
A) high-frequency generator.
B) compact medical cyclotron.
C) linear accelerator.
D) pulse height analyzer.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) Accuracy in bone densitometry relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
Q2) Risk factors for falling and causing fractures are:
1)antidepressants.
2)impaired muscle strength.
3)environmental hazards.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer can spread or metastasize by invading:
A) adjacent tissue.
B) normal tissue.
C) blood vessels.
D) anywhere close.
Q2) The technique that uses radioactive material placed within the patient is called:
A) brachytherapy.
B) simulation.
C) dosimetry.
D) linear energy transfer.
Q3) _____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.
A) Fractionation
B) Differentiation
C) Palliation
D) Conformal radiation
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