Introduction to Public Administration Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Public Administration examines the foundations, evolution, and functions of public administration as a key component of government and policy implementation. The course explores the roles and responsibilities of public administrators, the structure of public organizations, principles of bureaucracy, ethics in public service, and the nature of decision-making processes within the public sector. Students gain insight into the challenges of managing public resources, the relationship between administration and democracy, and contemporary issues facing public agencies. Through case studies and theoretical frameworks, the course provides an understanding of how public administration shapes and responds to societal needs.
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MindTapR in Action American Government 1st Edition by Cengage
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Chapter 1: The Constitution
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Q1) When Thomas Jefferson wrote, " half a loaf is better than no bread," he was presenting the idea that he
A) completely agreed with Madison's perspective on the Bill of Rights, and the Constitution provided enough of what was needed to protect individual rights.
B) completely disagreed with Madison, and if there was no bill of rights, then it was best to keep the Articles of Confederation.
C) understood Madison's argument that a bill of rights might be limiting, but a bill of rights would secure what rights they could.
D) believed a bill of rights was probably useful, but it was politically prudent to overlook it at this time.
Answer: C
Q2) Who wrote the Great Compromise?
A) William Paterson
B) Thomas Jefferson
C) Roger Sherman
D) William Randolph
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Federalism
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Q1) The necessary and proper clause allows
A) the federal government to reign supreme in every matter.
B) Congress to enact laws retroactively, particularly during a national crisis (war).
C) the federal government to make laws regarding almost anything and gives Congress and the federal government the capability to adapt to a changing world.
D) extensive and expanding powers to the executive branch of government.
Answer: C
Q2) What is federalism?
A) A characteristic of the U.S. government as outlined by the U.S. Constitution
B) A system of government in which the national government has all of the powers
C) The authority and power to govern within the territory of a nation
D) A system of government in which the states have authority over the national government
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Civil Liberties
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Q1) In 1976, what Supreme Court decision held that the death penalty was <b><u>not </b></u>inherently cruel and unusual punishment?
A) Gregg v. Georgia
B) Furman v. Georgia
C) Barker v. Wingo
D) Gideon v. Wainwright
Answer: A
Q2) How many amendments were in the original draft of the Bill of Rights?
A) Six
B) Eight
C) Ten
D) Twelve
Answer: D
Q3) The Anti-Federalists believed individual rights would most likely be
A) taken away if not expressly stated in the U.S. Constitution.
B) taken away if not directly expressed in state constitutions.
C) protected by limiting federal power through the creation of checks and balances.
D) protected by the federal structure created by the Constitution.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Civil Rights
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Q1) What term is defined as using racial influence over police discretion by targeting individuals for investigation or law enforcement based primarily on their race?
A) Affirmative action
B) Racial profiling
C) Racial alienation
D) Racial disparities
Q2) Quotas are
A) a legal part of affirmative action.
B) not considered a part of lawful affirmative action programs.
C) considered a legal part of affirmative action when applied to anything other than race.
D) considered a legal part of affirmative action only when applied to race.
Q3) Where did the modern movement for disability rights find its origins?
A) The activism of women
B) The activism of African-Americans
C) The activism of veterans
D) The activism of educators
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Chapter 5: Congress
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Q1) Which of the following is <b><u>not</b></u> a specific responsibility of the House of Representatives?
A) It starts all revenue-related bills.
B) It draws up articles of impeachment for a federal official.
C) It approves international treaties.
D) It begins the federal budget process.
Q2) The first step in the creation of a law is for a bill to be
A) introduced to the full House or Senate.
B) reviewed through the committee process.
C) reviewed by the executive branch.
D) proposed and sponsored by a member of the House or Senate.
Q3) What are two of the options the president has when a bill has been sent to the White House?
A) To sign or to table
B) To veto or to send it for judicial review
C) To sign or to veto
D) To veto or to send it back to committee
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Chapter 6: Presidency and Foreign Policy
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Q1) Executive agreements are
A) treaties that negotiate settlements with foreign heads of state.
B) treaties that have to be approved by Congress.
C) agreements that open discussion prior to writing a treaty.
D) agreements that communicate mutual understanding of issues with foreign heads of state.
Q2) The purpose of the Office of Management and Budget is to help the president
A) implement his or her policy priorities across the executive branch.
B) implement his or her staffing procedures and manage accounts receivable.
C) implement his or her policies managing the budgets of the judicial and legislative branches.
D) approve budget changes for military action.
Q3) When the president assumes the role of head of state, this involves
A) overseeing implementation of laws.
B) responding quickly to threats to national security.
C) delivering the State of the Union address.
D) receiving ambassadors from other nations and negotiating treaties.
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Chapter 7: Bureaucracy
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Q1) Which act ended the spoils system?
A) The Pendleton Act
B) The Negotiated Rulemaking Act
C) The Civil Service Reform Act
D) The Government Corporation Control Act
Q2) The United States Post Office is an example of
A) an independent regulatory agency.
B) a cabinet department.
C) an independent executive agency.
D) a government corporation.
Q3) What are the two philosophies of government growth?
A) It is driven by citizen demand, and it is a result of a national crisis.
B) It is driven by a strong economy, and it is a result of government itself.
C) It is driven by citizen demand, and it is a result of government itself.
D) It is driven by a strong economy, and it is a result of a national crisis.
Q4) Which cabinet department was established most recently by Congress?
A) The Department of Veteran's Affairs
B) The Department of Homeland Security
C) The Department of Defense
D) The Department of Labor
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Judiciary
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Q1) The Supreme Court is the only court allowed to hear all of the following cases <b><u>except</u></b> those
A) affecting the military.
B) affecting ambassadors.
C) affecting other public ministers.
D) in which a state is a party.
Q2) What is double jeopardy?
A) Being tried twice for the same crime
B) Being tried without knowing your rights
C) Being charged for two crimes at the same time
D) Being charged for a criminal and civil case at the same time
Q3) Which Supreme Court case first extended the authority of the judicial branch relative to the other two branches of the federal government?
A) Marbury v. Madison
B) Obergefell v. Hodges
C) Dred Scott v. Sandford
D) Plessy v. Ferguson
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Chapter 9: Public Opinion
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Questions
Q1) George Gallup introduced the use of
A) probability sampling.
B) quota sampling.
C) biased sampling.
D) polling research.
Q2) The tools of content analysis are used to understand
A) the impact of policy initiatives on a particular group.
B) mass public opinion.
C) the opinion of a particular interest group.
D) the broader policy agenda, especially the preferences and agenda of elites.
Q3) Cell phones pose a threat to public opinion research because A) the majority of households with residents over age 65 do not use them.
B) they do not accept toll-free calls from research firms.
C) almost 40% of households no longer have landlines.
D) most cell phone users won't answer a number they don't recognize.
Q4) When using closed-ended questions, researchers need to
A) limit the number of answers.
B) ask short questions.
C) include all of the appropriate answer options.
D) have the same number of answers for each question.
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Chapter 10: Interest Groups
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Q1) According to recent research, which group is the dominant influence on American government policy?
A) Active political party members
B) Registered voters
C) Mass-based interest groups
D) Economic elites
Q2) In the 2012 election cycle, super PACs spent over ________, with groups such as American Crossroads demonstrating ________.
A) $50,000,000; average electoral success
B) $50,000,000; no electoral success
C) $500,000,000; enormous electoral success
D) $500,000,000; little electoral success
Q3) Which law banned national parties from receiving unregulated soft monies from interest groups and banned corporate and union electioneering activities?
A) The Revenue Act of 1954
B) The Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971
C) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002
D) The Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995
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Chapter 11: Media
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Q1) The finding in New York Times Co. v. Sullivan gives the press the freedom
A) from being censored by the U.S. government for printing information that may pose a threat to national security.
B) from being censored prior to printing an article.
C) to report facts without being sued, but does not give newspapers the right to print false statements with malicious intent.
D) to report unsubstantiated information, if done without malice.
Q2) Political bias in the press is?
A) most evident in the liberal media.
B) most evident in the conservative media.
C) less and less evident.
D) ?difficult to accurately measure.
Q3) Since the 1970s, the relationship between the media and politicians has generally become more
A) informal.
B) supportive.
C) adversarial.
D) distant.
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Chapter 12: Political Parties
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Q1) Why was instant runoff voting (IRV) developed?
A) To provide fairness in local elections, such as those for school boards and city councils
B) To ensure that the winning candidate has the support of the majority of the voters in the district
C) To offer representation for single-issue preferences, as they relate to stringent ideological views
D) To distribute multiple seats fairly in a district to correspond to the proportion of the total votes cast
Q2) Party-in-the-electorate is best described as being characterized by A) feelings of loyalty to the political party.
B) national American committees that hold conventions.
C) infrastructure developed for the purpose of supporting party candidates.
D) cooperative work by congressional members with the same party affiliation.
Q3) What percentage of Americans behave politically as pure independents?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Participation
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Q1) Which statement best describes the impact of utilizing the voting eligible population (VEP) in calculating voter turnout?
A) It provides a more accurate picture of those eligible to vote.
B) While it provides a picture of those eligible to vote, it has been deemed difficult to use.
C) It provides an extremely complex picture of those eligible to vote.
D) While it provides a picture of those eligible to vote, experts state that it is rarely used.
Q2) Which statement regarding the percentage of today's high school students who are civically involved is accurate?
A) The percentage has declined.
B) The percentage has increased.
C) The percentage has remained the same.
D) The percentage has been impossible to assess.
Q3) Which voting system is in place in the United States?
A) Majoritarian
B) Absolute majority
C) Proportional representation
D) Mixed
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Chapter 14: Campaigns and Elections
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Q1) A person of which age would be categorized as a member of the silent generation?
A) Twenty years old
B) Forty years old
C) Sixty years old
D) Eighty years old
Q2) Whose campaign collaborated with FourthWall Media, a data company, to obtain anonymous television data for individual households?
A) Barack Obama
B) Mitt Romney
C) Bill Clinton
D) George Walker Bush
Q3) Often, governors who are considering a presidential run choose to make trips abroad primarily because
A) they generally lack foreign policy credentials.
B) the funding from the state provides for such travel.
C) it is important to know how other governments work.
D) this is a requirement to run for office at such a high level.
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Chapter 15: Domestic Policy
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Q1) Social Security is an entitlement program, which means that by law, payments are made to
A) those who cannot survive without them.
B) those who private enterprise designates as entitled.
C) anyone who meets eligibility requirements.
D) anyone living below the poverty level.
Q2) The Affordable Care Act has its origins in the health care law from
A) New York.
B) Texas.
C) New Mexico.
D) Massachusetts.
Q3) What was the primary intent of the Affordable Care Act?
A) To expand health insurance coverage
B) To eliminate the Medicaid program
C) To lower the cost of prescription drugs
D) To make health care available to noncitizens
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