Introduction to Psychopathology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychopathology provides an overview of the study of mental disorders, exploring their symptoms, classifications, and underlying psychological, biological, and social factors. The course examines major categories of psychopathology, such as mood, anxiety, psychotic, and personality disorders, while also addressing current diagnostic systems like the DSM. Students will gain insight into theories of etiology, approaches to assessment, and foundational concepts in treatment, preparing them to understand how psychological disorders are identified and managed in various clinical and research contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be said about individuals who have a history of at least one serious psychological disorder?
A) Most are effectively treated and never experience mental illness again.
B) Over 50 percent have two or more other disorders.
C) Few have a comorbid disorder.
D) Individuals who have sought treatment for one illness are unlikely to ever experience another.
Answer: B
Q2) Why is it believed that the NCS-R survey used to estimate the prevalence of mental illness underestimated that prevalence?
A) Most problems are acute.
B) Few people report symptoms of mental illness when completing surveys.
C) The incidence of comorbidity is too high.
D) Measures of several types of disorders were not included.
Answer: D
Q3) What is comorbidity?
Answer: The presence of two of more disorders in the same person. This is common in serious mental disorders, rarer for mild disorders.
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Q1) What contribution to our thinking about abnormal behavior did Freud and Breuer make?
Answer: They made the discovery of the unconscious and argued that processes outside the person's awareness could help determine behavior. They showed that emotional tensions that patients were not aware of could cause hysteria.
Q2) Who was Emil Kraepelin?
Answer: The first to recognize that certain symptoms occurred regularly together and to begin the classification of mental disorders.
Q3) The first classification of mental disorders involved ________
A) identifying the biological causes of the disorders, so a person could be tested for them.
B) understanding the theoretical descriptions of different disorders.
C) recognizing symptoms that occurred together often enough to be regarded as a type of mental disorder.
D) identifying the types of thoughts that people with different mental illnesses tended to have.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate ________
A) the impact of shared environmental influences.
B) how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin.
C) differences in temperament.
D) the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.
Answer: C
Q2) Reuptake of neurotransmitters is the process by which neurotransmitters
________
A) are repeatedly released into the synapse.
B) are reabsorbed by the axon.
C) stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire.
D) are connected to hormones.
Answer: B
Q3) __________ tends to be seen in American children, whereas ____________ tends to be seen in Thai children.
Answer: Undercontrolled behavior, overcontrolled behavior
Q4) The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________ .
Answer: synapse
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As is presented with Andrea C within the text, a typical MMPI-2 computer-based report has ________
A) one content-based scale.
B) ten content-based scales.
C) fifteen content-based scales.
D) one hundred content-based scales.
Q2) The projective test called the __________ is the inkblot test used in personality assessments.
Q3) While the DSM is designed to be a categorical classification scheme, ________
A) in practice diagnoses are made on a dimensional basis.
B) the high rate of comorbidity makes categorization impossible.
C) the lack of objective criteria make accurate diagnosis impossible.
D) the existing criteria tend to lead to a prototypal approach.
Q4) What is an analogue situation?
Q5) Symptoms are to signs as ________ is to ________.
A) subjective; objective
B) complaints; treatment
C) assessment; diagnosis
D) projective; objective
Q6) What are the purposes of the initial clinical assessment of a person?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Work-related stress in the form a highly demanding job combined with ________ can elevate risk of coronary heart disease.
A) little opportunity for advancement
B) little decision-making control
C) a Type B personality
D) introversion
Q2) According to your textbook, which of the following is a factor that increases resilience?
A) Being female
B) Being older
C) Being African American
D) Being Latino
Q3) The development of new methods of coping ________
A) may be an outcome of a crisis.
B) always occurs when adaptive capabilities are exceeded.
C) increases the expectation of future failures.
D) is continuously needed as we face new stressors on a daily basis.
Q4) What is the goal of post-disaster debriefing?
Q5) Describe four factors that can worsen a soldier's response to the trauma of combat.
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following illustrates how cognitive variables may act to maintain acquired fears?
A) Jane no longer went to the park due to her fear of dogs.
B) Karen would think happy thoughts whenever she drove over a bridge.
C) Ryan's fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building.
D) Melvin knew that his heart was racing because he was afraid.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-5?
A) hypochondriasis
B) agoraphobia
C) dissociative fugue
D) bipolar disorder
Q3) Panic disorders are often misdiagnosed because ________
A) the symptoms overlap so much with major depression.
B) the symptoms are so chronic and mild, they do not seem like serious forms of psychopathology.
C) patients are so embarrassed by their problems, they do not make them known to professionals.
D) symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems.
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder indicates that the person has experienced
A) an episode of mania.
B) an episode of mania or major depression.
C) an episode of hypomania and an episode of major depression.
D) an episode of mania and an episode of major depression.
Q2) Carleen comes to therapy because she is feeling sad. Carleen says she has often had periods of extreme sadness in the past and they typically last between 6 and 8 months. During those times she overeats, has trouble sleeping, feels exhausted all the time, and thinks a lot about dying. At other times, however, Carleen says she feels wonderful. During those times, which last about a week, she gets a lot done, feels as if she could do anything, talks a lot and quickly, and doesn't sleep but doesn't feel tired. Carleen says her "up" times are great and have never caused her any trouble. Carleen's most likely diagnosis is ________
A) major depressive disorder.
B) persistent depressive disorder.
C) bipolar I.
D) bipolar II.
Q3) Bipolar I disorder is distinguished from major depression by__________.
Q4) Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the various controversies surrounding the role of abuse in the development of DID. What evidence is there to suggest that abuse plays a causal role in DID?
Q2) Dissociative identity disorder used to be referred to as ______________.
Q3) Sociocognitive theory ________
A) explains why symptoms of DID are often not seen until after treatment is initiated.
B) explains why the number of alters is usually constant.
C) can't account for the role that trauma appears to play in DID.
D) does not explain the phenomenon of "lost time."
Q4) _____________ is the disorder in which a person has many different physical symptoms from different areas of the body that cannot be explained by medical findings.
Q5) Individuals with somatic symptom disorders ________
A) intentionally fake their illnesses in order to obtain some special treatment.
B) generally have a physical cause for their illness.
C) believe that their symptoms are real and serious.
D) usually have little concern over their state of health.
Q6) ______________ amnesia is the inability to recall information from before some traumatic experience.
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research suggests that ________ provides the best immediate and long-term outcomes in the treatment of bulimia nervosa.
A) systematic desensitization
B) family therapy
C) antidepressant medication
D) cognitive-behavioral therapy
Q2) How do you distinguish between the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, purging type?
A) The bulimic type involves throwing up, and the anorexic type involves fasting.
B) Altered eating and exercise habits result in missed periods in the bulimic type only.
C) The bulimic type results in more severe health consequences than the anorexic type.
D) People with the bulimic type are normal weight; people with the anorexic type are underweight.
Q3) The neurotransmitter called __________ is made from tryptophan, which can only be obtained from food.
Q4) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Q1) Discuss the two subtypes of narcissistic personality disorder and the possible causes posited for each subtype.
Q2) Emily calls her husband every day at work to ask him what she should make for dinner. She spends her days at her mother's, because Emily worries that something will go wrong in her own home that she won't be able to handle. Even though she paints and draws well, Emily has never tried to take a class or use her talent, because she says she knows she really isn't good enough. Emily's most likely diagnosis is ________
A) borderline personality disorder.
B) dependent personality disorder.
C) schizoid personality disorder.
D) paranoid personality disorder.
Q3) The "clusters" of personality disorders found in the DSM-5 are grouped based on
A) similar etiologies.
B) level of dysfunction.
C) symptom or feature similarities.
D) expected prognosis.
Q4) Cluster __________ personality disorders include histrionic and borderline personality disorders.
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Q1) Impaired memory and concentration, sluggishness, lack of motor coordination, and brain damage are side effects associated with excessive use of ________
A) stimulants.
B) antihistamines.
C) sedatives.
D) antidepressants.
Q2) What is the evidence for and against genetics in alcoholism?
Q3) Unlike psychoactive substance abuse, psychoactive substance dependence usually involves ________
A) physiological symptoms such as tolerance and withdrawal.
B) continued use despite social and occupational problems.
C) pathological use of the substance.
D) the use of substances that laws prohibit one from buying or using.
Q4) Name and describe the effects of two medications used in the treatment of alcohol dependence.
Q5) ________ is a treatment program for alcoholism that involves a fundamental spiritual change within the individuals being treated.
Q6) A processed derivative of cocaine hydrochloride is __________.
Q7) Barbiturates are most commonly prescribed to allow for__________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
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Q1) A man who is aroused by the thought of himself as a woman has the paraphilia known as ________
A) transvestism.
B) transsexualism.
C) protophilia.
D) autogynephilia.
Q2) Janet has marked delays in having orgasms and when she does have an orgasm it is significantly reduced in its relative intensity, Janet may be diagnosed as having
Q3) Discuss two ways in which sex offenses are treated. How effective is treatment for these offenses?
Q4) Autogynephilic transsexuals differ from homosexual transsexuals in that ________
A) they are likely to be homosexual.
B) they are not especially feminine.
C) they are usually female-to-male transsexuals.
D) rarely do they have a history of tranvestic fetishism.
Q5) Discuss the two main controversies concerning childhood sexual abuse.
Q6) The type of rape legally defined as sexual activity with a person who is under the age of concent is called __________ rape.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) How common are delusions in schizophrenia?
A) They are experienced by approximately 50 percent of schizophrenics.
B) Delusions are an essential feature of schizophrenia; the presence of delusions is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
C) Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions.
D) While hallucinations are a common occurrence in schizophrenia, delusions are rare.
Q2) One of the primary manifestations of the stress response in humans is the release of the glucocorticoid ___________ from the ____________.
Q3) The region of the brain known as the ________ (MHC) plays an important role in brain development and neuronal function.
A) monozygotic histamine center
B) major histocompatibility complex
C) minor hysterocompatible complex
D) monozygotic hysterocompatible center
Q4) Recent data from the United Kingdom show that men with schizophrenia _______ about 15 years earlier than would be expected based on national norms.
Q5) What is a delusion? What type of delusions are most common in schizophrenia?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the brain is true?
A) The skull could support as much as 3 tons of weight.
B) The brain is protected only by the skull.
C) The human brain typically weights about 5 pounds.
D) Brain damage rarely results in cognitive changes.
Q2) ________ is rare and caused by an autosomal dominant gene on chromosome 4.
Q3) The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is ________
A) intracranial tumors.
B) severe or repeated head injury.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) drug toxicity.
Q4) What has greatly reduced the number of HIV patients with neurocognitive deficits?
A) APOE-E4 allele therapy
B) ACh inhibitors
C) Antiretroviral drug therapy
D) Better support systems
Q5) Worldwide, the HIV type 1 virus has infected more than _________ people.
Q6) What is vascular dementia?
Q7) Describe delirium and dementia. What are the main differences?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence of Down syndrome increases ________
A) when the mother drinks heavily during pregnancy.
B) if the father is extremely young.
C) as the age of the parents increases.
D) when the mother is exposed to lead during pregnancy.
Q2) What is unique about the intellectual disability caused by PKU?
Q3) What is coprolalia?
Q4) In _______________ the child's problems with word recognition and reading comprehension are not due to an intellectual deficit.
Q5) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is ________
A) commonly diagnosed after age of 15.
B) more frequently diagnosed than other disorders in children and adolescents.
C) seen equally in boys and girls.
D) thought to occur in about 15 percent of school-aged children.
Q6) Children with ADHD that have symptoms of hyperactivity are usually ________
A) well-liked by their peers because they are always active.
B) well-liked by their peers because they become "class clowns."
C) viewed negatively by their peers because of their behaviors.
D) viewed negatively by their peers because they are socially withdrawn.
Q7) Describe the ways parents can contribute to anxiety disorders in their children. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Q1) Psychodynamic interpersonally oriented therapies agree with classical psychoanalysis in the importance of ________
A) focusing on the transference neurosis.
B) the transformation of sexual energy into neurotic behaviors.
C) understanding the present in terms of the past.
D) the therapist being passive and impersonal.
Q2) Dr. Hart says, "For me, the goal of treatment is not to uncover inner conflicts, but to help the client achieve adaptive responses that he or she can control and maintain through self-monitoring." Dr. Hart probably considers herself to be a ________ therapist.
A) behavior
B) psychodynamically oriented
C) humanistic
D) family systems
Q3) What is usually used as a placebo in a study of psychosocial treatments?
A) A sugar pill
B) A wait list
C) Self-help meetings
D) Group therapy
Q4) Neuroleptics are also called _________.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) The American Law Institute (ALI) standard is also called the __________ test.
Q2) What is the goal of school-based drug and alcohol education programs?
A) To teach children how to recognize the drugs that they might be exposed to
B) To ensure that children are educated consumers
C) To teach children about drugs so that they can make informed choices
D) To scare children away from using drugs
Q3) Efforts aimed at influencing the general population are known as __________ interventions.
Q4) The school-based intervention program called DARE has been shown to be
A) highly effective
B) largely not effective
C) effective only in some stated.
D) effective only with upper middle class students
Q5) What are aftercare programs? Who is least likely to benefit from such programs?
Q6) "Efforts that are aimed at influencing the general population" best describes
A) crisis interventions.
B) universal interventions.
C) selective interventions.
D) indicated interventions.
Page 20
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Page 21