

Introduction to Psychopathology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychopathology offers a comprehensive overview of mental disorders, exploring their symptoms, etiology, classification, and treatment. Students examine the major psychological disorders as outlined in diagnostic manuals such as the DSM-5, including anxiety disorders, mood disorders, psychotic disorders, and personality disorders. The course emphasizes scientific approaches to understanding abnormal behavior, integrating biological, psychological, and social perspectives. Through case studies and current research findings, students gain insight into cultural, ethical, and societal influences on mental health, as well as contemporary challenges in diagnosis and intervention.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill
M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are disadvantages of classifying and diagnosing mental disorders except ________
A) stereotyping.
B) labeling.
C) stigma.
D) structure.
Answer: D
Q2) It has been demonstrated that those who were prenatally exposed to the influenza virus are more likely to develop schizophrenia. In other words, prenatal exposure to the influenza virus is ________ correlated with developing schizophrenia.
A) not
B) randomly
C) negatively
D) positively
Answer: D
Q3) If the score on one variable is high and the score on another variable is low, this is known as a __________ correlation.
Answer: negative
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did people in the Middle Ages view physical and spiritual possession differently?
Answer: People who experienced physical possession were mentally ill, those who experienced spiritual possession were witches.
Q2) A psychologist who takes a behavioral perspective would focus on ________
A) learning.
B) early experiences.
C) unconscious conflicts.
D) the role of dreams.
Answer: A
Q3) Free association and dream analysis ________
A) are techniques typically used in hypnotized subjects.
B) provide insight into the workings of the unconscious.
C) were developed in the early 1800s.
D) have been used extensively in behavioral therapy.
Answer: B
Q4) __________________ is the process of moving mental patients from the hospital to the community.
Answer: Deinstitutionalization

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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________ .
Answer: synapse
Q2) Compare and contrast the humanistic and existential perspectives.
Answer: While the humanistic and existential perspectives do share some common elements, there are also ways in which they differ significantly. The humanistic perspective view humans as basically good and focuses on the present. Humanistic therapy focuses on aiding a person in finding his or her means of achieving self-actualization, of being the best that he or she can be. The existential perspective is comparable in recognizing that we are all unique individuals who desire self-fulfillment, but it does not have such a positive view of human nature. Existentialists place more emphasis on irrational tendencies and the external obstacles to self-fulfillment.
Q3) Genes ________
A) determine how a person will behave.
B) cause people to develop mental disorders.
C) determine what characteristics a person will have.
D) determine the range of characteristics a person has.
Answer: D
Q4) _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
Answer: Sufficient causes
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the Rorschach is accurate?
A) The ambiguous stimuli it employs are pictures of people interacting in an unclear way.
B) A considerable amount of training is required to administer and score it accurately.
C) It assesses the kind of specific behavioral deficits that most mental health facilities require today.
D) It is the quickest projective tests to administer and score.
Q2) Ed has suffered a head injury in a car accident. He is referred to a psychologist to see what types of impairment now exist and to get some suggestions for treatment. The best assessment strategy would be ________
A) a CAT scan.
B) neuropsychological tests.
C) a PET scan.
D) an fMRI.
Q3) ________should always be addressed before developing any assessment or treatment plans for clients.
Q4) The case of Andrea C demonstrates how even the objective ___________ may be interpreted from a subjective perspective.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Combat exhaustion" is known as ________ today.
A) acute stress disorder
B) shell shock
C) PTSD
D) war neurosis
Q2) Give some reasons why political activists who were tortured may be less affected by PTSD over the long term.
Q3) Based on occupation, which of the following would have the lowest rates of PTSD following rescue work during a major disaster?
A) Waitresses comforting the injured at the medical tent
B) Construction workers trying to clear rubble
C) Teachers asked to hold bandages in place
D) Police officers removing the seriously injured from the site
Q4) The field of psychoneuroimmunology ________
A) focuses on the relationship between stress and mental illness.
B) explores the neurological basis of autoimmune conditions.
C) seeks to establish a link between psychological functioning and vulnerability to illness.
D) examines the effects of stressors on the immune system.
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic emotion that involves activation of the "fight-or-flight" response is
Q2) Discuss the findings of cross-cultural research on the anxiety disorders. Provide at least two examples of disorders that illustrate the role of culture.
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the role of cognitions in panic?
A) Panic can be prevented in a panic provocation study by explaining what will happen.
B) Panic clients are more likely to interpret bodily sensations as catastrophic events.
C) Only individuals who tend to catastrophize develop panic disorder.
D) Cognitive therapy is less effective than emotive therapy for panic disorder.
Q4) The main way to tell someone is having a panic attack rather than just in a state of fear is ________
A) whether he or she thinks about what is happening.
B) whether he or she shows physiological changes such as increased heart rate.
C) if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen.
D) if he or she feels a strong urge to flee.
Q5) Discuss the difference between fear and anxiety.
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abramson revised the learned helplessness theory to suggest that ________
A) the worldview dimension of attributions is the most important to depression.
B) hopelessness is needed to produce depression, helplessness is not important.
C) the number of negative life events someone experiences is more important than his or her attributions for those events.
D) the pessimistic attributional style people have about negative events produces depression.
Q2) According to Freud, depression ________
A) and grief are the same thing.
B) must be treated with introjection.
C) is a consequence of loss.
D) reflects fixation in the anal stage.
Q3) What are the warning signs of student suicide in college or university?
Q4) Bipolar disorder is to major depression as ________ is to ________.
A) persistent depressive disorder; cyclothymia
B) cyclothymia; persistent depressive disorder
C) mania; hypomania
D) hypomania; mania
Q5) In what way do the symptoms of depression in Western and non-Western societies differ?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between malingering and factitious disorder?
Q2) ______________is the disorder in the DSM-5 used to replace hypochondriasis without somatic symptoms.
Q3) Octavia has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder (DID). She has 17 different "alters," which are strikingly different from her host personality. Some of her alters are not full personalities, but fragments and memories. Some of the alters are children. What aspect of this case is unusual?
A) It is unusual for a person with DID to have seventeen alters.
B) It is unusual for a person with DID to have alters that are very different from the host personality.
C) It is unusual for a person with DID to have fragmentary alters.
D) No aspect of this case is unusual.
Q4) Jeremy suffers from dissociative amnesia. He probably ________
A) remembers only events from the past and does not remember skills he learned more recently.
B) can perform only simple tasks, regardless of the complex work that he was able to do previously.
C) is able to recognize close friends and relatives but not acquaintances.
D) had trouble remembering information stored before a traumatic incident.
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________ is the most effective long-term treatment for people who are morbidly obese.
Q2) According to set-point theory ________
A) anorexics have successfully adjusted their bodies to a new lower set-point.
B) hunger serves to maintain the body at its established set-point.
C) behavioral means of altering body weight can never overcome the body's ability to compensate physiologically.
D) the body weight that is maintained in the absence of dieting is the one at which health is maximized.
Q3) Why is the term "anorexia nervosa" a misnomer?
Q4) What is unique about binge-eating disorder (BED) as compared to the eating disorders currently found in the DSM?
A) Those with BED are commonly of normal body weight.
B) The patient age is usually older.
C) It develops earlier in life than other eating disorders.
D) Few of those with BED develop weight-related health problems.
Q5) How does the set-point impact eating disorders?
Q6) Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?
Q7) Discuss the risk of suicide in anorexia and bulimia.
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuroimaging studies suggest that ________ personality disorder is associated with increased amygdala activation in emotion-inducing situations.
A) antisocial
B) narcissistic
C) schizoid
D) borderline
Q2) What does the five-factor model tell us about personality disorders?
Q3) Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality?
A) Punishment
B) Relaxation
C) Self-critical thinking
D) Response-prevention training
Q4) A significant portion of the individuals with borderline personality disorder also qualify for a diagnosis of ________ at some time.
A) antisocial personality disorder
B) schizophrenia
C) a mood disorder
D) histrionic personality disorder
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central feature of alcohol amnestic disorder is ________
A) the presence of hallucinations.
B) a deep sleep, following which the individual has no memory of past events.
C) acute fear and extreme suggestibility.
D) a memory defect for recent events.
Q2) Of the following, who is most likely to be an alcoholic?
A) A woman with no criminal history
B) A woman with multiple children
C) A male with a personality disorder
D) A male with multiple children
Q3) The individual with which of the following diagnoses is most likely to also abuse alcohol?
A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Dissociative identity disorder
D) Somatization disorder
Q4) About_____________ percent of the worldwide adult population are pathological gamblers.
Q5) Why does the tension reduction hypothesis fail to explain the development of alcohol dependence?
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In DSM-5, pedophilic disorder is defined by ________
A) the age of the preferred partner.
B) the behaviors exhibited.
C) the bodily maturity of the preferred partner.
D) the legal system; pedophilic disorder is not a diagnostic category on the DSM-5.
Q2) What was unique about Freud's view of homosexuality?
Q3) Which of the following people best illustrates the most common type of pedophile?
A) Werner, who is sadistic and enjoys causing pain.
B) Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child.
C) Norman, who is bisexual, but cannot respond sexually to adult men or women.
D) Ben, who has low self-esteem and fantasizes about being dominated by others in sexual relationships.
Q4) The________ theory, which developed in the 1750s, centered on the idea that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men.
Q5) What appears to be the most important psychological factor in causing male erectile disorder?
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Social-skills training for people with schizophrenia ________
A) has been very successful in reducing symptoms.
B) is designed to teach people a trade so they can earn a living.
C) is designed to help people gain the skills they need for daily living outside the hospital.
D) is effective as a non-medication-based cure for people of schizophrenia.
Q2) People with schizophrenia may have difficulty with the form of thought-in other words, their thoughts do not make sense. The observable sign of this is ________
A) a delusion.
B) a hallucination.
C) disorganized speech.
D) disorganized behavior.
Q3) Joe has a delusional belief. When people argue with him, ________
A) he admits he could be wrong.
B) he only admits he is wrong after being shown more proof than most people would need.
C) he doesn't admit he is wrong to other people, but he admits it to himself.
D) he doesn't admit he could be wrong, no matter what proof he is shown.
Q4) The lifetime risk for schizophrenia is just under __________ percent.
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your text lists nine types of impairments that are commonly found in neuropsychological disorders. List and describe five of them.
Q2) In older people, the onset of cognitive deficits is typically________.
A) gradual
B) rapid
C) marked by hallucinations
D) marked by fluctuations in intensity
Q3) The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is ________
A) intracranial tumors.
B) severe or repeated head injury.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) drug toxicity.
Q4) Which of the following disorders is characterized by motor symptoms such as resting tremors or rigid movements?
A) AIDS
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Huntington's disease
D) Parkinson's disease
Q5) How can a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease be definitively made?
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
(Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the greatest problem that emerged when a classification system for childhood disorders was being developed?
A) The same classification system that had been developed for adults was used for children.
B) Few childhood disorders had been identified.
C) The role of parents in the development of disordered behavior was overemphasized.
D) There was a hesitancy to identify childhood disorders as parents were likely to be blamed for any diagnosis given.
Q2) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is ________
A) commonly diagnosed after age of 15.
B) more frequently diagnosed than other disorders in children and adolescents.
C) seen equally in boys and girls.
D) thought to occur in about 15 percent of school-aged children.
Q3) Functional enuresis is found in ________ of children age 15 or older.
A) 5 to 10 percent
B) 3 to 5 percent
C) 1.1 percent
D) 0.75 percent
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Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is typically ________
A) the first line of treatment for treating depression.
B) used to treat schizophrenia.
C) is only considered to treat depression after psychotherapy and medication has proven ineffective.
D) used in coordination with neurosurgery.
Q2) In Beck's cognitive therapy, an early "homework" assignment would be ________
A) learning to relax.
B) listing one's beliefs about one's competencies.
C) recording one's automatic thoughts and any associated emotional reactions.
D) intentionally facing situations that one believes are emotionally overwhelming.
Q3) Why are the SSRIs the most commonly used antidepressants today?
A) Because they only have minimal effects on dopamine, they are less likely to produce side effects.
B) They are more effective than the classic tricyclic antidepressants.
C) Their side effects are more tolerable than those of the first-generation antidepressants.
D) They are not addictive.
Q4) What are the main objectives of client-centered therapy?
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical defense strategy, to try to counteract public anger about the insanity defense, is to ________
A) portray the defendant as someone who was him- or herself a victim.
B) portray the defendant as suffering terribly from their mental illness.
C) portray the defendant as tremendously likeable.
D) portray the victim as negatively as possible.
Q2) The broadest of the insanity rules is the ________
A) M'Naughten Rule.
B) irresistible impulse rule.
C) Durham Rule.
D) Federal Insanity Defense Reform Act.
Q3) Which of the following is a sociocultural effort toward universal prevention of mental disorders?
A) Daycare.
B) Penal systems.
C) Private schools.
D) Social security.
Q4) NIOSH stands for __________ .
Q5) What is the importance of the Tarasoff case?
Q6) Discuss three of the six specific mental health risk factors in work situations. Page 19
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