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Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychology provides an overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course explores major concepts, theories, and research findings in areas such as perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will examine the biological, cognitive, and social factors influencing individual and group behavior, while gaining insight into the methods psychologists use to study the mind and behavior. By the end of the course, students will have a foundational understanding of psychologys key principles and their applications in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook Infants Children and Adolescents and MyVirtualChild 7th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Using the ______________ design, researchers observe how developmental change occurs.
A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) sequential
D) microgenetic
Answer: D
Q2) Jessica believes that development takes place in stages where children change rapidly as they step up to a new level and then change very little for a while. Jessica views development as
A) discontinuous.
B) determined by nature.
C) continuous.
D) determined by nurture.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is true about how the United States ranks on key measures of children's health and well-being?
A) The United States ranks in the top 10 on most key measures of children's health.
B) The United States ranks higher than Poland and Germany on the childhood poverty indicator.
C) The United States ranks higher than Canada in public expenditure on children's healthcare.
D) The United States does not rank well on any key measure of children's health and well-being.
Answer: D
Q2) Parent-teacher contact is more frequent in
A) small towns.
B) large cities.
C) low-SES schools.
D) small schools.
Answer: A
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Q1) During the second month of pregnancy, the A) embryo reacts to light.
B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) heart develops separate chambers.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about Rh factor incompatibility?
A) The damage caused by Rh incompatibility can be avoided if the mother receives a blood transfusion during delivery.
B) Rh-positive blood is dominant and Rh-negative blood is recessive, so the chances are good that a baby will be Rh-positive.
C) Rh-positive babies are routinely given a vaccine at birth to prevent the buildup of harmful Rh antibodies.
D) The harmful effects of Rh incompatibility can be prevented if the newborn is immediately placed on a diet low in phenylalanine.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following statements is supported by research on new parenthood?
A) After the birth of a baby, the gender roles of husband and wife generally become less traditional.
B) For most new parents, the arrival of a baby causes significant marital strain.
C) Sharing caregiving predicts greater parental happiness and sensitivity to the baby.
D) New parents in troubled marriages usually show an increase in marital satisfaction after a baby is born.
Q2) Prepared childbirth
A) includes routine use of strong pain-relieving drugs.
B) does not allow family members and friends to participate in the birth.
C) always takes place outside of a hospital setting.
D) involves techniques aimed at reducing pain and medical intervention.
Q3) ___________ doubles the risk of SIDS.
A) Placing a sleeping baby on her back
B) Prenatal abuse of drugs
C) Placing a sleeping infant on his side
D) Maternal cigarette smoking
Q4) Describe the signs that indicate that labor is near.
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Q1) By the end of the first year, a typical child's weight has ________ since birth.
A) doubled
B) tripled
C) quadrupled
D) quintupled
Q2) Throughout childhood, girls
A) are slightly taller than boys.
B) are slightly heavier than boys.
C) have a higher ratio of fat to muscle than boys.
D) have more "baby fat" than boys.
Q3) Habituation research reveals that size and shape constancy are present as early as A) the first week of life.
B) 3 months of age.
C) 6 months of age.
D) 1 year of age.
Q4) Define size and shape constancy, and explain how they contribute to infants' perception of objects.
Q5) Describe some common forms of inadequate nutrition in the United States.
Q6) Define and compare the cephalocaudal and prosimodistal trends of growth.
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Q1) Sophie used the word "open" to apply to opening a door, peeling fruit, and untying her shoelaces. This is an example of A) underextension.
B) joint attention.
C) overextension.
D) telegraphic speech.
Q2) As an alternative to infant tests, some researchers have turned to _______________ measures to assess early mental development.
A) adult IQ
B) operant learning
C) information-processing
D) classical conditioning
Q3) Recall memory
A) is not as challenging as recognition memory.
B) is the simplest form of memory.
C) involves remembering a stimulus with perceptual support.
D) improves steadily with age.
Q4) Define and describe recognition and recall. Discuss the development of recall memory.
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Q1) An important criticism of the psychoanalytic theory of attachment is that it
A) underemphasizes the importance of the mother-infant bond.
B) overemphasizes the role of the quality of the parent-child relationship.
C) ignores the internal representation of the attachment figure.
D) overemphasizes the importance of feeding in attachment.
Q2) Which of the following statements is supported by research on the stability of temperament?
A) Long-term prediction from early temperament is best achieved after age three.
B) Temperament does not develop as the child ages.
C) Most irritable infants become difficult children as they age.
D) Childhood temperament is a fairly good predictor of personality in adulthood.
Q3) Emotional expressions are well-organized and specific A) at birth.
B) by 3 months of age.
C) by the middle of the first year.
D) only after the start of the second year.
Q4) Describe the Attachment Q-Sort. Give some pros and cons of its use over the Strange Situation.
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Q5) Describe how living in a family with siblings might have an influence on a child's temperament.

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Q1) Infectious diseases like measles
A) do not occur until after age 3 throughout the world.
B) occur at about the same rate in all countries.
C) have been eradicated through mass immunization.
D) occur much earlier in developing countries than in industrialized nations.
Q2) Three-year-old Billy caught five colds during his first year in preschool. He also experiences repeated otitis media. If Billy is like other children with frequent otitis media, he may have trouble
A) attending to others' speech.
B) falling and staying asleep.
C) mastering large motor skills, such as running and climbing.
D) identifying the letters of the alphabet.
Q3) Describe the development of drawing in children in Western nations.
Q4) Which of the following is a true statement about self-help skills?
A) While young preschoolers can use a spoon well, they cannot serve themselves at mealtimes.
B) The use of child-sized eating utensils is unnecessary and inhibits fine-motor progress.
C) Between ages 4 and 5, children can dress and undress without supervision.
D) Shoe-tying skills are typically mastered in early preschool.
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Q1) When shown a LEGO structure made to look like a crayon, 3-year-old Astrid said that the object "really and truly" was a crayon. Astrid is having trouble with A) class inclusion.
B) hierarchical classification.
C) the appearance-reality distinction.
D) conservation.
Q2) Jay introduced a new ball to his 2-year-old daughter, Kandi. He said, "I'm throwing the wiffle ball to you!" He then threw the new ball to Kandi. Kandi said, "Catch, wiffle, catch!" Kandi's connection of the term "wiffle" to the ball is an example of A) overregularization.
B) syntactic bootstrapping.
C) fast mapping.
D) semantic bootstrapping.
Q3) Mr. and Mrs. Harken are looking for a developmentally appropriate early childhood program for their son Max. Describe for the Harkens what they should look for in terms of physical setting, caregiver-child ratio, teacher qualifications, and daily activities.
Q4) How are a Piagetian and Vygotskian classroom similar? How do they differ?
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Q1) One of the best ways for Johann's mom to promote peer interaction skills is for her to A) provide opportunities for Johann to play with peers.
B) avoid arranging frequent play dates that may overwhelm Johann.
C) avoid providing specific suggestions to Johann on how to interact with other children.
D) prevent Johann from interacting with children who have conflicts with Johann.
Q2) _________ is vital for successful peer relationships and overall emotional health.
A) Individualism
B) Emotional competence
C) Collectivism
D) Mental representation
Q3) At a parade, 3-year-old Kyle puts his fingers in his ears when he hears the fire trucks coming down the street. Kyle is displaying
A) scaffolding.
B) situational empathy.
C) social problem-solving.
D) emotional self-regulation.
Q4) Describe authoritative child rearing and explain what makes it effective.
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Q1) At age 6, a ball thrown by a girl travels an average speed of ____ feet per second.
A) 29
B) 39
C) 56
D) 78
Q2) Emma, age 8, can turn cartwheels, do the splits, and do handsprings. This is probably due to which two factors of growth in middle childhood?
A) ligaments not firmly attached to bones; increasing muscle strength
B) hardening of the bones; tightening of ligaments
C) muscles that are loosely attached to bones; undeveloped muscle tone
D) underdeveloped hip and knee joints; muscles that do not fully develop until adolescence
Q3) White matter
A) increases steadily throughout childhood and adolescence.
B) consists mostly of neurons and synapses.
C) begins to decline in middle childhood.
D) contains fewer myelinated nerve fibers than does gray matter.
Q4) What is malocclusion and what causes it?
Q5) List and describe common factors associated with childhood obesity.
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Q1) A major shortcoming of the componential approach is that it
A) focuses too much on cultural-bias in intelligence testing.
B) regards intelligence as entirely due to causes within the child. C) has not generated enough research.
D) does not try to uncover the underlying basis of IQ.
Q2) Mr. Selkie's classroom includes students whose desks face the front of the classroom, arranged in rows. The students are relatively passive-listening to Mr. Selkie, who is the sole authority for knowledge, rules, and decision making. Mr. Selkie does most of the talking, though students are expected to respond when called on. Mr. Selkie has a(n)
_____________ educational philosophy.
A) constructivist
B) traditional
C) authoritative
D) collectivist
Q3) On average, children in middle childhood learn about ____ new words each day.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q4) Describe Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.
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Q1) Younger children who are sexually abused frequently react
A) with generalized fearfulness.
B) by running away.
C) by attempting suicide.
D) with substance abuse.
Q2) Axel can "step into his brother's shoes" and view his own thoughts, feelings, and behavior from his brother's point of view. Axel is at the stage of ________ perspective taking.
A) undifferentiated
B) social-informational
C) self-reflective
D) third-party
Q3) Profound feelings of shame
A) motivate children to take on further challenges.
B) prompt children to exert greater effort.
C) compel children to strive for self-improvement.
D) can trigger withdrawal and depression.
Q4) How does children's self-esteem change from early to middle childhood?
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Q5) Describe the characteristics of, and explain the difference between, popular-prosocial and popular-antisocial children.
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Q1) Menarche takes place
A) after the peak of the height spurt.
B) approximately one year before the height spurt.
C) before pubic hair appears.
D) after breast growth is completed.
Q2) Teenage alcohol and drug use rates in the United States have _______ since the mid-1990s.
A) risen sharply
B) slowly increased
C) slowly decreased
D) substantially declined
Q3) __________ viewed the teenage years as a biologically based, universal "developmental disturbance."
A) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
B) Margaret Mead
C) G. Stanley Hall
D) Anna Freud
Q4) What are some characteristics of sexually active adolescents? Which children are more likely than others to engage in early and frequent teenage sexual activity?
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Q1) Twelve-year-old Alicia hears the following: "A spoon is something that can be used to stir. Suppose something is not a spoon. Can it be used to stir?" Alicia will
A) say that she needs to see the object in question.
B) be able to reason correctly after hearing the statement.
C) say "no."
D) say "only if it is a fork."
Q2) Fabian and his sister Felicity regularly play computer games that require rapid mental rotation of visual images. You would expect
A) both children to show decreased spatial abilities in school.
B) both children to show enhanced scores on spatial tasks.
C) Felicity to show enhanced spatial scores, and Fabian's scores to be unaffected.
D) Fabian to show enhanced spatial scores, and Felicity's scores to be unaffected.
Q3) Teenage slang is an example of adolescents'
A) mastery of language style.
B) poor use of grammar.
C) egocentrism.
D) capacity for second-language learning.
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Q1) Among boys who lack same-sex friends, friendships with girls are associated with A) increased aggression and antisocial behavior.
B) a higher risk of being bullied by peers.
C) increased feelings of competence.
D) greater motivation in school.
Q2) During adolescence, teenagers deidealize their parents. This contributes to A) warmer sibling ties.
B) a rise in parent-child conflict.
C) a shift from authoritative to authoritarian child rearing.
D) a decline in academic achievement.
Q3) According to Erikson, an identity crisis involves
A) questioning the values of one's society and culture.
B) experimenting with alternatives before deciding on values and goals.
C) rejecting previous identities in favor of a new vision of the self.
D) limiting one's choices and desires.
Q4) Which identity status is associated with a dogmatic, inflexible cognitive style?
A) diffusion
B) foreclosure
C) achievement
D) moratorium
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Q1) Which of the following young adults is the most likely to live independently?
A) Alan, a Caucasian American
B) Isaiah, an African American
C) Jesus, a Hispanic American
D) Tommy, a Native American
Q2) Research suggests that emerging adulthood
A) greatly speeds up identity development.
B) is a cultural construction.
C) is a time of financial independence.
D) primarily occurs in low-SES ethnic minority groups.
Q3) One criticism of the concept of emerging adulthood is
A) emerging adulthood fails to describe the experiences of most young people in industrialized nations.
B) research on emerging adulthood largely emphasizes its societal benefits.
C) at no time has adulthood in complex societies been attained at a distinct moment.
D) emerging adulthood is rapidly expanding in developing nations.
Q4) List personal attributes (cognitive, emotional, and social) and social supports that foster resilience in emerging adulthood.
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