Introduction to Psychology Solved Exam
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychology offers students a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course explores key concepts, theories, and research findings in areas such as perception, learning, memory, emotion, motivation, development, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will examine both historical and contemporary perspectives, learn about various research methods, and gain an understanding of how psychological principles are applied in everyday life. Through discussions and assignments, the course encourages critical thinking about the complex factors that influence individual and group behavior.
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Introduction to Psychology 9th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Psychology
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Q1) The field of ergonomics is also known as:
A) industrial-organizational psychology.
B) school psychology.
C) human factors.
D) artificial intelligence.
Answer: C
Q2) A behaviorist is least likely to investigate which of the following?
A) the principles of learning
B) the laws of behavior
C) experiments on animals
D) differences between conscious and unconscious thought
Answer: D
Q3) People who support the idea of free will OPPOSE the concept that
A) the mind and brain are separate entities.
B) people can sometimes change their opinions.
C) all behaviors have causes that scientists can study.
D) people have a conscious mind.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 1: A --What Is Psychology
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Q1) The research field of ____________________ and ____________________ studies how behavior depends on the outcomes of past behaviors and current motivations. or
Answer: learning, motivation motivation, learning
Q2) An ____________________ psychologist would be most interested in studying built-in behavior tendencies that serve adaptive functions?
Answer: evolutionary
Q3) Studying the effects that others' expectations have on a person's behavior is a question that is most likely to be studied by a social psychologist. A)True B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A type of psychologist known as a ____________________, attempts to facilitate the operation of machinery so that ordinary people can use it efficiently and safely.
Answer: human factors specialist
Q5) When most people think of psychologists, they think of ____________________. Answer: clinical psychologists
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Chapter 2: Scientific Methods in Psychology
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Q1) To test the effect of an informal atmosphere on class performance, Professor Hall dresses in shorts and bare feet for his morning class and in conventional clothing for his afternoon class. He then counts the number of "intelligent questions" in each class and reports more in the class for which he wore shorts. What are the two things wrong with this experiment?
A) lack of random assignment and lack of blind observations
B) differential survival and lack of an independent variable
C) lack of blind observations and lack of a dependent variable
D) lack of random assignment and lack of an independent variable
Answer: A
Q2) An experimenter announces, "This is an experiment on hypnosis." Although the experimenter does not actually hypnotize anyone, most of the participants behave the way they believe hypnotized people do. These results are an apparent example of the effects of
A) demand characteristics.
B) an illusory correlation.
C) random assignment.
D) experimenter bias.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 2: A--Scientific Methods in Psychology
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Q1) A falsifiable theory is a theory that scientists have tested and proved to be false. A)True B)False
Q2) To say that a theory is ____________________ is to say that it makes simple, acceptable assumptions.
Q3) Statements about a large population based on an inference from a small sample, is called ____________________.
Q4) Sometimes an inert pill is given to experimental participants, but they are told that the pill is effective. This pill is called a ____________________.
Q5) The ____________________ is a measurement of the amount of variation among scores in a normal distribution.
Q6) Before conducting any experiment on humans, a psychological investigator must obtain ____________________.
Q7) An operational definition for hunger is the number of hours since the person last ate a meal.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 3: Biological Psychology
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Q1) At the synaptic level, the effects of alcohol are most similar to those of A) tranquilizers.
B) opiates.
C) marijuana.
D) cocaine.
Q2) Angela is blind and spends a great deal of her time reading Braille with her fingers. According to the research, what changes are likely in the anatomy of Angela's brain?
A) there are no changes in brain anatomy due to experience
B) the brain area in her occipital lobe will increase as she visualizes the letters
C) the brain area representing the fingers will expand
D) her overall brain will expand because of this "mental exercise"
Q3) The all-or-none law applies to
A) nervous system arousal.
B) the release of neurotransmitters.
C) whether a person has neurons or glia.
D) the sending of an action potential.
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Chapter 3: A--Biological Psychology
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Q1) Nicotine is classified as a ____________________.
Q2) Parkinson's disease can be helped by taking pills that contain ____________________.
Q3) Glia support the neurons in many ways such as by insulating them, synchronizing activity among neighboring neurons, and removing waste products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The peripheral nervous system is made up of the ____________________ nervous system, which controls muscles, and the ____________________ nervous system, which controls the organs.
Q5) Each neurotransmitter regulates one, and only one, important type of behavior. A)True B)False
Q6) Brain researchers now believe that humans grow new neurons just as routinely as new skin cells or blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ____________________ is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
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Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception
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Q1) According to the trichromatic (Young-Helmholtz) theory, we perceive green when
A) cones fire impulses at an intermediate frequency.
B) cones fire impulses at an intermediate velocity.
C) cones in the center of the retina are more active than those in the periphery.
D) the medium-wavelength cones are more active than other cones.
Q2) The blind spot of the retina is the A) center of the retina.
B) point where the optic nerve leaves the retina.
C) part of the retina that is in the shadow of the pupil.
D) border between the cone area and the rod area of the retina.
Q3) Our ability to distinguish one high-frequency sound from another-for example, 8000 Hz from 9000 Hz-depends on A) which part of the basilar membrane has hair cells with the greatest activity.
B) the frequency of action potentials produced by each axon in the auditory nerve.
C) differences in response between cells in the left ear and cells in the right ear.
D) differences in the velocity of individual action potentials of the auditory nerve.
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Chapter 4: A--Sensation and Perception
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Q1) Sound waves with greater amplitude are perceived as having a higher pitch than sound waves with lower amplitude.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because there are no receptor cells where the optic nerve leaves the retina, all people have a blind spot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Our brains use information from both the ____________________ and the ____________________ in order to help us maintain balance. or
Q4) Our perception of human faces can be explained entirely in terms of the activity of neurons known as feature detectors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Our eyes, ears, and other sensory organs are packed with ____________________, specialized cells that convert environmental energies into signals for the nervous system.
Q6) The ____________________detects the position and acceleration of the head?
Page 10
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Chapter 5: Nature, Nurture, and Human Development
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Q1) People are most likely to become emotionally upset during a midlife transition (at about age 40) if they
A) notice that they are beginning to slow down physically.
B) have already achieved their life goals and see nothing more to work toward.
C) have a large number of friends, but no single best friend.
D) had set goals early in life and then failed to work toward them.
Q2) Which of the following is generally considered to be evidence in favor of a genetic influence on behavior?
A) Adopted children resemble their adoptive parents more than they resemble their biological parents.
B) Adopted children resemble their biological parents more than they resemble their adoptive parents.
C) Dizygotic twins resemble each other more than monozygotic twins do.
D) Monozygotic twins reared together resemble each other more than monozygotic twins reared apart do.
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Chapter 5: A--Nature, Nurture, and Human Development
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Q1) Piaget called the third stage of intellectual development the sensorimotor stage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mother gives birth to a pair of twins: one boy and one girl. These twins must be dizygotic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Vygotsky, every child has a ____________________, which is the distance between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help.
Q4) Although new mothers may claim that their newborns (less than 3 days old) can recognize the sound of their voice, there is no research evidence to support this claim.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The patterns of attachment originally found in the United States have been consistently observed in every culture that has been studied.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Learning
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Q1) On the first trial of an experiment on classical conditioning, the CS elicits __________ and the UCS elicits __________.
A) no response...no response
B) the CR...no response
C) the CR...the UCR
D) no response...the UCR
Q2) Another term for the Skinner box is the A) puzzle box.
B) operant-conditioning chamber.
C) behaviorist box.
D) Pandora box.
Q3) An event that decreases the probability of a response is known as A) punishment.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) generalization.
D) disequilibrium.
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Chapter 6: A--Learning
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Q1) Pavlov paired the sound from a metronome with the presentation of food and measured the dog's salivation response. Salivation in response to the food is known as the unconditioned response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ refers to the previously established association to one stimulus blocks the formation of an association to the added stimulus.
Q3) Research on punishment suggests that increasing the length of prison sentences should effectively reduce criminal behavior such as selling illegal drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Correlational studies have found that children who are spanked tend to be more aggressive and more prone to antisocial behavior later in life compared to other children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An inborn, automatic connection between a stimulus and a response is called a (an) ____________________.
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Chapter 7: Memory
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Q1) The __________ effect is a tendency to remember the first items on a list; the __________ effect is a tendency to remember the last items.
A) recency...primacy
B) primacy...recency
C) retrograde...anterograde
D) anterograde...retrograde
Q2) In psychology, the term memory refers to,
A) generally, the retention of information.
B) specifically, the retention of facts that rarely change.
C) specifically, the retention of facts that seldom change.
D) specifically, the retention of facts that never change.
Q3) The hindsight bias refers to people's tendency to
A) overestimate their own predictions of an event after the event occurs.
B) underestimate their own predictions of an event after the event occurs.
C) remember the early items in a list better than the later items in a list.
D) devalue events that have already taken place and failed to live up to their expectations.
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Chapter 7: A--Memory
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Q1) Free recall, cued recall, recognition, and savings are all tests of explicit memory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) State-dependent memory is the tendency to remember something better if your body is in the same condition during recall as it was during the original learning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Individuals with amnesia typically have problems with ____________________ memories while ____________________ memories remain intact.
Q4) People tend to lose semantic memories more quickly and easily than they lose episodic memories.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The capacity of short-term memory for most normal adults is about seven items.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Remembering how to play the piano is an example of ____________________ memory.
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Chapter 8: Cognition and Language
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Q1) An expert chess player and a beginner look at a series of pictures of a chessboard. After each, the two people try to draw them from memory. How will their performances compare?
A) The expert will show better recall only if the pieces are arranged as they might appear in an actual game.
B) The expert and the beginner will show about equal recall, regardless of how the pieces are arranged in the pictures.
C) The expert will show a better recall, regardless of how the pieces are arranged in the pictures.
D) The expert will show better recall of one set of pieces, usually the white players, but worse recall of the other set.
Q2) Which of the following would you be most likely to find by a "preattentive" process?
A) one red object among a group of gray and white ones
B) one E among a group of Fs
C) one F among a group of Es
D) one four-leaf clover among a group of three-leaf clovers
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Chapter 8: A--Cognition and Language
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Q1) Thinking about one of the concepts shown in this figure will activate, or prime, the concepts linked to it through a process called spreading activation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tendency to answer a question differently when it is framed (phrased) differently is called the __________.
Q3) Psychologists use the term __________ to refer to your tendency to respond to or to remember some stimuli more than others at any given time.
Q4) In decision making, __________ means thoroughly considering every possibility to find the best one.
Q5) When you increase your attention to something in your visual field, the part of your visual cortex sensitive to that area becomes __________.
Q6) Cognitive psychologists conduct the majority of their research by asking subjects to describe their own thinking.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 9: Intelligence
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Q1) Which of the following would constitute the strongest evidence that a particular IQ test is biased against, say, women?
A) On the average, men get a higher score than women do on this test.
B) Women with a given IQ score get better grades in school, on the average, than men with the same IQ score.
C) The authors and distributors of the test were mostly men.
D) Women with a given IQ score get lower grades in school, on the average, than men with the same IQ score.
Q2) Sinistrella believes that the standard IQ tests are biased against left-handed people. Which of the following would support her charge?
A) It is found that all the authors of the tests were right-handed.
B) Right-handers perform significantly better on the tests than left-handers do.
C) Left-handers with a score of 100 do better in school than do right-handers with the same score.
D) Left-handers with right-handed parents get higher IQ scores than do right-handers with left-handed parents.
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Chapter 9: A--Intelligence
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Q1) Intelligence quotient (IQ) tests are used to measure an individual's probable performance in school and similar settings. Name the two most widely-used adult intelligence tests and explain the principle of adaptive testing.
Q2) One of the reasons that test makers have to repeatedly restandardize IQ tests is due to the Flynn effect. Describe the Flynn effect. What do test makers have to do with test questions to address the Flynn effect? Given the restandardizing that test-makers have to do, what would you expect to happen to your IQ test if you took the test now and again in 25 years?
Q3) The early IQ tests developed in France were modified for English speakers and became the first important IQ test in the English language. This new version was the
Q4) I administer an intelligence test and find that left-handed people score higher than right-handed people. Researchers should conclude that this test is biased against right-handed people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The British scholar who was the first to argue that a tendency toward high intelligence is hereditary was ____________________.
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Chapter 10: Consciousness
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Q1) Which of the following provides evidence that our 24-hour sleep-waking cycle is the result of a built-in mechanism?
A) some people sleep only 5-6 hours a night; others sleep 7-8 hours.
B) only a little more sleep is needed after an active day than after a busy day.
C) people who live in a near-polar region still generate close to a 24-hour cycle of sleeping and being awake.
D) people who are forced to stay awake for long periods of time develop severe health problems.
Q2) To determine whether a given individual is suffering from insomnia, which question should we ask?
A) Does the person get as much sleep as the average for other people of the same age?
B) Does the person get the same amount of sleep now as he or she did in the past?
C) Does the person get at least 20% REM sleep?
D) Does the person consistently feel tired and inefficient during the day?
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Chapter 10: A--Consciousness
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Q1) The ____________________ experience is the sense that an event is uncannily familiar.
Q2) Hypnosis can be used as a method for reducing the emotional response to pain. A)True B)False
Q3) The area of the brain known to generate the body's circadian rhythm is the ____________________.
Q4) A sleep disorder is a condition that occurs within our sleep patterns. Insomnia, sleep apnea, and narcolepsy represent three varying types of sleep disorders. Give a brief description of all three conditions.
Q5) Memories recalled under hypnosis are more accurate than ordinary memories. A)True B)False
Q6) The increased motor cortex activity prior to the start of the movement is known as the ____________________.
Q7) Bob seems to be deeply asleep, yet his brain waves resemble those of an alert, waking state. Bob is now in ____________________ sleep and just before this he was in ____________________.
Q8) ____________________ rhythms are those that last about a day.
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Chapter 11: Motivated Behaviors
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Q1) Suppose you have a choice between setting firm (no-exceptions) deadlines to finish part of your work each month, or a deadline to finish all of it at the end of the semester. What are the probable consequences of either choice?
A) On the average, you will do equally well with either choice.
B) You will probably do better work if you set the monthly deadlines.
C) You will probably do better work if your work is due only at the end of the semester.
D) Men would tend to do better with monthly deadlines, and women would tend to do better with the end-of-the-semester deadline.
Q2) Subjects in Kinsey's studies defined "excessive" masturbation as
A) more than once a day.
B) more than twice a week.
C) more than twice a month.
D) anything more than what they personally did.
Q3) The human-relations approach to job design is also called A) Theory X.
B) Theory Y.
C) Theory Z.
D) the James-Lange Theory.
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Chapter 11: A--Motivated Behaviors
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Q1) Anorexia nervosa is far more likely to occur in ____________________ than in
Q2) On the average, adult homosexual males have less testosterone than adult heterosexual males.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ controls the rate at which nutrients (such as glucose) leave the blood and enter the cells of the body.
Q4) The pancreas secretes both ____________________, which promotes the movement of nutrients out of the blood and into the cells, and ____________________, which helps to convert stored supplies back into blood glucose.
Q5) Emotional problems (such as anxiety and depression) are one of the leading causes of obesity.
A)True B)False
Q6) Motivation is the process that determines the reinforcement value of an outcome. A)True B)False
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Q7) Job satisfaction is ____________________ correlated with job performance.
Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors, Stress, and Health
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Q1) How do relaxation and exercise affect stress?
A) relaxation reduces stress, exercise increases it
B) exercise lowers stress, relaxation has no effect
C) both relaxation and exercise reduce stress
D) relaxation lowers stress, exercise has no effect
Q2) According to Schachter and Singer's theory of emotions, each emotion reflects
A) a unique state of autonomic arousal, different from the arousal that characterizes any other emotion.
B) a special pattern of neuronal activity in the cerebellum.
C) a mental experience that has nothing to do with the arousal of the autonomic nervous system.
D) an interpretation of autonomic arousal based on what we know of the situation.
Q3) An increase in the electrical conduction of the skin indicates an increase in sweating, which in turn indicates
A) increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
D) increased secretion of the hormone insulin.
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Chapter 12: A--Emotional Behaviors, Stress, and Health
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Q1) People who commit acts of violence typically score low on measures of self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychologists use physiological measurements, such as PET and fMRI scans, to determine which emotion a person is experiencing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researchers have linked violence to childhood maltreatment in combination with one form of the gene controlling the brain protein ____________________.
Q4) Not all psychologists are convinced that anger, fear, and so forth are psychological "elements." For several reasons many question whether it makes sense to talk about basic emotions at all. Describe the three arguments presented in your text that do not support the concept of "basic emotions."
Q5) Emotions are generally associated with changes in the activity of the ____________________ nervous system.
Q6) The ____________________ theory of emotions claims that the autonomic nervous system leads to emotions.
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Chapter 13: Social Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following is the best reason for why the measurement of an attitude may not correlate strongly with a particular behavior?
A) Attitudes change much more frequently than behavior changes.
B) People frequently lie about their attitudes.
C) People usually behave in a way to intentionally hide or mask their true attitudes.
D) Many variables other than attitudes also influence behavior.
Q2) The bona fide pipeline technique is used by researchers as a way to measure
A) implicit prejudice.
B) explicit prejudice.
C) internal attributions.
D) external attributions.
Q3) Wanda Wonderful finds herself in disagreement with her group of friends. Her likelihood of conforming to them
A) increases steadily as the size of the group increases.
B) has no relationship to the size of the group.
C) declines if she is outnumbered by more than 10 to 1.
D) declines if she has one ally who agrees with her.
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Chapter 13: A--Social Psychology
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Q1) Social perception and ____________________ are the processes we use to learn about others and make inferences from that information.
Q2) We want to understand why people behave as they do. One method we use is to draw inferences about their reasons. Attribution is the set of thought processes we use to assign causes to our own behavior and that of others. Define internal attribution and external attribution. Describe the three types of information that Harold Kelley proposed we rely on when deciding whether to make an internal or external attribution for behavior.
Q3) Couples that divorce within the first seven years of marriage actually begin their marriages with more love and affection than do couples that remain married.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A student learns about the results of Milgram's study of obedience and says, "Those participants were so cruel! I'm not cruel, so I would never deliver shocks to another person." This student is committing the fundamental attribution error.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Personality
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Q1) Which of the following tests asks for true or false answers?
A) MMPI
B) Rorschach Inkblot Test
C) Thematic Apperception Test
D) Progressive Matrices
Q2) Who introduced the term "inferiority complex"?
A) Carl Jung
B) Alfred Adler
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Karen Horney
Q3) An employer asks job applicants how much experience they have had at various skills, but suspects that many applicants are lying. Which of the following methods could the employer use to determine which applicants are exaggerating their experience?
A) Ask how many times the applicant has used each skill.
B) Ask applicants to take the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
C) Ask about their experience on nonexistent skills such as "matrixing solvency files."
D) Ask applicants to fill out the application while under the influence of hypnosis.
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Chapter 14: A--Personality
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Q1) When people attempt to prove that their actions are rational and justifiable and thus worthy of approval, they are using ____________________.
Q2) Attributing one's own undesirable characteristics to other people is known as projection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A psychologist discovers that almost all paranoid people say "true" to the statement "I prefer penguins to polar bears" while almost all non-paranoid people say "false." Even though there is no theory or explanation for this difference, this would be a good item for the Paranoia scale on the MMPI.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Personality states are personality characteristics that are persistent over time. A)True
B)False
Q5) Psychologists study personalities in two ways, called the nomothetic and the idiographic approaches. Discuss the difference between the nomothetic and idiographic approaches to personality.
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Chapter 15: Abnormality, Therapy, and Social Issues
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210 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these types of therapy might be used to enlist the parent's help in monitoring the eating habits of someone who has anorexia nervosa?
A) drug therapy
B) family therapy
C) eclectic therapy
D) Gestalt therapy
Q2) Which type of psychotherapy focuses more on changing what people do than on exploring what they think?
A) psychoanalysis
B) cognitive therapy
C) behavior therapy
D) humanistic therapy
Q3) In the DSM-IV, physical disorders such as diabetes or cirrhosis of the liver are listed under
A) Axis I.
B) Axis IV.
C) Axis III.
D) Axis V.
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Chapter 15: A--Abnormality, Therapy, and Social Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous which provide support for people with similar problems without using a trained therapist are ____________________ groups.
Q2) In Western cultures today, the predominant view of the etiology of abnormal behavior is the biopsychosocial model, which emphasizes that abnormal behavior has three major aspects. Briefly describe the three components of the biopsychosocial model.
Q3) ____________________ focuses on reducing the incongruence between a person's self-concept and their ideal self.
Q4) While there are hundreds of types of therapy available across the world, there are five specific types highlighted in your chapter. These include; psychoanalysis, cognitive therapy, humanistic therapy, behavior therapy, and family system therapy. In terms of behavior therapy and cognitive therapy, describe the theory of what causes the psychological disorder, the goal of treatment and the role of the therapist for both types of therapy.
Q5) The predominant view of abnormality in Western cultures today is the biopsychosocial model.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Specific Disorders and Treatments
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Q1) Systematic desensitization for a phobia begins with
A) a combination of group therapy and tranquilizing drugs.
B) trying to determine the unconscious thoughts responsible for the phobia.
C) punishing the person for any attempt to avoid the object.
D) briefly exposing the person to the object he or she fears.
Q2) Sensory experiences that do not correspond to anything in the outside world are called
A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) compulsions.
D) hallucinations.
Q3) With regard to schizophrenia, hallucinations are considered a __________ symptom and delusions are a __________ symptom.
A) positive...positive
B) positive...negative
C) negative...positive
D) negative...negative
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Chapter 16: A--Specific Disorders and Treatments
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Q1) Tom has auditory hallucinations in which he hears voices saying, "cut yourself and die." This is an example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________, which are fl uid-fi lled cavities in the brain, are larger than normal in people with schizophrenia.
Q3) One reason why phobias are so persistent is that they are related to ____________________, a kind of learning that is very resistant to extinction.
Q4) People with panic disorder (PD) have frequent periods of anxiety and occasional attacks of panic-rapid breathing, increased heart rate, chest pains, sweating, faintness, and trembling. One of the possible treatments for panic disorders is cognitive-behavioral therapy. Describe the lessons taught in cognitive-behavioral therapy in terms of panic disorders.
Q5) Some people who suffer from the seasonal affective disorder experience periods of depression during the summer months.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter Extenssion: S 1-16--Final Examination
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Q1) The EEG can be used for what purpose?
A) to measure the intelligence of people who do not speak English
B) to distinguish among stages of sleep
C) to compare an individual's personality to group norms
D) to test a person's ability at pitch perception
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a sleep disorder?
A) dystomnia
B) insomnia
C) apnea
D) narcolepsy
Q3) Korsakoff's syndrome, a disorder characterized by memory loss and brain damage, is associated with a history of A) depression.
B) anorexia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) alcohol abuse.
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