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Introduction to Psychology explores the scientific study of behavior and mental processes, providing students with a foundational understanding of the key concepts, theories, and research methods used in the field. The course covers a broad range of topics, including perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, development, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will also examine the biological bases of behavior and the influence of social and cultural factors. Through readings, discussions, and practical activities, learners will gain insight into how psychological principles apply to everyday life and develop critical thinking skills for analyzing human thought and behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Infants Children and Adolescents and MyVirtualChild 7th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Dr. Thigpen views development as a discontinuous, stagewise process that follows a single, unified course mapped out by nature. Dr. Thigpen's views are most aligned with which perspective?
A) Jean-Jacques Rousseau's view of the child as a noble savage
B) John Locke's view of the child as a tabula rasa
C) The Puritans' view of the child as evil and stubborn
D) Charles Darwin's view of survival of the fittest
Answer: A
Q2) One way Professor Hudgens could use the matching technique to assign the participants to the experimental conditions would be to
A) flip a coin or draw names out of a hat.
B) let the parents choose in which experimental group they would like their children to participate.
C) assign equal numbers of children with high and low parental conflict to each treatment condition.
D) let the children choose in which experimental group they would like to participate.
Answer: C
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Q1) According to the concept of genetic-environmental correlation,
A) the environments to which we are exposed determine which genes are expressed in our phenotypes.
B) our genes influence the environments to which we are exposed.
C) heredity restricts the development of some behaviors to just one or a few outcomes.
D) our genes influence how we respond to the environment.
Answer: B
Q2) ____________ strongly predicts women's preventive health behavior.
A) Age
B) Marital status
C) IQ
D) Years of schooling
Answer: D
Q3) __________ halves the number of chromosomes normally present in body cells.
A) Mitosis
B) Osmosis
C) Meiosis
D) Autosome formation
Answer: C
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Q1) During the second month of pregnancy, the A) embryo reacts to light.
B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) heart develops separate chambers.
Answer: D
Q2) During the period of the fetus, the
A) developing organism increases rapidly in size.
B) most rapid prenatal changes take place.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) brain is formed.
Answer: A
Q3) Daughters of mothers who took diethylstilbestrol to prevent miscarriages
A) were born with gross deformities of the arms and legs.
B) showed unusually high rates of vaginal cancer.
C) had abnormally high-pitched and shrill cries.
D) often developed diabetes in adulthood.
Answer: B
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Q1) SIDS victims usually
A) have normal sleep-wake patterns.
B) have normal Apgar scores.
C) show physical problems from the beginning.
D) were full-term, normal-weight newborns.
Q2) The leading cause of infant mortality between 1 week and 12 months in industrialized nations is
A) birth trauma.
B) congenital defects.
C) child abuse.
D) sudden infant death syndrome.
Q3) Which mother is a good candidate for a home delivery?
A) Heather, a healthy 43-year-old who previously had a cesarean delivery
B) Helena, a first-time mom who wants to deliver her own baby unassisted
C) Prudence, a 30-year-old second-time mom, assisted by a certified nurse-midwife
D) Donna, a fifth-time mom whose baby is in a breech position
Q4) What is "kangaroo care"? When and how is it used? What are its benefits?
Q5) Describe several strategies that couples can use to ease the transition to parenthood.
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Q1) A surprising aspect of brain growth is that
A) the neural tube produces far less neurons than the brain will need.
B) as synapses form, 20 to 80 percent of the surrounding neurons die.
C) during infancy and toddlerhood, neural fibers stagnate.
D) neurons send messages to one another through neuroimaging.
Q2) Fontanels
A) cannot be felt after four or five months.
B) prevent the brain from growing too large.
C) permit the bones to overlap during childbirth.
D) gradually close by adolescence.
Q3) Describe some common forms of inadequate nutrition in the United States.
Q4) Bulous is 20 months old and was recently weaned. He has an unbalanced diet very low in protein. Bulous has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, a skin rash, and thinning hair.
Bulous most likely has
A) iron-deficiency anemia.
B) kwashiorkor.
C) nonorganic failure to thrive.
D) marasmus.
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Q5) Using examples from the text, explain how cultural variations in infant-rearing practices affect motor development.
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Q1) Two landmark cognitive changes that take place in Substage 4 of the sensorimotor period of Piaget's theory are ________ and ________.
A) deferred imitation; animistic thinking
B) intentional behavior; object permanence
C) dual representation; intentional behavior
D) deferred imitation; object permanence
Q2) As an alternative to infant tests, some researchers have turned to _______________ measures to assess early mental development.
A) adult IQ
B) operant learning
C) information-processing
D) classical conditioning
Q3) Compare the three major theories of language development.
Q4) Around age ____, the video deficit effect declines.
A) 1½
B) 2
C) 2½
D) 3

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Q5) Describe the structure of the information-processing system.
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Q1) Parents who __________ tend to have securely attached infants and to behave sensitively toward them.
A) dismiss the importance of their early relationships
B) discuss their childhoods with objectivity and balance
C) report only positive childhood experiences
D) describe their negative childhood experiences in angry, confused ways
Q2) Babies' earliest emotional life consists of which two global arousal states?
A) happiness and sadness
B) fullness and hunger
C) attraction to pleasant stimuli and withdrawal from unpleasant stimuli
D) happiness and fear
Q3) The social smile
A) first appears during REM sleep.
B) is evoked by parent-child interaction.
C) emerges during the second week of life.
D) first appears in response to dynamic, eye-catching sights.
Q4) Describe the development of fear, noting the concepts of stranger anxiety and secure base.
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Q5) Discuss the involvement of fathers as it relates to attachment security. How do mothers and fathers differ in their caregiving?

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Q1) For most children,
A) activity in the left hemisphere increases slowly throughout early and middle childhood.
B) activity in the left hemisphere peaks between 1 and 3 years and decreases slowly.
C) the left hemisphere shows a dramatic growth spurt between ages 3 and 6.
D) activity in the right hemisphere increases dramatically between ages 2 and 6.
Q2) ________ help(s) doctors measure skeletal age.
A) Growth norms
B) X-rays of epiphyses
C) Height and weight
D) Chronological age
Q3) Between the ages of 2 and 3 years, most children learn how to
A) push a riding toy with their feet.
B) use a knife to cut soft foods.
C) tie their shoes.
D) pedal and steer a tricycle.
Q4) Discuss how sleep habits contribute to body growth in children, and explain how disrupted sleep affects cognitive functioning.
Q5) Describe strategies for preventing early otitis media.
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Q1) How are a Piagetian and Vygotskian classroom similar? How do they differ?
Q2) After a trip to the zoo, 4-year-old Jaden is able to remember the animals he saw and the context in which he saw them. This is an example of
A) scripts.
B) recognition without recall.
C) autobiographical memory.
D) overlapping-waves.
Q3) Piaget acknowledged that ___________ is our most flexible means of mental representation.
A) imagery
B) language
C) intentional behavior
D) deferred imitation
Q4) A wealth of recent research suggests that Piaget ________ preschoolers' cognitive capabilities.
A) was completely wrong about
B) vastly overestimated
C) accurately estimated
D) was partly wrong and partly right about
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Q1) A sharp reprimand or physical force to restrain or move a child is justified only when
A) reasoning is ineffective.
B) the child misbehaves repeatedly.
C) immediate obedience is necessary.
D) the parent wishes to foster long-term goals.
Q2) Inductive discipline
A) promotes only momentary compliance, not lasting changes in behavior.
B) teaches children to expect rewards for good behavior.
C) helps children see how their actions affect others.
D) often leads to high levels of self-blame among children.
Q3) Which of the following is supported by research on child abuse?
A) A single abusive personality type is a common thread among abusers
B) Most parents who were abused as children become child abusers.
C) Fathers engage in neglect more often than mothers.
D) Maternal and paternal rates of physical abuse are fairly similar.
Q4) Describe the developmental sequence of cognitive play categories. Provide examples of each.
Q5) Describe authoritative child rearing and explain what makes it effective.
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Q1) ________ percent of U.S. school-age children suffer from nocturnal enuresis, which refers to ________.
A) Twenty; nightmares
B) Ten; bedwetting during the night
C) Five; a brief period when breathing stops temporarily
D) Ten; fear of the dark
Q2) Legibility of writing gradually increases as children
A) use larger, more uniform lettering.
B) produce letters with uniform height and spacing.
C) learn to make strokes with their entire arm.
D) learn to accurately integrate two-dimensional shapes.
Q3) _________ constitutes one-sixth of the caloric intake of the average American age 2 and older.
A) Palm oil
B) Saturated fat
C) Fructose
D) Fiber
Q4) List and describe advances in four basic gross-motor capacities during middle childhood.
Q5) What is malocclusion and what causes it?
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Q1) Holly's birthday is two days before the cutoff date for kindergarten enrollment. Her parents are considering delaying her school entry by one year. They should know that research reveals that
A) there are long-term academic benefits from delaying school entry.
B) school readiness cannot be cultivated through classroom experiences.
C) there are long-term social benefits from delaying school entry.
D) younger first graders outperform same-age children a year behind them.
Q2) Rodney's first-grade teacher exclusively uses a phonics approach to teaching reading. She emphasizes decoding new words and learning the relationship between letters and sounds. With so much emphasis on basic skills, Rodney could A) become deficient in understanding the overall meaning of a passage.
B) shift from learning to read to reading to learn.
C) fail to master letter-sound correspondences.
D) decrease his fluency in decoding words.
Q3) Define emotional intelligence. How is it assessed? How can teachers promote it?
Q4) Ms. Aragon and her young son recently moved to the United States from Mexico. She is considering whether to enroll him in a bilingual education program or immerse him in an English-only school. How would you advise her?
Q5) Describe Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.
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Q1) Profound feelings of shame
A) motivate children to take on further challenges.
B) prompt children to exert greater effort.
C) compel children to strive for self-improvement.
D) can trigger withdrawal and depression.
Q2) Outcomes for sons are better when the
A) mother is the sole custodian.
B) parents equally split parenting time.
C) father has no visitation.
D) father is the custodial parent.
Q3) When working mothers enjoy their jobs and remain committed to parenting, children show
A) lower self-esteem.
B) less positive family and peer relations.
C) less gender-stereotyped beliefs.
D) poorer academic achievement.
Q4) Describe some of the consequences of child sexual abuse from early childhood to adulthood.
Q6) How does children's self-esteem change from early to middle childhood? Page 15
Q5) Discuss blended families and describe some support options available to them.
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Q1) Principal Jaster wants to reduce drug experimentation among his high school students. Describe the components of an effective drug prevention program.
Q2) ________ is a modern substitute for the physical departure of the adolescent from the home.
A) An initiation ceremony
B) A rite of passage
C) Psychological distancing
D) A cultural script
Q3) The first outward sign of puberty is
A) menarche.
B) spermarche.
C) the growth spurt.
D) the cephalocaudal trend.
Q4) Describe an effective sex education program. What key elements should be included?
Q5) Describe the secular trend in pubertal timing in industrialized nations.
Q6) Explain why adolescence is extended in industrialized nations, including the three phases of adolescence.
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Q1) Leilani thinks that she wants to be an actress or a ballerina when she grows up. Her brother Reilly wants to be a football player or a motorcycle racer. Leilani and Reilly are currently in the ________ period of vocational development.
A) fantasy
B) tentative
C) realistic
D) decisive
Q2) Many students at risk for dropping out benefit from A) remedial instruction in small classes.
B) greater emotional distance from teachers.
C) less focus on vocations and more emphasis on basic academics.
D) larger classes where they feel less "on the spot."
Q3) In elementary school,
A) girls more often blame math errors on lack of ability than boys.
B) both boys and girls view math as a "female domain."
C) girls believe they do not have to work as hard as boys in math.
D) boys regard math as less useful for their future lives than girls.
Q4) Doug has decided to find a job and not to attend college. What problem is Doug likely to face? Suggest ways to minimize or alleviate these problems.
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Q1) For the majority of adolescents, a minor brush with the law
A) does not lead to a life of antisocial behavior.
B) is an early warning of more serious problems in the future.
C) is a sign of drug abuse.
D) is usually the result of peer pressure.
Q2) ________ is/are a key theme in older adolescents' self-concepts.
A) Being smart
B) Wearing the right clothes
C) Personal possessions
D) Personal and moral standards
Q3) It is likely that Norwegian males and females score similarly on complex reasoning about care issues because
A) civic engagement is required for graduation in all Norwegian high schools.
B) Norwegian culture induces boys and men to think deeply about interpersonal obligations.
C) Norwegian females are less concerned with the ethic of care than females from other cultures.
D) most public schools incorporate a moral curriculum beginning in the elementary years.
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Q1) Nearly all U.S. young people are sexually active by age
A) 18.
B) 20.
C) 22.
D) 25.
Q2) According to your text, advances in identity occur in which three domains?
A) love, work, and worldview
B) career, financial security, and love
C) job security, financial security, and marital status
D) religiosity, spirituality, and work
Q3) Emerging adulthood
A) spans from ages 16 to 18 years old.
B) is a new transitional period extending from the late teens to the mid-twenties.
C) is evident in nonindustrialized countries.
D) is a time of certainty and focus.
Q4) List personal attributes (cognitive, emotional, and social) and social supports that foster resilience in emerging adulthood.
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