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Introduction to Psychology offers a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. This course explores key psychological concepts, including perception, learning, memory, development, personality, emotion, and psychological disorders. Students will examine the historical foundations of psychology, research methods, and major theoretical perspectives such as biological, cognitive, behavioral, and sociocultural approaches. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, the course provides a solid foundation for understanding how psychologists investigate questions about the mind, behavior, and the applications of psychological principles in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by
Laura E. Berk
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Q1) According to the __________ view of development, the difference between the immature and mature being is simply one of amount or complexity.
A) nature
B) discontinuous
C) nurture
D) continuous
Answer: D
Q2) New evidence increasingly emphasizes that __________.
A) there is very little cultural diversity in human development
B) environmental, but not personal, contexts shape development
C) development occurs in a neat, orderly sequence of stages unaffected by distinct contexts
D) people not only are affected by but also contribute to the contexts in which they develop
Answer: D
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Q1) The sperm and the ovum are sex cells, or __________.
A) autosomes
B) gametes
C) zygotes
D) phenotypes
Answer: B
Q2) A gene environment correlation is evocative when __________.
A) parents provide environments influenced by their own heredity
B) children extend their experiences beyond the immediate family
C) children actively seek environments that fit with their genetic tendencies
D) a child's heredity influences responses that strengthen the child's original style
Answer: D
Q3) A growing number of researchers regard the question of how much heredity and environment each contribute to differences among people as __________.
A) unanswerable
B) answered mainly by DNA
C) unimportant
D) answered easily with kinship studies
Answer: A
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Q1) Mothers who __________ have fewer birth complications and shorter labors.
A) choose cesarean delivery
B) give birth at home
C) are supported by a trained companion during childbirth
D) are administered epidural analgesia during childbirth
Answer: C
Q2) Before the late 1800s, childbirth in Western nations usually took place __________.
A) at home and was a family-centered event
B) at home but away from other family members
C) in a hospital with trained midwives
D) in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital
Answer: A
Q3) In mammals, including humans, the sense of smell __________.
A) will not become adultlike for several years
B) helps mothers and babies identify each other
C) is the least developed sense at birth
D) will take about four months to become adultlike
Answer: B
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Q1) The newborn's grasp reflex is first replaced by __________.
A) prereaching
B) the ulnar grasp
C) reaching
D) the pincer grasp
Q2) Terry and Ahmad plan to adopt 3-year-old Oleg, who has been living in an orphanage since birth. Terry and Ahmad should know that early, prolonged institutionalization __________.
A) fosters resilience in later childhood and adolescence
B) increases the brain's capacity to manage stress
C) leads to a decrease in size and activity in the cerebral cortex
D) has little impact on intellectual development
Q3) Brain growth is especially dramatic during __________, when the brain more than doubles in size.
A) the first year
B) the second year
C) middle childhood
D) adolescence
Q4) What influence does heredity have on physical growth?
Page 6
Q5) Explain intermodal perception and its importance to perceptual development.
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Q1) Research examining the language competence of deaf adults found that __________.
A) sign language can be learned equally well at any age
B) childhood is a sensitive period for language acquisition
C) those who learned ASL in adulthood were the most proficient
D) there is no sensitive period for language acquisition
Q2) Through the secondary circular reaction, babies __________.
A) repeat chance behaviors largely motivated by basic needs
B) repeat behaviors with variation, deliberately exploring the environment
C) suck, grasp, and look in much the same way, no matter what experiences they encounter
D) repeat interesting events in the surrounding environment that are caused by their own actions
Q3) Chomsky believed that children __________.
A) have to be taught the complex rules of sentence organization
B) discover the rules of grammar by listening to more skilled older children and adults
C) can understand and speak in a rule-oriented fashion as soon as they pick up enough words
D) can master a grammatically complex language system if they experience a highly stimulating environment
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Q1) When anxious or unhappy, Baby Meredith prefers to be comforted by her mother. Tim, her father, is concerned that Meredith will not become attached to him. What information can you provide to reassure Tim?
Q2) In a large study of 1- to 3-year-old twin pairs, parents rated __________.
A) identical twins as more alike in temperament than researchers' ratings indicated B) fraternal twins as somewhat opposite in temperament, whereas researchers rated them as moderately similar
C) identical twins as very alike in temperament, while researchers rated them as somewhat opposite
D) fraternal twins as more alike in temperament than researchers' ratings indicated
Q3) Baby Nathan is most likely to develop attachments to __________.
A) his mother only
B) a variety of familiar people
C) his father, but only when his mother is unavailable
D) any female caregivers who feed him
Q4) Describe the development of explicit self-awareness. Include discussion of the concepts of self-recognition and scale errors.
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Q1) Describe the benefits of make-believe play.
Q2) Preschoolers' first attempts to print often involve __________.
A) writing in lowercase letters
B) making a pretend grocery list
C) writing a parent's name
D) their own name
Q3) The most obvious change as children move from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in __________.
A) symbolic activity
B) private speech
C) motor activity
D) abstract thought
Q4) Pramada attends a preschool program that stresses formal academic training. As a result, Pramada is more likely to __________ than peers who attend a child-centered program.
A) show significant gains in IQ throughout her school years
B) display more stress behaviors such as wiggling and rocking
C) have better study habits in elementary school
D) prefer more challenging tasks
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Q5) Describe the benefits of watching educational television, such as Sesame Street.

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Q1) Research on corporal punishment shows that African-American and European-American parents __________.
A) consider physical punishment to be wrong
B) report meting out physical punishment differently
C) culturally disapprove of physical discipline
D) are usually highly agitated when they use physical punishment
Q2) Parents are most likely to use forceful methods of discipline when __________.
A) they want to foster long-term goals
B) very serious transgressions occur
C) immediate obedience is necessary
D) children are verbally aggressive toward others
Q3) The cognitive-developmental perspective __________.
A) focuses on how children acquire ready-made standards of good conduct from adults
B) views children as blank slates, eager to "write" information about social rules
C) regards children as active thinkers about social rules
D) holds that children are prewired with standards of good conduct
Q4) Discuss the emergence of self-esteem in early childhood. How can adults promote high self-esteem?
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Q1) Which statement is supported by research on the role of knowledge in test bias?
A) Reasoning ability, not prior knowledge, explains ethnic differences in performance.
B) Nonverbal test items, such as spatial reasoning, do not depend on learning opportunities.
C) IQ scores are not affected by specific information acquired as part of majority-culture upbringing.
D) The sheer amount of time children spend in school predicts IQ.
Q2) Which statement is true about African-American English?
A) It is a deficient form of standard American English.
B) It is a simple dialect with few governing rules.
C) Many children learn to flexibly shift between African-American English and standard English by third grade.
D) Children who continue to speak mostly African-American English generally progress quickly in reading.
Q3) How do children become bilingual? Is there a sensitive period for second-language development?
Q4) Discuss the impact of culture and schooling on the development of concrete operational thought.
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Q1) Research shows that school-age children of both sexes __________.
A) rate "masculine" occupations as having higher status than "feminine" occupations
B) are usually tolerant when boys engage in cross-gender acts
C) often feel gender-atypical but are afraid to talk about it
D) will usually reject and ridicule a tomboyish girl
Q2) Children who are high in academic self-esteem and motivation make __________ attributions, crediting their successes to __________.
A) learned-helpless; luck
B) mastery-oriented; ability
C) externally focused; effort
D) achievement-related; luck
Q3) Elementary school teachers tend to stereotype boys who display "masculine" behavior as __________.
A) lazy and troublesome
B) diligent and compliant
C) smart and competent
D) hardworking and compliant
Q4) What factors foster resilience in middle childhood?
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Q1) Ms. Diehl notices that her son has difficulty making everyday decisions and is sensitive to public criticism. She can help her son by __________.
A) making decisions for him when necessary to avoid poor choices
B) refraining from making any decisions of her own
C) speaking to him honestly both alone and in front of others
D) offering information about the likelihood of various outcomes
Q2) Students report that their __________ school teachers care less about them and are less friendly than their __________ school teachers.
A) middle and high; elementary
B) elementary and middle; high
C) elementary; middle
D) high; middle
Q3) Discuss motor development and physical activity in adolescence.
Q4) According to Piaget, 12-year-old Bula __________.
A) can "operate on operations"
B) does not yet have the capacity for abstract thinking
C) probably starts with reality when problem solving
D) cannot separate the effects of variables
Q5) Describe the sleep patterns of teenagers today. Discuss sleep deprivation.
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Q1) In response to the "Heinz dilemma," Dolph states, "Even if his wife is dying, it is still Heinz's duty as a citizen to obey the law. If everyone started breaking the law, there'd be no civilization, just crime and violence." Dolph is at which of Kohlberg's stages of moral development?
A) Stage 3, the "good boy-good girl" orientation
B) Stage 4, the social-order-maintaining orientation
C) Stage 5, the social contract orientation
D) Stage 6, the universal ethical principle orientation
Q2) Describe Carol Gilligan's theory regarding the morality of girls and women. Are her claims supported by current research?
Q3) Although 15-year-old Darnell does not yet make many independent decisions, he is relying more on himself and less on his parents for support and guidance. Darnell is developing the __________ component of adolescent autonomy.
A) behavioral
B) cognitive
C) emotional
D) ethical
Q4) Describe how sibling interactions adapt to development at adolescence.
Q5) Discuss gender differences in friendship quality in adolescence.
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Q1) At the end of the teenage years, nearly 70 percent of U.S. young people
A) report regular heavy drinking
B) have used mobile dating apps
C) have had sexual intercourse
D) report binge drinking during the past month
Q2) Which statement about the relationships among income, education, occupational status, and health in the United States is true?
A) Income, education, and occupational status show strong, continuous relationships with almost every disease and health indicator over the lifespan.
B) Improving socioeconomic conditions would do little to close ethnic gaps in health because there is no evidence that SES accounts for the white health advantage.
C) Variations in health and mortality due to SES are smaller in the United States than in other industrialized nations because poor U.S. families are financially better off.
D) In the United States, SES groups experience smaller inequalities in environmental factors that affect health, such as housing, pollution, and education.
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Q1) Discuss Robert Sternberg's triangular theory of love. Define its components, and discuss how each changes over the course of a relationship.
Q2) More people seek family therapy while parenting __________ than during any other phase of the family life cycle.
A) newborns
B) preschoolers
C) adolescents
D) young adults
Q3) Which statement about cohabitation is true?
A) Engagement at the start of cohabitation is on the rise, while cohabitation is declining.
B) Couples who marry without cohabiting are at slightly greater risk of divorce than cohabiters.
C) Trends suggest that contemporary cohabitation is more often serving as preparation for marriage.
D) Premarital cohabitation before age 25 is associated with reduced readiness to forge a committed bond.
Q4) Describe the gender differences in same-sex adult friendships.
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Q1) The __________ consists of connective tissue that gives the skin elasticity.
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) hypodermis
D) protodermis
Q2) Maria has trouble remembering where she parks her car in the large office parking lot. Her solution is to park in the same area of the parking lot every day. She is using __________ knowledge.
A) semantic
B) metacognitive
C) procedural
D) fluid
Q3) Describe the Type A behavior pattern. How does it affect health?
Q4) Which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood?
A) Unintentional injuries more than double from early to middle adulthood.
B) Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.
C) Falls resulting in bone fractures and death occur at a lower rate than in early adulthood.
D) Economic disadvantage is a weak predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife.
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Q1) Marcus, age 53, is spending a lot of time caring for his young grandson. His subordinates at work have noticed that he has become a kinder, more compassionate boss. According to Levinson, Marcus is engaged in which developmental task?
A) young-old
B) destruction-creation
C) masculinity-femininity
D) engagement-separateness
Q2) Neuroticism __________ from adolescence through middle age.
A) rises steadily
B) declines
C) increases slightly
D) does not change
Q3) __________ is the strongest predictor of frequent, face-to-face interaction with young grandchildren.
A) Living nearby
B) The age of the grandparents
C) Being the paternal grandparent
D) The quality of the parent-child relationship
Q4) What is the feminization of poverty and how does divorce contribute to it?
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Q1) Ebony, age 88, appears younger than her 77-year-old sister, Desiree. However, Desiree remains active mentally, whereas Ebony finds it difficult to complete familiar tasks. The sisters' actual competence and performance in dealing with life's challenges indicate their __________ age.
A) social
B) biological
C) functional
D) chronological
Q2) After cardiovascular disease and cancer, the most common cause of death among the aged is __________.
A) strokes
B) respiratory diseases
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) osteoporosis
Q3) Which older male has the greatest risk of vascular dementia?
A) Lance, who is from the United States
B) Dedrick, who is from Germany
C) Valter, who is from Sweden
D) Shinobu, who is from Japan
Q4) Define and describe terminal decline.
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Q1) Which statement is true about widowhood?
A) In the United States, 34 percent of men age 65 and older are widowed, compared with just 12 percent of women.
B) Widowhood rates have risen over the past several decades as divorce among aging adults have also risen.
C) Ethnic minorities with high rates of poverty and chronic disease are more likely to be widowed.
D) Aging adults have more lasting problems than younger individuals who are widowed.
Q2) Marlon, an extraverted 75-year-old, reminisces about his wife, who passed away when Marlon was 56. He enjoys reliving his relationship with his wife. Marlon engages in __________ reminiscence.
A) self-focused
B) other-focused
C) knowledge-based
D) negative-based
Q3) Describe George Vaillant's findings regarding successful aging.
Q4) Discuss the concept of gerotranscendence.
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Q1) Terminally ill patients who score higher in spiritual well-being __________.
A) are less forgiving of themselves and others
B) express less end-of-life despair
C) express a greater desire for a hastened death
D) show less acceptance of their life situation
Q2) Most terminally ill people who reach Kübler-Ross's acceptance stage __________.
A) use emotion-centered coping strategies
B) have a deep religious faith
C) do so soon after learning of their condition
D) disengage from all but a few family members
Q3) In most industrialized nations, donated organs can be removed __________.
A) during the agonal phase of death
B) when all brain activity ceases
C) when the heartbeat ceases
D) when respiration ceases
Q4) In the United States, home deaths __________.
A) occur about 40 percent of the time
B) have decreased since the 1990s
C) are more common for low-income individuals
D) have increased over the past two decades
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