Introduction to Psychology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychology provides a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. This course explores major psychological concepts, theories, and research findings in areas such as perception, learning, memory, cognition, emotion, motivation, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. Through lectures, discussions, and practical examples, students will gain insight into how psychological principles apply to everyday life and develop critical thinking skills to analyze human behavior from a scientific perspective.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Forensic Psychology Research and Application 5th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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13 Chapters
877 Verified Questions
877 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum educational requirement for psychologists is the bachelor's degree.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Compare and contrast the PsyD and PhD degree.
Answer: The PhD degree (doctor of philosophy) requires a dissertation and is well accepted in the academic world as appropriate preparation for scientists and scholars in many fields across the globe. It is regarded primarily as a research-based degree. The PsyD (doctor of psychology) is a graduate degree designed primarily for students who wish to become practitioners or clinicians rather than researchers. PsyD programs usually place strong emphasis on clinical training, while PhD programs place strong emphasis on understanding and engaging in scientific research. However, the line of demarcation between these degrees is somewhat blurred.
Q3) Which ethical issue would a psychologist be least likely to address?
A) answering the ultimate issue in a child custody evaluation
B) determining the correct medication dosage for a psychotic prisoner
C) conducting a risk assessment for a death penalty case
D) participating in a military interrogation
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Police and Public Safety Psychology
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission divides disability inquiries into two stages. These stages are ______.
A) medical and psychological
B) performance-related and health-related
C) pre-offer of employment and post offer
D) accommodating and holding
Answer: C
Q2) Define early warning systems. What does research tell us about their effectiveness?
Answer: Early warning systems are data-based management tools, usually consisting of three basic phases: (1) selection, (2) intervention, and (3) post-intervention monitoring. Preliminary research on the effectiveness of early warning systems suggests that they are effective, especially if used in combination with department-wide attempts to raise standards of performance and improve the quality of police services.
Q3) At the post-offer/pre-hire stage, a police department may make direct inquiries about disabilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Psychology of Investigations
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which individual would be the most affected by the passage of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act?
A) a suspected child sex offender
B) a suspected terrorist who is planning to board a plane
C) a job candidate applying for a job at Harris and Smith Accounting
D) a job candidate at the Federal Bureau of Investigation
Answer: C
Q2) Identify the three broad categories of investigative psychology.
Answer: The nature of offender behavior, the social psychology of group crime and terrorism, and the cognitive psychology of investigative decision-making by law enforcement investigators.
Q3) The actions and procedures an offender uses to commit a crime successfully are called a ______.
A) signature
B) modus operandi
C) perpetrator staging
D) typology
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Consulting and Testifying
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a primary difference between a lay witness and an expert witness?
A) A lay witness testifies under oath, whereas an expert witness does not.
B) A lay witness can be videotaped, whereas an expert witness cannot.
C) An expert witness can offer an opinion, whereas a lay witness cannot.
D) An expert witness must answer the ultimate issue question, whereas a lay witness does not.
Q2) Compare and contrast the Daubert standard and the Frye standard for evaluating expert testimony.
Q3) The Frye standard is referred to as ______.
A) proof of intent
B) the rejection rule
C) the general acceptance rule
D) risk of responsibility
Q4) All of the following are concerns with actuarial instruments except they ______.
A) may include legally unacceptable risk factors
B) often have a restricted definition of violence
C) focus on a small number of factors
D) are too generalizable to other contexts
Q5) Describe structured professional judgment.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Consulting With Criminal Courts
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of restoring competence in defendants is ______.
A) a combination of medication and therapy
B) community-based treatment
C) a combination of electroconvulsive therapy and antidepressants
D) involuntary civil commitment for at least 6 months
Q2) Forensic psychologists are generally advised not to include ______ in their competency reports.
A) the defendant's age
B) suggestions for restoring competency
C) diagnoses
D) results of assessment instruments
Q3) The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that the standard for determining competency to stand trial applies to all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A) pretrial proceedings
B) proceedings before a person was indicted
C) habeas corpus proceedings
D) competency to plead guilty
Q4) Research has found that many sex offenders do not suffer from a mental disorder.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Family Law and Other Forms of Civil Litigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deterring the defendant from further harmful action and discouraging others from committing similar harmful acts in the future are the main goals of ______ damages.
A) compensatory
B) exculpatory
C) punitive
D) vindictive
Q2) Explain how a forensic evaluation for mental and neurological damages is both retrospective and prospective in nature.
Q3) Knowing the nature and extent of one's property and an awareness of the nature and relationship of those who may be beneficiaries are elements of ______.
A) civil capacity
B) testamentary capacity
C) tort competence
D) litigable competence
Q4) The best interest of the child means placing the child in the least restrictive environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Development of Delinquent and Criminal Behavior
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67 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interpersonal, deviant lifestyle, and deficient affective pertain to the ______.
A) three core factors of psychopathy
B) developmental trajectory of psychopathy
C) biopsychological influences of psychopathy
D) characteristics of female juvenile psychopathy
Q2) Running away and truancy are examples of ______.
A) social delinquency
B) psychopathy
C) criminal violations
D) status offenses
Q3) Which statement about the cause of ADHD is correct?
A) The cause of ADHD is unknown.
B) ADHD is caused by exposure to toxic substances in the preschool years.
C) The cause of ADHD likely involves childhood vaccinations.
D) ADHD is caused by genetic factors.
Q4) Which theorist formulated the developmental dual systems model?
A) Terrie Moffitt
B) Laurence Steinberg
C) Robert Hare
D) Scott Lilienfeld
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Chapter 8: Psychology of Violence and Intimidation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements accurately describe multiple murderers EXCEPT ______.
A) they are more common than single-victim murderers
B) the media often sensationalizes their crimes
C) until recently, researchers assumed they were similar to single-victim offenders
D) there is sparse empirical research on multiple murderers
Q2) Data indicate that a majority of hate crimes are motivated by racial bias.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gender discrepancies in violent offending are likely due to socialization and biological factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spree murder has received the most research attention in recent years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the four violent crimes reported in the UCR.
Q6) Compare and contrast violence and aggression. Provide an example of each.
Q7) Discuss how the UCR may perpetuate racial stereotypes of criminal violence.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Psychology of Sexual Assault
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the MTC:R3, an opportunistic rapist who has demonstrated impulsivity since adolescence is classified as a ______ rapist.
A) Type 1
B) pervasively angry
C) vindictive
D) Type 2
Q2) Which substance has the strongest connection to date rape?
A) alcohol
B) caffeine
C) marijuana
D) cocaine
Q3) The pervasively angry rapist category of the MTC is further subdivided into sadistic and non-sadistic types.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Groth rapist typology is based on the presumed motivations of offenders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast the Static-99 and the SVR-20.
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Chapter 10: Forensic Psychology and the Victims of Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) The homicide rate of juveniles in the United States is low compared to other developed, industrialized nations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The greater the perceived malevolence of the murder, the higher the stress of those left behind.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Society's attempt to recover and restore a victim's financial, physical, or psychological position following a crime is called ______.
A) restitution
B) laudability
C) reparation
D) advocacy
Q4) Provide an example of how the U.S. Constitution protects the rights of suspects and defendants but not the rights of victims.
Q5) Victims of crime have only one legal venue for obtaining justice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Family Violence and Child Victimization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An assessment of the attitudes, desires, and motivations of an individual is known as special guardianship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The inability to recall events before age three is called repressed memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acquisition, storage, and retrieval are the components of ______.
A) repression
B) human memory
C) reconstructive theory
D) cognitive templates
Q4) The NISMART survey provides common behavioral and psychological characteristics of parental abductors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the two major differences between forensic evaluations for child abuse and those for elder abuse?
Q6) Discuss three limitations of human memory.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Correctional Psychology in Adult Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a group, psychopaths rarely volunteer for prison treatment programs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Canada has the highest incarceration rate of any industrialized country.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research suggests that the PCL-R has which shortcoming in the treatment of psychopaths?
A) It focuses entirely on recidivism.
B) It does not address past offending history.
C) It is designed to be scored by correctional officers.
D) It does not capture short-term reduction in psychopathic traits.
Q4) In Brown v. Plata (2011), the Supreme Court ruled that inmate mental health care had deteriorated in the state of California because of ______.
A) a lack of trained psychologists
B) an influx of violent offenders
C) increased electronic monitoring
D) prison overcrowding
Q5) Describe the mosaic of despair.
Q6) How is recidivism measured?
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Chapter 13: Juvenile Justice and Corrections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research suggests that which functional family therapist will yield the most positive results for juveniles?
A) a bilingual therapist with a doctorate degree
B) a well-trained therapist who is supervised by a PhD
C) a therapist who is the same gender as the juvenile and vested in the company
D) a therapist who is nurturing and appreciated by the juvenile
Q2) Black youths are detained at ______ times the rate of White youths.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Q3) Many juvenile facilities are lacking in ______.
A) staff who are adequately trained on mental health issues
B) caring and dedicated professionals
C) girls and minorities who display symptoms of a mental disorder
D) youth who have a history of aggressive behavior
Q4) Identify the provisions of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 that are relevant to juvenile corrections.
Q5) What do Morris Kent Jr. and Gerald Gault have in common?
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