Introduction to Psychology Final Exam - 7014 Verified Questions

Introduction to Psychology Final Exam

Course Introduction

Introduction to Psychology offers a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. Students will explore key psychological concepts, theories, and research methods while examining topics such as perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, personality, development, psychological disorders, and social behavior. The course emphasizes the relevance of psychology to everyday life and encourages critical thinking about how biological, cognitive, and social factors influence individual and group behavior. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, students will gain foundational knowledge to better understand themselves and others, as well as insights into the diverse subfields within psychology.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra

E. Hockenbury

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Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Compare and contrast psychoanalysis and behaviorism. Answer: The answer should include the following information: Psychoanalysis emphasized the role of unconscious conflicts in determining behavior and personality. The psychoanalytic theory of personality and behavior was based largely on Freud's work with patients and on insights derived from self-analysis. Freud believed that human behavior was motivated by unconscious conflicts that were almost always sexual or aggressive in nature. Past experiences, especially childhood experiences, were thought to be critical in the formation of adult personality and behavior. Freud believed that unconscious impulses were revealed in everyday life in dreams, memory blocks, slips of the tongue, and spontaneous humor. On the other hand, behaviorism rejected the emphasis on consciousness promoted by structuralism and functionalism as well as Freud's ideas about unconscious influences on behavior since they are difficult to test. For the behaviorist, consciousness and unconscious variables are not usable concepts. Instead, behaviorism believed that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on overt, observable behaviors that could be objectively measured and verified.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Psychologists following the _____ perspective have investigated the diversity of human behavior in different countries and have discovered that some well-established psychological findings are not as universal as once thought.

A)positive psychology

B)cross-cultural

C)evolutionary

D)cognitive

Answer: B

Q2) In contemporary psychology, the psychodynamic perspective, the behavioral perspective, and the humanistic perspective:

A)are often emphasized among psychologists working in the mental health field. B)are considered pseudosciences.

C)have been combined to form a new major perspective in modern psychology called comparative psychology.

D)focus on how people process and remember information, develop language, solve problems, and think.

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) The behavioral perspective of psychology focuses on how behavior is acquired through unconscious influences and early childhood experiences.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Experimental research is a research method used to demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships by purposely manipulating one factor thought to produce change in another factor.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) In one natural experiment investigating weight gain during the first year of college, it was found that female students who were assigned to dormitories with on-site dining facilities gained more weight and exercised less than students who were assigned to dormitories without food services.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) According to Psych For Your Life: Successful Study Techniques, which of the following studying strategies should you AVOID?

A)Using flashcards.

B)Taking notes on your laptop.

C)Studying while multitasking.

D)Taking notes by hand.

Q2) Which of the following statements about psychologists is true?

A)They focus exclusively on treating psychological disorders and problems.

B)They are interested in both normal and abnormal behaviors.

C)All psychologists can prescribe medication.

D)All psychologists have a doctorate in their field of study.

Q3) Psychologists who take the evolutionary perspective assume that psychological processes are:

A)subject to the principles of natural selection.

B)unconscious.

C)overt and observable.

D)dynamic and ever changing.

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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Wilhelm Wundt focused on:

A)the nature versus nurture issue and interactive dualism.

B)how brain damage contributes to mental illness.

C)fundamental psychological processes, such as mental reaction times in response to visual and auditory stimuli.

D)the effects of mental illness on families.

Q2) Of the following correlation coefficients, which represents the WEAKEST relationship between two factors or variables?

A)-)67

B)+)53

C)+)32

D)-)12

Q3) A hypothesis is a(n):

A)clearly defined independent variable.

B)theory that is supported by research evidence.

C)tentative statement that describes the relationship between two or more variables.

D)operational definition assigned to the independent variable.

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Assume that you are going to learn a challenging new skill, such as juggling or a complicated video game. According to research presented in your textbook, how long does it take for learning to transfer into structural changes in the brain?

Q2) Julian is 50 years old. He played football for over 20 years, starting in middle school. After college, he played semi-pro football until he injured his knee, which required multiple surgeries to repair. Over the course of his football career, Julian sustained repeated concussions. Julian's family has noticed that he has become increasingly anxious and depressed over the past few years. Although he was never impulsive before, Julian now gambles and goes on spending sprees-sometimes buying items that he will never use. He has difficulty remembering important dates, complains that he can't concentrate, and he becomes angry when distracted as he struggles to sustain his attention for more than a few minutes. According to the In Focus Box: Traumatic Brain Injury: From Concussions to Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy, what condition does Julian likely have? Will his doctor be able to diagnose the condition at his next physical? Why or why not?

Q3) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.

Q4) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) There are roughly _____ neurons in the human brain.

A)500,000

B)500 million

C)1 billion

D)100 billion

Q2) When President John F. Kennedy was hit by a sniper's bullet in the back of his head, he died almost instantly because the bullet destroyed the part of his brain called the _____, which controls breathing, heartbeat, and other vital body functions.

A)hippocampus

B)medulla

C)amygdala

D)thalamus

Q3) Which of the following body areas has (have) the greatest degree of representation on the primary motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex?

A)the knee

B)the face

C)the arm

D)the feet

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Experience has little or no effect on brain functioning or structures.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The field of neuroscience focuses primarily on the effects of environmental input on human behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Melatonin is a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland that plays an important role in the "let down" of milk in nursing mothers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Key structures of the limbic system include the amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, and hypothalamus.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Pituitary hormones regulate the production of other hormones by many of the glands in the endocrine system.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Psychologist and neuroscientist Roger Sperry is BEST known for:

A)his efforts to debunk the pseudoscientific claims of phrenology.

B)the discovery of neurogenesis in the adult human brain.

C)his studies on split-brain patients.

D)identifying the specific brain areas involved in different forms of aphasia.

Q2) The _____ lobe primarily control's a person's ability to plan, initiate, and carry out voluntary movements and actions.

A)frontal

B)occipital

C)parietal

D)temporal

Q3) The terms autonomic and somatic refer to the two main subdivisions of the _____ nervous system.

A)sympathetic

B)central

C)peripheral

D)parasympathetic

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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) According to your textbook, _____ is associated with increased endorphin levels.

A)nicotine addiction

B)heavy consumption of alcohol

C)muscle rigidity during aerobic exercises

D)the pain-relieving effect of acupuncture

Q2) Although _____ has been shown to be a pseudoscience, it helped introduce the idea that functions were _____ in the brain.

A)phrenology; lateralized

B)neuroscience; plastic or flexible

C)neuroscience; lateralized D)phrenology; localized

Q3) The _____ is the part of the limbic system that is involved in emotional responses and memories with a strong emotional component.

A)amygdala

B)thalamus

C)hypothalamus

D)medulla

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?

Q2) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: Vision, Experience, and the Brain, what do Mike's visual abilities reveal about the development of visual pathways in the brain?

Q3) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?

Q4) What is the blind spot and why don't we notice it under normal circumstances?

Q5) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?

Q6) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q7) Describe the series of events that culminate in visual perception including the structure of the eye and/or brain area involved in each step.

Q8) Your roommate, Ben, believes that subliminal stimuli are embedded in all forms of electronic media-movies, television shows, YouTube, commercials, and music videos. He gets upset every time he comes home and finds you watching television in the living room, as he does not want to be influenced by these messages. Is Ben correct that subliminal stimuli can affect your thoughts and behavior? Explain your answer.

Q9) How do airborne molecules result in the sensation of an odor?

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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) If your hammer, anvil, and stirrup become brittle or damaged:

A)you will probably develop nerve deafness.

B)the oval window will vibrate with greater intensity.

C)you may develop conduction deafness.

D)the hair cells in the cochlea will degenerate.

Q2) The process by which physical energy, such as light, is converted into a coded neural signal that can be transmitted to and interpreted by the brain is called:

A)transduction.

B)gate-control theory.

C)sensation.

D)the mere exposure effect.

Q3) Which of the following techniques has NOT been shown to be effective in reducing pain?

A)biofeedback

B)magnets

C)acupuncture

D)deep relaxation and imagery

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) The technical name for the sense of smell is olfaction.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Although pheromones are best understood in lower animals, there is growing evidence that pheromones can affect human behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Myopia is another name for the farsightedness that often occurs in people after the age of 40.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The loudness of a sound corresponds to the frequency of the sound wave; the higher the frequency, the louder the sound.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Psychokinesis is the supposed ability to predict the future.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Which perceptual illusions involve size constancy?

A)the moon illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion

B)the Müller-Lyer illusion and the impossible figure illusion

C)the moon illusion and the Müller-Lyer illusion

D)the carpentered-world illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion

Q2) Jack is a fervent believer in the idea that ancient astronauts colonized the Earth. After seeing an exhibit of moon rocks, Jack became convinced that one rock had traces of ancient hieroglyphics carved on its side and that another showed a crude diagram of a spaceship. The MOST likely explanation for Jack's conclusion is his:

A)use of positive self-talk.

B)perceptual set.

C)use of perceptual abilities such as aerial perspective and motion parallax.

D)extrasensory abilities.

Q3) After an injury has healed, it is possible to experience pain signals in or around the injured site. This phenomenon is called:

A)sensitization.

B)adaptation.

C)hallucination.

D)generalization.

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) The phenomenon of afterimages can be best explained by which theory?

A)frequency theory

B)place theory

C)trichromatic theory

D)opponent-process theory

Q2) Grace's aerobics instructor always starts the class with 5 minutes of warm-up exercises. First, she instructs the class to do 10 deep knee bends. Grace's ability to do knee bends without falling over involves her:

A)kinesthetic sense.

B)A-delta fibers and C fibers.

C)vestibular sense.

D)nociceptors in her inner ear.

Q3) _____ is the scientific study of paranormal phenomena and ESP.

A)Parapsychology

B)Extrasensory psychology

C)Pseudopsychology

D)Gestalt psychology

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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Describe the two categories of meditation, and discuss the general effects of meditation.

Q2) According to researcher Paul Thompson and his colleagues, MRI scans reveal significant tissue loss in the brains of chronic methamphetamine users. Which areas of the brain were most affected?

Q3) Quinn observed a carjacking a few months ago when he was leaving work. The incident occurred so fast that Quinn only has a vague recollection of what happened. He knows that the suspect was a white male and that the vehicle was a black SUV. Quinn's friend wants him to undergo hypnosis, believing that it will help enhance his memory of the incident. Is Quinn's friend correct? Explain, using research from the textbook in your answer.

Q4) What is exploding head syndrome? Is this a rare condition? Explain your answer.

Q5) What are circadian rhythms?

Q6) What is the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and what is its main function?

Q7) What are the main characteristics of narcolepsy, and how are cataplexy and sleep paralysis involved?

Q8) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?

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Q9) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.

Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Based on your text discussion, which of the following people would probably be LEAST susceptible to hypnosis?

A)Jackie, who is seven years old

B)Sam, an adult who becomes deeply absorbed when he reads books or watches movies

C)Lily, an adult who has never been hypnotized but who is very interested in trying hypnosis

D)Jeff, who scoffs at the idea of hypnosis and privately finds the idea to be rather frightening

Q2) The attempt to use hypnosis to recall or reexperience an earlier developmental period is called:

A)dissociation.

B)hypermnesia.

C)age regression.

D)posthypnotic amnesia.

Q3) Active sleep is to _____ as quiet sleep is to _____.

A)REM sleep; NREM sleep

B)parasomnia; dyssomnia

C)NREM sleep; REM sleep

D)dyssomnia; parasomnia

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Sleep terrors typically occur during stage 3 or 4 NREM sleep and last only a few seconds.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To help alleviate sleep problems it is recommended that you monitor your intake of caffeine.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Sleepsex is a parasomnia that involves abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during NREM stage 3 and 4 slow-wave sleep, including masturbation, sleepsex talking, groping or fondling their bed partner's genitals, or sexual intercourse.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sleep disorders involve serious disturbances in normal sleep patterns that cause subjective distress and interfere with a person's daytime functioning.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Techniques for focusing attention, which are found in most cultures and many religions, that induce an altered state of focused attention and heightened awareness are called:

A)stimulus control strategies.

B)imaginative suggestibility strategies.

C)hypnosis techniques.

D)meditation techniques.

Q2) Which of the following lists the CORRECT sequence of sleep stages during the first 90 minutes of sleep?

A)stage 1 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 4 NREM, REM sleep

B)REM sleep, stage 4 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 1 NREM

C)stage 1 REM, stage 2 REM, stage 3 REM, stage 4 REM, NREM

D)wakefulness, drowsiness, dreaming, deep sleep, paradoxical sleep

Q3) Which colors frequently appear in MOST people's dreams?

A)black and red

B)dark blue and emerald green

C)pastel colors

D)neon colors

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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Ava is a newborn baby. About how much time does Ava spend in REM sleep?

A)about 10 percent of her sleep time

B)less than 20 percent of her sleep time

C)about 50 percent of her sleep time

D)nearly 90 percent of her sleep time

Q2) Caffeine:

A)is the most widely used psychoactive drug in the world.

B)gets its stimulant effects by promoting the release of adenosine in the brain's prefrontal cortex.

C)achieves its stimulant effects by blocking the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

D)is the most widely used non-physically addictive drug in the world.

Q3) After traveling overseas to visit his family, Sanjay experienced _____, a condition that can occur when circadian rhythms are drastically out of synchronization with daylight and darkness.

A)jet lag

B)narcolepsy

C)insomnia

D)rebound sleep

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.

Q2) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?

Q3) Who was Edward Thorndike, and what were his contributions to the study of learning?

Q4) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.

Q5) According to your text, what was Skinner's most radical-and controversial-belief? Explain how the concept of gamification is built upon Skinner's operant conditioning principles.

Q6) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning in terms of types of behavior studied, responses conditioned, extinction processes, and cognitive and evolutionary influences on each.

Q7) Describe Martin Seligman's research on learned helplessness in dogs.

Q8) Define learning and conditioning as psychologists use the terms, and give examples of three forms of learning.

Q9) Based on Pavlov's research with dogs, describe and provide examples of the following concepts: generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, extinction, and spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning.

Page 23

Q10) Describe the famous "Little Albert" study, including the implications of the study's results.

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) In operant conditioning, reinforcement is:

A)defined as any stimulus that automatically elicits an unconditioned response (UCR).

B)defined as any stimulus that automatically elicits a conditioned response (CR).

C)defined by the effect that it produces-increasing or strengthening the occurrence of a behavior.

D)based upon behaviors that are elicited by discriminative stimuli.

Q2) The vast majority of studies on media violence and aggressive behavior:

A)are focused on adolescents.

B)are correlational.

C)conclusively demonstrate that media violence causes aggressive behavior. D)do not distinguish between passive media such as television and active media such as video games.

Q3) Behavior that is conditioned with _____ reinforcement is _____ resistant to extinction.

A)continuous; more

B)partial; less

C)no; more

D)partial; more

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) It is frequently effective to over-reinforce a problem behavior until the reinforcer loses its reinforcing value and the behavior decreases.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Acquiring a sense of control over environmental challenges is one way to begin to overcome learned helplessness.

A)True

B)False

Q3) John B. Watson rejected the definition of psychology as the scientific study of the mind in favor of a definition that emphasized the prediction and control of behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Research on taste aversions clearly shows that in order for classical conditioning to occur, the interval between the CS and the UCS can be no more than a few seconds.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) Violet is participating in a new drug trial. For the past month, she has been taking an anti-anxiety medication and reporting on her moods, stress, and levels of anxiety. According to Violet, she feels better than she has for years. Most of her anxiety is gone, and she is able to handle stress better. What Violet doesn't know is that she is actually taking a sugar pill. That is, she is not actually taking a medication for anxiety. Violet's response to this medication is called:

A)placebo tolerance.

B)an unconditioned response (UCR).

C)an operant response.

D)a placebo response or placebo effect.

Q2) According to the _____ model developed by _____, behavior is shaped and maintained by its environmental consequences.

A)classical conditioning; John B. Watson

B)cognitive; Edward Tolman

C)evolutionary; John Garcia.

D)operant conditioning; B. F. Skinner

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) "Responses followed by a satisfying effect are strengthened and likely to occur again in a particular situation, but responses followed by a dissatisfying effect are weakened and less likely to occur again in a particular situation." What principle does this statement describe?

A)biological preparedness

B)learned helplessness

C)the law of effect

D)the Premack principle

Q2) Madison met her first serious boyfriend when she was working a summer job at a café on the beach at an oceanfront resort. Years later, when Madison smells the distinctive smell of saltwater and sand, she still feels a twinge of sadness, remembering the ending of their romance at the end of the summer when they both returned to their separate colleges. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is _____ and the conditioned response is _____.

A)the smell of the ocean; sadness

B)sadness; the smell of the ocean

C)the smell of the ocean; sexual arousal

D)the smell of the ocean; memories of being a waitress at the café

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Provide a detailed description of a research study by Elizabeth Loftus that demonstrates the misinformation effect, including the results and implications of the study.

Q2) Compare and contrast maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal.

Q3) Describe two forms of the encoding specificity principle, and give an example of each.

Q4) Describe the duration and capacity of short-term memory.

Q5) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.

Q6) What is memory consolidation, and how can it be disrupted in humans?

Q7) According to the Culture and Human Behavior: Culture's Effects on Early Memories box in your text, what cultural factors likely contribute to differences in autobiographical memory?

Q8) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.

Q9) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.

Q10) How does neurological research explain some instances of déjà vu?

Page 28

Q11) How did psychologist Karl Lashley search for the engram, and why did his research fail to locate it?

Q12) Describe Hermann Ebbinghaus's research and what it demonstrated.

Q13) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) The average age for the earliest autobiographical memories reported by European American college students tended to be _____, compared to those reported by Chinese and Taiwanese college students.

A)younger

B)older

C)about the same

D)of doubtful validity

Q2) To help understand how neurons change in response to the formation of a new memory, researchers have extensively studied:

A)the sea snail Aplysia.

B)undergraduate psychology students.

C)dolphins.

D)a man known by the initials H. M.

Q3) Researchers hypothesized that cultural differences in the characteristics of earliest autobiographical memories might be related to cultural differences in:

A)gene expression.

B)neurotransmitters.

C)the sense of self.

D)moral development.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) The Focus on Neuroscience on mapping brain changes in Alzheimer's disease summarized a study that showed that brain regions that handle visual and sensory tasks were spared until the late stages of the disease.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Jake has always driven a car with a standard transmission. His new car has an automatic transmission but Jake still pushes his left foot down in search of a clutch. In this example, previously learned behavior is interfering with learning a new behavior, a process called proactive interference.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Richard Thompson proposed that memories of simple behaviors were stored in specific locations in the cerebellum.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A test with multiple-choice questions is an example of using free recall to measure long-term memory.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) A classic experiment by psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that:

A)the capacity of short-term memory is virtually limitless.

B)the schemas that people hold in a particular situation can erroneously influence the details they later remember about the situation.

C)distributed practice is superior to massed practice.

D)information is held in visual sensory memory for about half a second.

Q2) Perceiving a picture activates areas of the _____, while perceiving a sound activates areas of the _____.

A)left prefrontal cortex; right prefrontal cortex

B)visual cortex; auditory cortex

C)cerebellum; hippocampus

D)hypothalamus; cerebellum

Q3) Brain scans of Alzheimer's patients over the course of two years indicates that the disease first attacks the:

A)brain stem.

B)temporal lobes.

C)limbic system.

D)hypothalamus.

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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the "lost-in-the-mall" technique?

A)a suggestive technique that has been shown to be effective in helping people recover repressed memories of being abused or abandoned as children

B)a way of testing people's spatial memory, in which participants are led through an unfamiliar shopping mall and then they are timed as they try to locate particular stores

C)a mnemonic technique, which involves remembering a list of unrelated items by mentally imagining them at different store locations at a familiar shopping mall

D)using family members of a study participant to help induce a false memory for an event that never occurred, such as being lost in an airport as a child

Q2) Focusing on the meaning of information is called:

A)chunking.

B)clustering.

C)maintenance rehearsal.

D)elaborative rehearsal.

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?

Q2) Danica is the parent of 5-year-old Mariah. Mariah will be attending a large charter school in the fall. The school offers many classes that are taught in both English and Spanish. Danica is worried about her daughter being in both types of classes, as she believes bilingualism leads to confusion, delayed language development, learning problems, and lower intelligence. Using research presented in your text, explain why Danica's beliefs are wrong. Be sure to include the benefits of bilingual education in your answer.

Q3) According to the In Focus box, "Does a High IQ Score Predict Success in Life?" were all of Terman's gifted subjects successful? Explain your answer, comparing outcomes of the A group and the C group.

Q4) Define stereotype lift, and explain how psychological research has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q5) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q6) Discuss research evidence for and against the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

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Page 34

Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ describes a characteristic of individuals who are equally proficient in two languages.

A)Telegraphic speech

B)Syntax

C)Balanced proficiency

D)Pragmatics

Q2) Mental set is sometimes MOST likely to block insight in areas in which you are:

A)already knowledgeable or well trained.

B)a novice.

C)untrained.

D)neither knowledgeable nor trained.

Q3) A measure of general intelligence that is derived by comparing an individual's score to scores of others in the same age group is a definition of:

A)intelligence quotient(IQ).

B)mental age.

C)chronological age.

D)mental set.

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35

Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Standardization is the process of administering a test to a large, representative sample of people under uniform conditions for the purpose of establishing norms.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Comparative cognition is a field of psychology that focuses on aspects of animal behavior, including memory, problem solving, planning, and cooperation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Charles Spearman believed that a factor he called "general intelligence," or the g factor, was responsible for people's overall performance on tests of mental ability.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An algorithm is a method that always produces the correct solution when it is followed step by step.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) When a psychological test is administered to the same group of people on different occasions and it produces very similar scores for each of the participants, it is said to be:

A)reliable.

B)standardized.

C)a "culture-free" test.

D)valid.

Q2) When people need to make a decision involving a high degree of uncertainty, what techniques do they often use to estimate the probability of an event occurring?

A)the trial-and-error strategy and the additive model

B)the elimination-by-aspects model and the single-feature model

C)the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic

D)insight, intuition, mental sets, and pure guesswork

Q3) Who translated and revised Binet's intelligence test for use in the United States?

A)David Wechsler

B)Charles Spearman

C)Louis Thurstone

D)Lewis Terman

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research indicates that bilingualism may serve as a protective factor against:

A)Parkinson's disease.

B)bipolar disorder.

C)Alzheimer's disease.

D)schizophrenia.

Q2) Crissy likes to drive fast, counting on her matronly appearance and southern charm to avoid getting a speeding ticket. She believes that most speeders who get tickets are young males driving high-performance cars, so she was surprised when an officer pulled her over and gave her a $200 speeding ticket despite the fact that she had three kids with soccer balls and uniforms in the back of her SUV. Crissy was misled by the _____ in her belief that she was highly unlikely to get a speeding ticket.

A)representativeness heuristic

B)belief-bias effect

C)confirmation bias

D)availability heuristic

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion, and describe three lines of evidence in support of this approach to explaining emotion.

Q2) How does the two-factor theory differ from the cognitive appraisal theory in terms of explanation of emotion?

Q3) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.

Q4) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?

Q5) Ann wants to achieve the goal of completing a marathon. Outline how she could create and use goal intentions and implementation intentions to help achieve that goal.

Q6) Define motivation, and describe the three characteristics associated with motivation, providing an original example of each characteristic.

Q7) Describe the two brain pathways involved in triggering fear, how they differ, and their evolutionary significance.

Q8) Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion, and discuss four lines of evidence against this approach to explaining emotion.

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Page 39

Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ motivational theories emphasize the importance of psychological and cognitive factors in humans, including the motivation to strive for a positive self-concept and the realization of personal potential.

A)Humanistic

B)Incentive

C)Drive

D)Instinct

Q2) In response to fasting, undereating, or dieting, fat cells shrink and weight loss occurs. Which internal change occurs to promote eating behavior, weight gain, and restore a person's typical body weight?

A)increased cholecystokinin (CCK) activity in the brain

B)increased basal metabolic rate (BMR)

C)increased classical conditioning

D)increased neuropeptide Y (NPY) activity in the brain

Q3) Self-determination theory was developed by:

A)Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer.

B)Edward Deci and Richard Ryan.

C)William James and Carl Lange.

D)Richard Lazarus and Paul Ekman.

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Page 40

Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Maslow's most important contribution to psychology was to energize the discipline to focus on the motivations and development of psychologically healthy people.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The cafeteria diet effect is the well-documented tendency for college students to lose weight if they eat in the campus or dormitory cafeteria.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Intrinsic motivation is the desire to engage in tasks that the person finds inherently satisfying and enjoyable, novel, or optimally challenging.

A)True

B)False

Q4) More than a century after William James proposed that emotions result from feedback from the body and peripheral nervous system, PET scans showed that such internal changes are registered in the brain before people report feeling an emotion.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) According to the _____ theory of emotion, your subjective emotional experience is the direct result of physical changes in your body.

A)James-Lange

B)cognitive-appraisal

C)self-determination

D)Schachter-Singer two-factor

Q2) According to _____ theory, optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met.

A)self-determination

B)humanistic

C)self-actualization

D)psychoanalytic

Q3) In collectivistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to reflect:

A)individual goals.

B)an urge to control or influence the behavior of other people or groups.

C)increasing the success or status of one's family or group.

D)the quest for personal self-efficacy.

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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Cholecystokinin is:

A)a hormone that strongly stimulates appetite.

B)a neurotransmitter that promotes the production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland.

C)both a hormone and a neurotransmitter that increases the sensitivity of stretch receptors in the stomach, promotes satiation, and reduces or stops eating behavior.

D)a neurotransmitter manufactured throughout the brain that triggers eating behavior.

Q2) According to the _____ perspective, our ancestral heritage may influence patterns of human behavior, such as eating behavior or the expression of emotions.

A)cognitive-appraisal theory

B)evolutionary

C)anthropomorphic approach

D)evolutionary perspective

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43

Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Q2) Describe Kohlberg's theory of moral development and specify what characterizes each level and stage of his theory.

Q3) Define the terms "zygote," "chromosomes," "genes," and "DNA," and describe how they are related.

Q4) Identify the major stages of the lifespan.

Q5) How does the child who is in the concrete operational stage of development differ from the child who is in the formal operational stage of cognitive development?

Q6) Define teratogens, and list five known teratogens.

Q7) According to psychological research, what are the long-term effects of child care on attachment and development?

Q8) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.

Q9) Describe the positive effects of aerobic exercise on cognitive functioning in old age, and summarize evidence from experimental research that supports these claims.

Q10) Define epigenetics and describe the different ways that gene expression can be triggered.

Page 44

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sid is seriously ill, and his doctor has warned him that his chances of survival are not good. When Sid's wife visits him in the hospital, Sid tells her that he is feeling much better and expects to be home in a couple of days and back to work in a matter of weeks. According to Kübler-Ross's model of dying, Sid is in which stage of the dying process?

A)depression

B)denial

C)bargaining

D)anxiety

Q2) The theory that gender roles are acquired through the basic processes of learning, including reinforcement, punishment, and modeling, is called _____ theory.

A)gender schema

B)social learning

C)gender identity

D)evolutionary

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The embryonic period is the second period of prenatal development and extends from the third week through the eighth week.

A)True

B)False

Q2) DNA can be damaged by environmental factors, such as exposure to ultraviolet light, radiation, or chemical toxins, and genes can mutate, or change spontaneously, from one generation to the next.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Twelve-year-old Jason is getting taller and his voice is deepening. Jason is experiencing the development of secondary sex characteristics.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Epigenetics refers to the study of the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.

A)True

B)False

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46

Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents the CORRECT order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

A)sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational

B)preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational

C)sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

D)concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational

Q2) India has developed the skills for walking up steps. According to Figure 9.3: Milestones in Infant Motor Development, India is probably between the ages of _____ and _____ months.

A)7: 14

B)10; 13

C)11; 15

D)14; 22

Q3) According to Erik Erikson's theory, the key psychosocial task facing adolescents is:

A)identity versus role confusion.

B)industry versus inferiority.

C)generativity versus stagnation.

D)ego integrity versus despair.

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to research, when is the average range for menopause to occur?

A)late-twenties to early-thirties

B)mid-thirties to mid-forties

C)late-thirties to early-fifties

D)mid-fifties to late-sixties

Q2) According to _____, each stage of the lifespan is associated with a particular psychosocial conflict that needs to be resolved.

A)Erik Erikson

B)Sandra Bem

C)Abraham Maslow

D)Lawrence Kohlberg

Q3) During the embryonic period:

A)the zygote becomes implanted on the mother's uterine wall.

B)the fetus can move its arms, legs, mouth, and head.

C)the mother experiences quickening.

D)all of the organs and the major body systems form.

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cindy recently gave birth to her first child. She unexpectedly went into labor at a shopping mall, and had the baby before the ambulance could arrive to take her to the hospital. Cindy had to endure the pain of childbirth in a strange, stressful environment without any anesthetic. Her baby is now 3 months old, and when people ask Cindy about her birthing experience, she claims that she cannot remember most of that day. In the context of Freud's psychoanalytic theory, what is the likely cause of Cindy's lapse in memory? Will she ever remember this event in full?

Q2) What is a self-report inventory? Describe the MMPI, the CPI, and the 16PF personality tests, and explain what each one is used for.

Q3) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?

Q4) What are ego defense mechanisms? Briefly describe the defense mechanisms of repression, projection, and denial, and their influences on behavior.

Q5) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.

Q6) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.

Q7) Describe the primary themes of Alfred Adler's theory.

Q8) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) O'Higgins believes that the study of personality should focus on identifying, describing, and measuring individual differences. Dr. O'Higgins probably would identify with the _____ perspective on personality.

A)psychoanalytic

B)trait

C)humanistic

D)social cognitive

Q2) According to psychoanalyst Karen Horney, males often envy the capacity of women to bear children, which she termed:

A)womb envy.

B)penis envy.

C)neuroticism.

D)psychoticism.

Q3) According to Freud, during the genital stage of psychosexual development:

A)sexual urges are repressed.

B)incestuous sexual urges toward the opposite-sex parent resurface.

C)identification with same-sex peers occurs.

D)oral fixation occurs.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) According to Freud newborn infants are in the latency stage of psychosexual development.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Hans Eysenck, introverts have a nervous system which is more easily aroused than extraverts.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr. are best known for proposing that there are three basic dimensions of personality: introversion-extraversion, neuroticism-emotional stability, and psychoticism.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One weakness of projective tests is that the scoring is highly subjective.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The general goal of trait theorists is to identify the most basic dimensions of personality.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) The MOST widely used self-report inventory is the:

A)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, or MMPI.

B)Thematic Apperception Test, or TAT.

C)Rorschach Inkblot Test.

D)California Personality Inventory (CPI).

Q2) Eros likes to seek out stimulating environments. According to Eysenck's theory, Eros would be described as:

A)neurotic.

B)psychotic.

C)extraverted.

D)introverted.

Q3) Humanistic psychology had an especially lasting influence in the area of: A)creativity.

B)sexual fetishes.

C)intelligence.

D)criminal behavior.

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) Freud's famous technique known as _____ involved patients spontaneously reporting mental images, thoughts, and feelings as they came to mind.

A)dream interpretation

B)catharsis

C)free association

D)profiling

Q2) During the _____ stage, sexual impulses become repressed and children develop same-sex friendships and focus their attention on school and other activities.

A)anal

B)oral

C)genital

D)latency

Q3) According to Carl Rogers, the fully functioning person experiences:

A)high levels of incongruence.

B)a deep need to move toward other people as a defense against basic anxiety.

C)a superiority complex because of success in overcoming challenges and developing a high level of self-actualization.

D)congruence.

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Describe research findings on how our perception of other people is influenced by their degree of physical attractiveness.

Q2) Describe the four principles that guide person perception, and give a "real world" example of each.

Q3) Describe research findings on the use of fMRI scans of people's brains while they looked at photos of physically attractive people, and identify the brain areas that were activated. Also, identify brain areas that are responsive to the reward value of attractive faces.

Q4) Describe the physical, interpersonal, situational, and cultural factors that influence attraction and liking.

Q5) What is person perception, and what is social categorization? Describe the role that explicit and implicit cognition play in these processes.

Q6) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.

Q7) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) The Stanford Prison Experiment:

A)was conducted at Abu Ghraib prison in Baghdad, Iraq, by Stanford professor Philip Zimbardo, using American soldiers and Iraqi prisoners as research subjects.

B)used a simulated electric shock machine to demonstrate people's willingness to obey an authority figure.

C)refers to a Stanford University program that trained Army soldiers and members of the National Guard in military interrogation techniques.

D)involved Stanford University students playing the roles of prisoners and guards in a simulated prison.

Q2) The bus is fairly crowded when you get on. You make a rapid evaluation and quickly decide to sit next to a well-dressed senior citizen because you think that it will be safer to sit next to him than some of the other people on the bus. This example illustrates:

A)the effect of ethnocentrism.

B)a typical response to the stereotype threat.

C)the bystander effect.

D)the process of person perception.

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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) "That's fine, I understand that you don't want to chair the benefit committee. It is a very time-consuming job. But can I count on you as a volunteer on the day of the event?" This person appears to be using the door-in-the-face technique to persuade volunteers to help with the event.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The door-in-the-face technique occurs when a person agrees to a small favor or request and is later asked to comply with a much larger request.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Your sense of self involves your unique sense of identity that has been influenced by social, cultural, and psychological experiences.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Psychologists use the term attribution to refer to the mental process of explaining or determining the causes of someone's behavior, including our own.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) _____ is the tendency to see members of out-groups as very similar to each other.

A)Ethnocentrism

B)The out-group homogeneity effect.

C)The bystander effect.

D)A self-serving bias.

Q2) Cross-cultural research reveals that conformity:

A)tends to be higher in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.

B)tends to be lower in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.

C)is similar in both collectivist and individualistic cultures.

D)is more harmful to group harmony in collectivist than individualistic cultures.

Q3) When people feel good, successful, happy, or fortunate, they are more likely to help others. This is called:

A)diffusion of responsibility.

B)the bystander effect.

C)"feel-good, do-good."

D)a halo bias.

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) Joey and Ross were good friends. Joey was a very handsome guy, and Ross was a homely, nerdy-looking guy. Joey is likely to be perceived by other people as being _____ than Ross.

A)more intelligent, happier, and better adjusted

B)less intelligent, less happy, and less well adjusted

C)lonelier, less popular, and more socially anxious

D)more intelligent, more popular, but less happy

Q2) On numerous occasions in the past, Destiny had strongly advocated alternative energy sources and less reliance on fossil fuels. So, her friend Sara was surprised to see Destiny drive up in a large gas-guzzling SUV. Sara asked, "So, Destiny, how do you guys like your new SUV?" Without a moment's hesitation, Destiny replied, "You know, we really needed a bigger vehicle to haul the kids and all their soccer stuff around. And I sure don't have any problems fitting all the grocery sacks in the back!" Destiny's change in attitude to match her behavior reflects which of the following concepts?

A)self-serving bias

B)hindsight bias.

C)cognitive dissonance

D)diffusion of responsibility

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58

Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Identify and discuss the four strategies, described in the Psych for Your Life box, "Minimizing the Effects of Stress," that help minimize the negative effects of stress, and explain why they are helpful.

Q2) What kinds of stressors have been found to influence the effectiveness of the immune system, and what are the practical implications of these findings?

Q3) Discuss gender differences in responding to stress, contrasting the tend-and-befriend response with the fight-or-flight response.

Q4) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?

Q5) How do social isolation and diverse social networks impact health?

Q6) Health psychologists are guided by the biopsychosocial model. Explain the focus of this model.

Q7) Define telomeres, and describe how they are affected by stress.

Q8) Describe research on the contribution of daily hassles to stress for men and women. Are there gender differences in the experience of and response to daily hassles?

Q9) What is emotion-focused coping? Describe the six forms of emotion-focused coping that are summarized in your textbook.

Q10) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Anna is almost constantly negative, hostile, and anxious. Based on the psychological studies of people who display chronic negative emotions, which of the following is probably NOT TRUE of Anna?

A)Anna probably experiences more frequent and more intense daily hassles than happier people do.

B)Anna is more likely than happier people to develop a chronic disease, such as heart disease or arthritis.

C)Anna probably reacts with much greater distress to stressful events than happier people do.

D)Anna probably has a healthier immune system compared to happier people.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the fight-or-flight response?

A)increased heartbeat

B)inhibition of digestion

C)dilation of pupils

D)decreased blood flow to the muscles

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Research has demonstrated that people who experienced chronic stressors that lasted more than a month were the most likely to develop colds when exposed to a cold virus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Posttraumatic stress disorder is a disorder that involves intrusive thoughts of a traumatic event, emotional numbness, and symptoms of anxiety, such as nervousness, sleep disturbances, and irritability.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Robert Ader is known for his description of the fight-or-flight response, which involves the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The stress contagion effect refers to the stress that results from the pressure of adapting to a new culture.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Psychologist Janice Kiecolt-Glaser is known for:

A)describing the endocrine system pathways involved in response to chronic stress.

B)research demonstrating that even minor stressors, such as taking exams, can reduce the effectiveness of immune system functioning.

C)explaining why women exhibit the "tend-and-befriend" response rather than the "fight-or-flight" response when threatened.

D)her research on classically conditioning the immune system, which helped establish the interdisciplinary field of psychoneuroimmunology.

Q2) _____ is to acute stress as _____ is to prolonged stress.

A)The fight-or-flight response; the general adaptation syndrome

B)The general adaptation syndrome; the fight-or-flight response

C)Psychoneuroimmunology; health psychology

D)Health psychology; psychoneuroimmunology

Q3) The MOST damaging component of the Type A behavior pattern appears to be:

A)time urgency and impatience.

B)lack of personal control.

C)hostility.

D)competitiveness.

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) The discovery that the immune system could be affected by psychological processes, such as classical conditioning, launched the field of:

A)health psychology.

B)psychoneuroimmunology.

C)immunology.

D)microaggressions.

Q2) Gertrud participated in a research study at her nursing home where she was given many choices over her daily activities, including what to eat, which activities to attend, and so forth. According to research by Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer, Gertrud is likely to:

A)become ill because of the increased stress associated with having to make so many decisions.

B)be healthier than nursing-home residents in a matched control group who were not given the opportunity to make choices about their daily activities.

C)change her coping style from emotion focused to problem focused.

D)suffer from stress contagion effect because of difficulties adapting to her new living conditions.

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Describe the learning principles involved in the development of some phobias, including the role of biological preparedness. Include "real world" examples for each.

Q2) Define major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and describe the similarities and differences between these three disorders.

Q3) Describe the Finnish Adoptive Family Study of Schizophrenia and the implications of its findings.

Q4) Identify the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic attacks, panic disorder, and explain how agoraphobia is related to panic disorder.

Q5) What symptoms characterize bipolar disorder?

Q6) What evidence is there to support, and to contradict, the dopamine hypothesis as an explanation of schizophrenia?

Q7) What was the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R)? What did it reveal about past-year and lifetime occurrence of symptoms of any psychological disorders, and how do these rates compare to common perceptions about the prevalence of psychological disorders?

Q8) What can a person do to help someone who expresses suicidal intentions?

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) For the third time in two months, Erica's husband rushed her to the hospital emergency room because Erica thought she was having a heart attack. Her symptoms included a racing, pounding heart, weakness, feeling faint, and feeling as if she were unable to breathe. Although her doctor says she is physically healthy, Erica lives in fear of another attack. Erica is most likely suffering from which psychological disorder?

A)specific phobia

B)panic disorder

C)generalized anxiety disorder

D)obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q2) After not seeing Rita for almost a week, a neighbor went to check on her. He discovered that Rita had barricaded all the doors and windows in her apartment because she believed that "terrorist forces" were going to attack her and her three cats.

Rita appears to be suffering from:

A)visual hallucinations.

B)delusions of persecution.

C)delusions of reference.

D)avolition.

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Compared with normal feelings of anxiety, pathological anxiety is irrational, uncontrollable, and disrupts everyday functioning.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When anxiety alerts a person to a realistic threat, it is normal and adaptive.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to the findings of the National Comorbidity Study Replication (NCS-R), most people with a psychological disorder manage to weather the symptoms of the disorder without becoming completely debilitated and without the need for professional intervention.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Pyromania is characterized by the urge to set fires for pleasure, gratification, or relief of tension.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) The DSM-5:

A)describes the symptoms and diagnostic guidelines for more than 260 specific psychological disorders.

B)is a widely used psychological test that measures a person's level of psychological distress.

C)is an annual publication of the World Health Organization that contains mortality and suicide statistics associated with different mental disorders.

D)explains what psychological disorders are, what causes them, and how to cure them.

Q2) Agoraphobia is a type of specific phobia characterized by the intense fear of: A)open spaces.

B)having a panic attack in a situation in which the person would be unable to escape or get help.

C)being embarrassed, judged, or critically evaluated.

D)embarrassing, offending, or insulting other people because of personal factors, such as smell, facial expressions, or body language.

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Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to research presented in Critical Thinking: Are People with a Mental Illness as Violent as the Media Portray Them?, an analysis of U.S. television shows reveals that:

A)although 5 percent of "normal" television characters are murderers, 20 percent of the mentally ill characters are killers.

B)in most cases, television characters accurately depict the behavior of the mentally ill.

C)although 10 percent of "normal" television characters are murders, 40 percent of the mentally ill characters are killers.

D)25 percent of "normal" characters are violent, but only 2 percent of characters labeled mentally ill are murderers.

Q2) Research indicates that _____ occur(s) more often among creative writers and artists than among the general population.

A)depressive and bipolar disorders

B)personality disorders

C)schizophrenia

D)kleptomania and pyromania

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) What are some of the important points that someone should keep in mind if he or she is considering psychotherapy?

Q2) How are the operant conditioning procedures of positive reinforcement and extinction used to modify behaviors?

Q3) According to Carl Rogers, what therapeutic conditions foster change in the therapy client, and why?

Q4) Compare and contrast the therapeutic use of the token economy and contingency management programs.

Q5) Compare and contrast the basic assumptions of psychoanalysis and client-centered therapy.

Q6) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?

Q7) What roles do self-help groups play in helping people with psychological problems? Give an example of a self-help group and describe how it works.

Q8) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) Mackenzie has just started psychotherapy. If Mackenzie is typical of most psychotherapy clients, she should expect to notice significant progress:

A)immediately.

B)after a few months of weekly sessions.

C)after a year of weekly sessions.

D)after two to three years of weekly sessions.

Q2) According to Freud, dream images, memory lapses, inadvertent slips of the tongue, and accidents:

A)are inconsequential side effects experienced by a small percentage of patients undergoing psychoanalysis.

B)can be eliminated with counterconditioning.

C)provide glimpses of unconscious conflicts.

D)are only important during the early stages of psychoanalysis.

Q3) Drugs that diminish psychotic symptoms are called:

A)antidepressants or antidelusionary medications.

B)antipsychotic medications or neuroleptic medications.

C)benzodiazepines or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

D)inhibitor medications or tranquilizers.

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) The use of ECT (electroconvulsive therapy) for major depressive disorder has increased greatly since the 1960s and 1970s and is now available in most major metropolitan areas in the United States.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The process of systematic desensitization involves pairing deep relaxation with imagining a progression of specific anxiety-provoking scenes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to Carl Rogers, change occurs in psychotherapy when the person's self-concept becomes less distorted in the therapeutic atmosphere of unconditional positive regard, genuineness, and empathic understanding.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Benzodiazepines used to go by the name "tranquilizers" because they calm jittery feelings, relax the muscles, and promote sleep.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) When he goes to graduate school, Darrin would like to do research that might help overcome the trial-and-error nature of prescribing psychotropic medications. He is excited by a new field of study, called _____, which is concerned with how genes influence an individual's response to drugs.

A)psychopharmacology

B)contingency management

C)psychoneuroleptics

D)pharmacogenetics

Q2) You are thinking about entering psychotherapy. It is reasonable for you to expect that your therapist will:

A)share your private thoughts and feelings with other clients and therapists.

B)always support your position.

C)make your decisions for you.

D)challenge how you think and act.

Q3) _____ therapy was originally developed to treat major depressive disorder.

A)Behavioral

B)Interpersonal

C)Humanistic

D)Cognitive

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Zink is a clinical psychologist. Zink explains to his patient, Dave, that the reason Dave is so prone to panic attacks after he walks up three flights of stairs is that Dave is oversensitive to sensations of physical arousal and tends to irrationally distort the meaning of these sensations as calamitous or disastrous. From reading the chapter, you know that Dr. Zink is actually describing the _____ of panic disorder to Dave.

A)abnormal brain chemistry explanation

B)catastrophic cognitions theory

C)biosocial developmental model

D)triple vulnerabilities model

Q2) _____ personality disorder involves exaggerated, overly dramatic expression of emotions and attention-seeking behavior that often includes sexually seductive or provocative behaviors.

A)Antisocial

B)Histrionic

C)Dependent

D)Narcissistic

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