Introduction to Psychology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Introduction to Psychology explores the fundamental principles, theories, and methods that underlie the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. This course introduces students to key topics such as perception, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interaction. Students will examine the biological, cognitive, and sociocultural factors that influence individual and group behavior, and will gain insight into how psychologists conduct research and apply their findings to real-world situations. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students will develop a foundational understanding of psychology and its relevance to everyday life.
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Life Span Development 15th Edition by John W Santrock
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Influences that generally affect a generation (for example,the effect of the Vietnam war on the baby boomers)are considered _____ influences.
A) nonnormative multidirectional
B) normative age-graded
C) nonnormative age-graded
D) normative history-graded
Answer: D
Q2) The 35-year-old grandmother,the 65-year-old father of a preschooler,the 15-year old surgeon,and the 70-year-old student,all serve to illustrate that:
A) old assumptions about the proper timing of life events no longer govern our lives.
B) developmental age is becoming increasingly irrelevant.
C) chronological age is becoming a more accurate predictor of life events in our society.
D) biological age is becoming increasingly relevant.
Answer: A
Q3) Which theorist proposed eight psychosocial stages of development?
Answer: Erik Erikson
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Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings
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Q1) Summer and Clark are considering undergoing fertility treatments.What is one of the main risk factors that the couple must be aware of while weighing their options?
A) High birth weight in babies conceived through such treatments.
B) An increase in the possibility of multiple births when such treatments are used.
C) Negative psychological impact on children conceived through such treatments.
D) Significant differences in developmental outcomes for children conceived through such treatments.
Answer: B
Q2) A fertilized human egg cannot grow into a crocodile,duck,or fish specifically because of:
A) social influence.
B) environmental influence.
C) adaptive behavior.
D) genetic code.
Answer: D
Q3) What is a complex molecule,with a double helix shape,that contains genetic information?
Answer: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Q1) A strategy that can help to prevent neural tube defects is for women to take:
A) food rich in vitamin C.
B) adequate amounts of the vitamin B folic acid.
C) medication for diabetes.
D) food that is not contaminated with mercury.
Answer: B
Q2) Bronwyn is interested in using non-medical techniques to assist her in dealing with pain during childbirth.Based on the text and class discussion,what are the two best options available to her and why?
Answer: Some new nonmedicated techniques used to reduce stress and pain during childbirth are waterbirth,massage,acupuncture,hypnosis,and music therapy.
Q3) T.Berry Brazelton,along with Barry Lester and Edward Tronick,developed the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS)specifically to assess:
A) a normal,healthy infant.
B) the "at-risk" infant.
C) the newborn's ability to cope with the new environment.
D) adolescents between the ages of 10 and 18.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Physical Development in Infancy
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Q1) Mauricio takes his baby to the doctor for a one-month check-up.His doctor does a test where he presents an object or a sound and checks if baby turns his head towards it.What response is the doctor testing?
Q2) One day when Mark was crawling around,he fell down the stairs.After the doctor examined him,Mark's parents learned that he had damaged the parietal lobe.Mark's parents were told to expect that he would have difficulty with:
A) registering spatial locations.
B) processing auditory information.
C) vision.
D) initiating movement.
Q3) Identify the nerve cell that handles information processing in the brain.
Q4) _____ occurs when information interacts with sensory receptors-the eyes,ears,tongue,nostrils,and skin.
A) Sensation
B) Perception
C) Reception
D) Transition
Q5) List five benefits that a child receives from breast feeding.
Q6) List the four lobes of the brain and briefly describe their functions.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) Attention in the first year of life is dominated by a(n)_____ process that involves directing attention to potentially important locations in the environment,that is,"where," and recognizing objects and their features,that is,"what."
A) orienting/tracking
B) sustained/focused attention
C) habituation/dishabituation
D) orienting/investigative
Q2) According to the Bayley mental scale,by _____ of age,the infant should be able to inhibit behavior when commanded to do so,imitate words the examiner says,and respond to simple requests.
A) 10 weeks
B) 6 months
C) 12 weeks
D) 12 months
Q3) Define schemes.What are the processes of accommodation and assimilation? How are they related to schemes?
Q4) Shelby babbles using the sounds "ba,ba,ba" or "ch,ch,ch." These basic units of sound that our language is composed of are known as _____.
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Chapter 6: Socioemotional Development in Infancy
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Q1) List & describe the three types of temperament as classified by Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas.Provide examples of how a baby with each type might respond to meeting a new person in a new situation.
Q2) An inhibited temperament has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) low thyroxine level.
B) stable heart rate.
C) high level of the hormone cortisol.
D) high activity in the right frontal lobe of the brain.
Q3) Especially in infancy,emotions play important roles in:
A) independence.
B) reciprocal socialization.
C) sensation.
D) behavioral organization.
Q4) _____,a mammalian hormone that also acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain,is released during breast feeding and by contact and warmth.
A) Adrenaline
B) Oxytocin
C) Vasopressin
D) Estrogen
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following was cited by Zigler and his colleagues supporting universal preschool in the United States?
A) It is more important to improve preschool education for young children who are disadvantaged rather than funding preschool education for all 4-year-old children.
B) The quality of inner-city schools has often been found to be questionable.
C) Research has proven that the gains attributed to preschool and kindergarten education are often overstated.
D) Universal preschool would bring billions of dollars of cost savings because of a diminished need for remedial and justice services.
Q2) The poor are the majority in nearly one of every _____ nations of the world.
A) five
B) ten
C) two
D) eight
Q3) Describe two reasons for developmental changes in memory span.
Q4) Briefly describe what is meant by a child's theory of mind? How are false-beliefs tasks useful in assessing the theory of mind?
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Chapter 8: Socioemotional Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Cultures around the world tend to give mothers and fathers different roles in parenting.Describe the different socializing strategies that mothers and fathers use in raising their children.
Q2) Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky considered play to be valuable because:
A) it helps children release tension.
B) it advances the child's cognitive development.
C) it helps children satisfy their need for mastery over their environment. D) it allows children to interact with their peers.
Q3) What is the term for the support that parents provide one another in jointly raising a child?
Q4) Explain Eric Erikson's stage of initiative versus guilt.Provide an example of initiative and an example of guilt as it is used by Erikson.
Q5) What is the parenting technique for handling misbehavior in children that is characterized by removing the child from a setting that offers positive reinforcement.
Q6) Which theorist stated that the psychological stage of childhood was "initiative versus guilt"?
Q7) Why are young children's self-descriptions typically unrealistically positive?
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle and
Late Childhood
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Q1) Terrence has a learning disability that involves difficulty in math computation.This disability is also known as a developmental arithmetic disorder.Identify Terrence's condition.
A) ADHD
B) Dysgraphia
C) ASD D) Dyscalculia
Q2) Which of the following statements represents the current thinking among increasing numbers of experts in the field of reading?
A) Direct instruction in the whole-language approach is a key aspect of learning to read.
B) Direct instruction in phonics is a key aspect of learning to read.
C) The whole-language approach and the phonics approach are equally effective in teaching children to read.
D) The morphological approach has been shown to be the best way to teach reading.
Q3) Is giftedness a product of heredity or environment? Give one example.
Q4) Tabitha has a learning disability that involves a severe impairment in her ability to read and spell.She most likely has _____.
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Chapter 10: Socioemotional Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following statements about perspective taking is NOT true?
A) In middle and late childhood,children show a decrease in perspective-taking.
B) In middle and late childhood,children show an increase in perspective-taking.
C) Perspective taking has been linked to both prosocial and antisocial behaviors.
D) Children exhibit cognitive inhibition when engaging in perspective-taking.
Q2) Which of the following stages of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is characterized by moral judgments based on understanding the social order,law,justice,and duty?
A) Individualism,instrumental purpose,and exchange
B) Social systems morality
C) Universal ethical principles
D) Social contract or utility and individual rights
Q3) Many of today's children grow up receiving praise for mediocre or even poor performance.What could be a possible consequence of this practice?
A) They tend to undervalue the rewards that aggression can bring.
B) The increased self-esteem produces better school performance.
C) They are increasingly prone to develop antisocial actions.
D) They may have difficulty handling competition and criticism.
Q4) How do schools in low-income areas compare with those in high-income areas?
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) What role does the top-dog phenomenon play when adolescents make the transition to middle or to junior high school?
Q2) The peak rate of pubertal change occurs at _____ years for girls and _____ years for boys.
A) 13; 14½
B) 12½; 11½
C) 11½; 13½
D) 10½; 13
Q3) _____ is the illicit drug most widely used in the United States,and its use by adolescents increased from 2008 to 2013.
A) Heroin
B) Cocaine
C) Marijuana
D) MDMA
Q4) For the majority of teens,adolescence is marked by:
A) stress and storm.
B) delinquency.
C) a healthy self-image.
D) low self-esteem.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Q1) What determines an individual's identity status according to James Marcia?
Q2) The double disadvantage suffered by ethnic minority adolescents consists of:
A) the lack of clear rites of passage.
B) diversity and difference.
C) prejudice and poverty.
D) hostility and assimilation.
Q3) Which status of identity would be most closely linked to an authoritarian style of parenting?
Q4) Reggie,16,gets into a lot of arguments with his parents.Going by what is generally observed about parent-adolescent conflict,it is likely that most of the arguments center around:
A) whether Reggie uses drugs.
B) Reggie's delinquent behavior.
C) Reggie's alcoholism.
D) everyday events of family life.
Q5) Is there any gender difference in the incidence of adolescent depression? What accounts for this gender difference?
Q6) In what circumstances are adolescents likely to feel more comfortable disclosing information to their parents?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the benefits of exercise is TRUE?
A) About 50 percent of adults get the recommended levels of physical activity.
B) Exercise can be as effective in reducing depression as psychotherapy.
C) Only intense physical activities will produce important physical gains.
D) Exercise has little impact on self-concept and in reducing anxiety.
Q2) Which of the following athletes would be most likely to peak the earliest?
A) Golfer
B) Swimmer
C) Marathon runner
D) Baseball player
Q3) About _____ college men admit to forcing sexual activity.
A) a quarter of
B) 3 in 4
C) 1 in 10
D) half of
Q4) Identify the stage of cognitive development that is believed to follow Piaget's fourth state of formal operational thought.
Q5) Discuss the impact of working while in college.
Q6) What is postformal thought like in practice?
Q7) What are the sexual patterns and desires of women when compared with men? Page 15
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Chapter 14: Socioemotional Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) _____ love is also called eros.
A) Companionate
B) Affectionate
C) Romantic
D) Consummate
Q2) A relationship marked by intimacy and commitment but low or lacking in passion is called _____,a pattern often found among couples who have been married for many years.
A) romantic love
B) consummate love
C) affectionate love
D) fatuous love
Q3) At the end of the first year post-divorce,which of the following are most likely to grow disillusioned with their sensation-seeking lifestyle and subsequently wanting a stable relationship?
A) the seekers
B) the libertines
C) the competent loners
D) the defeated
Q4) Briefly describe the three major types of love?
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease is TRUE?
A) When HDL is high and LDL is low,the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened.
B) When HDL is high and LDL is low,the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased.
C) When HDL is low and LDL is high,the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened.
D) When both HDL and LDL are low,the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the changes in bone mass and density is TRUE?
A) The loss of bone is faster for men than it is for women.
B) By the end of early adulthood,bones break more easily and heal more slowly.
C) Peak functioning of the body's joints occurs in the sixties.
D) Women lose bone mass twice as fast as men do.
Q3) Identify a possible reason for the changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence of different age groups in John Horn's cross-sectional study.
A) Secular trends
B) Cohort effects
C) Declining IQ with age
D) Biases in IQ testing
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Chapter 16: Socioemotional Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following supertraits deals with emotional stability and describes an individual as being calm or anxious?
A) Conscientiousness
B) Extraversion
C) Openness
D) Neuroticism
Q2) Is it true that most stage theories have a male bias? How differently do women experience middle age?
Q3) Identify the supertrait that encompasses traits such as soft-hearted,trusting,and helpful,according to the Big Five factors of personality.
A) Conscientiousness
B) Openness to experience
C) Agreeableness
D) Extraversion
Q4) Explain the contemporary life-events approach to development.
Q5) Identify the theorist who proposed that middle-aged adults faced the significant issue of generativity versus stagnation.
Q6) Define social clock.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Physical Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) What is the chronic condition that involves an extensive loss of bone tissue often causing older adults to walk with a marked stoop?
Q2) Which of the following is a major challenge for sexually interested older women (70 years or older)?
A) Male partner's physical health
B) Lack of sex education
C) Physical health of older women
D) Not having a partner
Q3) In terms of percentage of total weight,which of following increases as a person reaches late adulthood?
A) Muscle
B) Bone density
C) Fat
D) T cells
Q4) Which disease of the eye is characterized by the deterioration of the macula of the retina that corresponds to the focal center of the visual field?
Q5) What is the label used to describe the onset of alcoholism after the age of 65.
Q6) What is the "invisible epidemic" among older adults in the United States?
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Chapter 18: Cognitive Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following is a drug used to treat Alzheimer disease?
A) Ritalin
B) L-dopa
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Cholinerase inhibitors
Q2) Identify the leading expert who described seven major pathways that adults in their sixties take to retirement.
Q3) One of the most common language difficulties that older adults experience is:
A) expressive aphasia.
B) stuttering.
C) making up new words that other people do not understand.
D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
Q4) What is an allele?
A) An alternative form of a gene
B) The specific location of a gene on the chromosome
C) A particular chromosome in the human genome
D) A sequence of DNA that caps the chromosome
Q5) What are some of the noncognitive factors that affect memory?
Q6) What is discourse? What are some of the changes in discourse that occur with aging?
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Socioemotional Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) A recent meta-analysis of 128 studies found that through reminiscence therapy,clients attained a:
A) lower sense of intimacy.
B) lower sense of generativity.
C) higher sense of despair.
D) higher sense of integrity.
Q2) What does the cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger on personal life investments across age groups reveal?
Q3) Identify the social support model that says that individuals go through life embedded in a personal network of individuals from who they give and receive social support.
Q4) Discuss Erikson's final stage of development.
Q5) According to Erik Erikson,which of the following stages of development does an individual experience in late adulthood?
A) Generativity vs.stagnation
B) Autonomy vs.shame
C) Industry vs.inferiority
D) Integrity vs.despair
Q6) What are the typical effects of ageism?
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Chapter 20: Death,Dying,and Grieving
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of active euthanasia?
A) Injecting a lethal dose of a drug
B) Turning off a respirator
C) Removing a heart-lung machine
D) Stopping antibiotics
Q2) Which of the following is true of the American attitude toward death?
A) Americans consider death of the biological body as the end of existence.
B) Americans do not believe in a spiritual body that lives on after death.
C) Belief in reincarnation is a defining aspect of the American belief about death.
D) Americans are generally death avoiders and death deniers.
Q3) What is the term for the type of grief reaction that involves enduring despair and is still unresolved over an extended period of time?
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of a dying individual knowing that he or she is dying?
A) The person can seek more aggressive medical interventions.
B) The person can move through the stages of dying more quickly.
C) The person can construct more effective means of denying death.
D) The person has time to reflect on his or her life and make decisions about dying.
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