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Introduction to Project Management offers students a foundational understanding of the principles, practices, and tools used in effectively managing projects across various industries. The course explores the project life cycle, including initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closing, while emphasizing key areas such as scope, time, cost, quality, risk, and stakeholder management. Through case studies and real-world examples, students will learn to apply essential project management methodologies and techniques, including the use of software tools, to ensure successful project outcomes. This course prepares students for further study and professional certification in project management.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 9th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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13 Chapters
1066 Verified Questions
1066 Flashcards
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91 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Project managers work with the project sponsors to define success for particular projects.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used?
A) Resource
B) Communication
C) Cost
D) Quality
Answer: C
Q3) In order to be realistic, a project manager should always set discrete goals instead of a range of objectives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In project management, the three limitations of scope, time, and cost are referred to as the _____.
Answer: triple constraint

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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a _____ organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers.
A) project
B) symbolic
C) matrix
D) functional
Answer: C
Q2) _____ are sets of interacting components working within an environment to fulfill some purpose.
Answer: Systems
Q3) The _____ life cycle model is used when risk must be tightly controlled and when changes must be restricted after the requirements are defined.
Answer: waterfall
Q4) Project managers must have cooperation from people in other parts of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Sample Questions
Q1) The most time and money should be spent on ______. Answer: executing execution project execution
Q2) The burndown chart is a Scrum created artifact that provides a list of features prioritized by business value.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A(n) _____ is the person who ensures that the team is productive, facilitates the daily Scrum, enables close cooperation across all roles and functions, and removes barriers that prevent the team from being effective.
Answer: ScrumMaster
Q4) The output of the stakeholder management strategy results is a project charter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) In Scrum, a(n) _____ is a useful object created by people. Answer: artifact
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information systems can help an organization support a strategy of being a low-cost producer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ROI is always positive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.
Q4) The organization should complete low-priority projects before high-priority ones, if the low-priority ones take less time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ involves determining long-term objectives by analyzing the strengths and weaknesses, studying opportunities and threats, predicting future trends, and projecting the need for new products and services.
Q6) What is integrated change control? What are the main objectives of integrated change control?
Q7) The _____ is the discount rate that results in an NPV of zero for a project.
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Q1) Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main outputs of _____are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.
Q3) Which action involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved?
A) Creating scope
B) Defining scope
C) Controlling scope
D) Validating scope
Q4) A(n) _____ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.
Q5) A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
Q2) Which network diagramming technique uses boxes to represent activities?
A) PDM
B) CPM
C) ADM
D) PERT
Q3) _____ states that if something can go wrong, it will.
Q4) Which document is most likely to include planned project start and end dates which serve as the starting points for a detailed schedule?
A) resource breakdown structure
B) milestones list
C) organizational process assets update
D) project charter
Q5) Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity sequencing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Milestones are easy to achieve and are always achieved through one main activity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best _____.
Q2) Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine _____.
Q3) What is a rough order of magnitude estimate also referred to as?
A) definitive
B) budgetary
C) final
D) ballpark
Q4) The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
Q5) Which type of estimate uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?
A) definitive estimates
B) parametric estimates
C) bottom-up estimates
D) analogous estimates
Q6) Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the ____ subprocess of project quality management.
A) initiating
B) closing
C) controlling
D) executing
Q2) The _____ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.
Q3) What cost is the price of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range?
A) prevention cost
B) appraisal cost
C) internal failure cost
D) external failure cost
Q4) Which graphic display of data illustrates the results of a process over time?
A) statistical sampling chart
B) Pareto chart
C) Six Sigma chart
D) control chart
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Q1) _____ issues that affect how people work and how well they work include motivation, influence and power, and effectiveness.
Q2) _____ should receive frequent performance feedback, and although money is not an important motivator to them, it is an effective form of feedback.
Q3) According to Covey, project managers must use a win/lose approach in making decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of power involves using incentives to induce people to do things?
A) legitimate
B) coercive
C) reward
D) referent
Q5) What is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A) esteem
B) self-actualization
C) physiological
D) social
Q6) What is a staffing management plan?
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Q1) What are the guidelines for conducting effective meetings?
Q2) Improving an organization's ability to communicate is an easy process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ is a document that guides project communications.
Q4) The items discussed in a(n) _____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, causes of variances on the project, reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences.
A) final project report
B) design document
C) audit report
D) lessons-learned report
Q5) Which is true of push communication?
A) Information is sent only to recipients who request the information.
B) This method ensures that the information is understood by recipients.
C) Information is sent to recipients without their request.
D) This method ensures that the information is received by the recipients.
Q6) All meetings must have a(n) _____ and intended outcome.
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Q1) Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is the process of understanding what potential events might hurt or enhance a particular project.
Q3) Which analysis technique simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results?
A) sensitivity
B) systems
C) Monte Carlo
D) NPV
Q4) _____ is a qualitative risk analysis tool that maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project in addition to identifying risks.
A) A SharePoint portal
B) A probability/impact matrix or chart
C) An expectations management matrix
D) Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
Q5) The term _____ is used to describe risks that the project team has identified and analyzed.
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Q1) In procurement management, evaluation of any change should include a(n) _____ analysis.
Q2) A(n) _____ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.
Q3) How are RFPs different from RFQs? What are some of the requirements of writing an RFP?
Q4) Procurement audits are often done during contract closure to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outsourcing to provide extra workers during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to fill entire projects with internal resources. Which advantages does this characteristic of outsourcing provide organizations?
A) offers control over all aspects of projects that suppliers carry out
B) provides flexibility
C) shifts accountability from external suppliers to internal staff
D) helps avoid any form of dependency on suppliers
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Q1) You can create a(n) _____ to group stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their level of concern (interest) for project outcomes.
Q2) Which process involves monitoring stakeholder relationships and adjusting plans and strategies for engaging stakeholders as needed?
A) planning stakeholder management
B) identifying stakeholders
C) managing stakeholder engagement
D) monitoring stakeholder engagement
Q3) _____ can be classified as internal to the organization or external.
Q4) A(n) _____ stakeholder is one who is aware of the project and its potential impacts and actively engaged in helping it succeed.
Q5) The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with high interest and high power are categorized as _____.
A) resistant
B) neutral
C) supportive
D) leading
Q6) Identify and describe the processes involved in project stakeholder management.
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