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Introduction to Political Science offers students a foundational overview of the key concepts, theories, and institutions that shape political systems around the world. The course explores major topics such as the nature of politics, the role of governments, political ideologies, electoral systems, policy-making processes, and the impact of political behavior on society. Through critical analysis of real-world examples and case studies, students will gain a deeper understanding of how power and authority are distributed and exercised, the functions and structures of different types of regimes, and the ongoing challenges facing democracies and other forms of governance in a globalized world.
Recommended Textbook
The Enduring Democracy 4th Edition by Kenneth Dautrich
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Q1) One of the most important reasons for the strength and endurance of the U.S. Constitution is _________________.
A) its flexibility
B) its rigidity
C) the ability of ordinary citizens to change it
D) its declaration that the power of government is supreme
E) that it is steadfast and cannot change
Answer: A
Q2) In considering government, power _____________.
A) always has negative results
B) is not conducive to democracy
C) does not exist in a democracy
D) is necessary in any government in order that it may enforce its rules
E) is necessary in a democracy in order that antigovernment forces may be kept quiet and under control.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following would best describe a federal system of government?
A) A national government with authority, independent of the states, to coin money; and state governments with authority, independent of the national government, to conduct elections.
B) A national government that has granted to states the ability to make local decisions.
C) A national government that has received authority from sovereign, independent states, to conduct foreign policy.
D) An absolute lack of any governmental institutions within society.
E) None of these choices is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) The Articles of Confederation ___________________.
A) depended on voluntary contributions from the states
B) required a unanimous vote for amendment
C) gave each state delegation one vote
D) created a "league of friendship" among sovereign and independent states
E) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Q1) In the U.S. Constitution, powers that are not delegated to Congress but are retained by the state governments are called ______________ powers.
A) enumerated
B) reserved
C) concurrent
D) federal
E) decentralized
Answer: B
Q2) According to the authors of the textbook, supporters of federalism cite which of the following as an advantage of a federal system of government?
A) the ability to accommodate the needs of a diverse citizenry
B) the ability to strengthen liberty by dividing powers among various levels of government
C) the ability to encourage experimentation (states as laboratories of democracy)
D) the ability to respond to change
E) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Q1) Reynolds v. United States held _________________________.
A) statutes compelling high school attendance violated the free exercise clause
B) religious practices that impair the public interest do not receive constitutional protection
C) drug use that violated the criminal code could be a valid basis to deny unemployment benefits
D) that the Supreme Court and not Congress determines whether a religious exemption is valid
E) that government must show a compelling reason for limiting the free exercise of religion
Q2) The Fifth Amendment also protects the accused from being tried twice for the same crime. To do so would constitute what the Constitution refers to as
A) illegal subpoena
B) judicial unrestraint
C) judicial exclusion
D) double jeopardy
E) indictment
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Q1) The Fifteenth Amendment guaranteed ______________________.
A) states could not deny the right to vote based on race
B) citizenship of all newly freed slaves
C) the right to veterans' benefits regardless of which side they served in the Civil War
D) the abolition of slavery in all states
E) prohibition against Jim Crow laws and racial segregation
Q2) The underlying goal of protesters who use civil disobedience as a tactic is to ____________.
A) create a sharp divide in society
B) use passive resistance to disobey what they believe to be an unjust law and to bring attention to a cause
C) overwhelm the legal system by flooding the courts with arrests and minor criminal cases
D) illustrate their desire to overthrow the American political system
E) frustrate the citizens as a form of retribution against them for discriminatory practices
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Q1) Explain the duties of each component of Congressional staffing: Congressional agencies, personal staff, and committee staff. Explain the role of each component in Congressional activity, especially legislative activity.
Q2) Each state is guaranteed a minimum of how many seats in the U.S. House of Representatives, regardless of population?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) five
E) ten
Q3) Since 1913, _________________________.
A) the number of seats in the House is set at 435
B) members of the House are elected by state legislatures
C) eligibility for membership in the House requires nomination by a political party
D) members of the House must be "natural born" citizens
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the key differences between the powers granted to the House of Representatives and the senate.
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Q1) The U.S. Constitution does not formally require that a president be __________________.
A) a natural-born citizen
B) 35 years of age or older
C) a college-educated male
D) a resident of the United States for at least 14 years
E) nominated by a political party
Q2) Currently the United States is considered the only true superpower in the world arena. However, from the close of World War II until the late 1980s another superpower existed that often opposed the United States and consumed much of the president's energies. This superpower was ___________.
A) the People's Republic of China
B) Great Britain
C) the Soviet Union (USSR)
D) Cuba
E) Israel
Q3) Discuss the evolution of executive powers since World War II.
Q4) Describe the president's relationships with the public, Congress, and the media, and how each plays a role in his success as president.
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Q1) Most organizations have a common set of rules for carrying out functions that characterize the operations. These formal rules are called ____________.
A) statutes
B) recommendations
C) bureaucratic guidelines
D) standard operating procedures
E) standardized commands
Q2) Which of the following offices would Congress use to conduct an independent analysis of a budget request from an agency?
A) General Accountability Office
B) Congressional Budget Office
C) Library of Congress
D) Domestic Policy Council
E) Council of Economic Advisors
Q3) Fully explain the processes for developing regulations. Describe the concept of "administrative discretion" and how this will effect an agency's role in implementing a law. Provide an example of how Congress is said to have "delegated congressional power."
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Q1) Which of the following is a system of justice used in the American legal system in which opposing parties contend against each other for a result favorable to themselves, while judges act as independent referees overseeing the contest?
A) adversarial system
B) inquisitorial system
C) civil system
D) criminal system
E) appellate system
Q2) Litigants who receive an adverse judgment in federal appeals court and wish to be heard in the U.S. Supreme Court may petition for a ___________________.
A) writ of habeas corpus
B) writ of mandamus
C) writ of certiorari
D) subpoena
E) warrant
Q3) Describe how a case proceeds through the Supreme Court, from the issuance of a writ of certiorari to the issuance of a written opinion. Explain the types of written opinions that may be generated, including concurring and dissenting opinions.
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Q1) In recent years, members of political action committees and political parties have presented themselves as legitimate pollsters when, in fact, they have attempted to plant subtle facts in the minds of the respondents. These activities are referred to as
A) straw polls
B) scientific polls
C) pseudo polls
D) political filtering
E) lobbying
Q2) Public opinion exists at three basic levels. List and describe these levels.
Q3) Define each of the following characteristics of public opinion polling data: direction, intensity, and continuity. Explain the importance of each in interpreting the results of a public opinion poll.
Q4) What is meant by political socialization? What is meant by primacy tendency? Describe how political socialization by family, friends and peers, schools, media, and religion impact the opinions and preferences of an individual.
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Q1) Describe the "pros" and "cons" of interest groups. With this understanding, explain the theories of "pluralism" and "majoritarianism," and the role of interest groups in each.
Q2) Those individuals and/or businesses that do not join or contribute to an interest group, but that enjoy the benefits gained by interest groups, are referred to as _____________.
A) scabs
B) free riders
C) picket busters
D) chop shops
E) union busters
Q3) Why does the wealth of interest group members matter in terms of political influence?
A) Only the wealthy can vote in the United States.
B) Wealthy members can also provide financial contributions to political campaigns.
C) All interest groups have extremely high dues.
D) Interest groups with only wealthy members have success through lobbying efforts.
E) Wealthy members can buy extra votes during an election.
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Q1) Why was the 1815 invention of the rotary press so important to news efforts?
A) It enabled the mass production of newspapers.
B) It enabled the creation of electronic transmission of news.
C) It had no significant effect on news production.
D) It improved objectivity in reporting.
E) It allowed the printing of newspapers in multiple languages.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of objectivity in the media?
A) It refers to the media reporting events factually, accurately, fairly, and equitably.
B) It requires signaling when important events occur.
C) It provides perspectives on all sides of an issue or debate.
D) It is clearly defined by the Telecommunications Act of 1996.
E) It sometimes leads to journalists not making any judgments of their own.
Q3) How has the government regulated media throughout American history? Describe the Federal Communications Commission and how its role has changed in this process of regulation.
Q4) How has the U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the First Amendment's freedom of the press and applied it to mass media? Give examples of some court cases.
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Q1) What was the basis of the split of the Whig Party by the 1850s?
A) serious differences over the legality and morality of slavery
B) differences over the relationship of the United States with the Republic of Texas
C) the Mexican War
D) disagreements over alliances with France
E) relations with Native American people as the nation expanded westward
Q2) Which of the following is the best definition of a political party?
A) an organization that seeks to win elections for the purpose of influencing the outputs of government
B) an organization that seeks to generate a profit from its control of government
C) a government agency that seeks to control government at local, state, and federal levels
D) a quasi-government agency that controls the government and minimizes competition of ideas
E) an organization that seeks to challenge governmental authority through organized protest
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Q1) Explain the concept of "battleground states." What role do battleground states play in the presidential election process, and what is their overall effect during a presidential election? Do you think battleground states would still exist if the electoral college was replaced with a national popular vote for selection of the president? Explain.
Q2) What is the purpose of "exploratory committees"?
A) They seek negative publicity on electoral opponents.
B) They are formed in order to determine if public policy is in agreement with public opinion.
C) Potential presidential candidates use them to assess the feasibility of making a formal declaration of official candidacy.
D) They represent the electoral equivalent of an ethics investigation.
E) They are committees appointed by Congress to assess the needs of Americans.
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a "determinant of vote choice"?
A) familiarity of the candidate
B) party identification
C) the candidate's religion
D) the candidate's stance on particular issues
E) the image and personal traits of the candidate
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Q1) The first revenue-raising bill ever passed by Congress was ___________.
A) an income tax
B) Social Security
C) an excise tax
D) a property tax
E) a tariff
Q2) In the policymaking process, the recognition-definition stage is the one in which _____________________.
A) The policy is assessed for its worth and effectiveness in meeting its original objectives and goals.
B) A bureaucratic agency translates law action through the adoption of administrative regulations.
C) The policy under consideration assumes the authority of law through ratification by Congress.
D) Various alternative courses for this policy are considered and a preferred course is selected.
E) Goals are identified and defined according to how the problem fits within existing policy categories.
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Q1) The United States was not involved in plots to assassinate which of the following foreign leaders?
A) Patrice Lumumba, Prime Minister of the Congo
B) Fidel Castro, Cuban communist leader
C) Yitzhak Rabin, Israeli Prime Minister
D) Rafael Trujillo, Dominican Republic leader
E) Osama bin Laden, Al Qaeda leader
Q2) The presidential proclamation in 1823 that there would be no attempt to colonize North and South America by European powers and that such action would be cause for military action was called ___________________.
A) the War Powers Resolution
B) the Monroe Doctrine
C) the Truman Doctrine
D) the Treaty of Versailles
E) manifest destiny
Q3) Analyze the operation of each of the parts of the United Nations. Discuss arguments in favor of and opposed to the proposition that the United Nations still serves an important function in global affairs.
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