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Introduction to Political Science provides students with a foundational understanding of the key concepts, theories, and methodologies that shape the study of politics and government. The course explores the origins and development of political systems, the roles of institutions, political behavior, ideologies, policymaking, and the functioning of states at both the national and international levels. Students will examine contemporary political issues, analyze case studies from various global contexts, and engage with debates around democracy, power, justice, and governance, equipping them with critical tools to understand and engage with political phenomena in real-world settings.
Recommended Textbook Government by the People 2011 National Edition 24th Edition by David B. Magleby
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Q1) George Washington was the primary author of The Federalist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Support for ratification of the Constitution was partly determined by the geographic location of the delegates.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The Antifederalists opposed ratification of the proposed Constitution because
A)it included a bill of rights.
B)they felt the national government was not given enough power.
C)they believed that state governments should be abolished.
D)they were concerned that it did not do enough to ensure frequent rotation of elected officials.
E)they opposed direct election of members of the House of Representatives.
Answer: D
Q4) Define statism and give an example.
Answer: NOT ANSWER
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Q1) In The Federalist, No.51, Madison discussed the need for "auxiliary precautions" against popular tyranny, which include
A)separation of powers.
B)states' rights.
C)the Bill of Rights.
D)unfunded mandates.
E)free elections.
Answer: A
Q2) The Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions
A)suggested that judicial review was unconstitutional.
B)argued against the ratification of the Constitution.
C)established the practice of judicial review.
D)were resolutions passed by state legislatures urging members of Congress to propose a constitutional amendment formally outlining judicial review.
E)None of the above
Answer: E
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Q1) In a confederation system of government, a constitution vests all governmental power in the central government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Rulings on same-sex marriages and "civil unions" by state courts interpreting their state constitutions have extended more protection for these rights than has the Supreme Court's interpretation of the U.S.Constitution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) State governments have which of the following sets of powers?
A)Delegated and reserved
B)Reserved and concurrent
C)Direct and inherent
D)Expressed and implied
E)Inherent and implied
Answer: B
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Q1) To adhere to the rule of law governments should use force.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The idea that all people have the right to dignity and worth is called natural rights.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The idea that the ultimate power resides in the people is called popular sovereignty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) U.S.citizens learn about our political culture from schools, the mass media, and our families.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Classical liberals fought to minimize the role of government because they saw government as the primary threat to individual rights and liberties.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When social and economic differences coincide, making political conflict more intense and polarizing society, social scientists call them ___________ cleavages.
A)reinforcing
B)additive
C)polarizing
D)cross-cutting
E)predisposing
Q2) The most rural areas of the United States are
A)the South and Midwest.
B)the Midwest and Northwest.
C)the Northwest and West.
D)the West and Northeast.
E)the Northeast and South.
Q3) More than half the names of states are Native American.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The median income of Asian Americans is well above the national median.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Members of the congressional majority party always control
A)the chairships of all standing committees.
B)who serves as staff of the minority party.
C)cabinet appointments.
D)White House appointments.
E)the presidency.
Q2) The Republican Party
A)has long had a party organization superior to that of the Democrats.
B)has long been far less organized than the Democratic Party.
C)is organized in much the same way as the Democratic Party.
D)is organized around big city mayors.
E)trails behind the Democrats in organizational aptitude.
Q3) The top official of each of the two major parties is called the
A)national committee president.
B)national committee chair.
C)national convention chair.
D)White House chair.
E)national party president.
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Q1) Support for gay marriage is lowest among A)people living in the Northeast.
B)women.
C)whites.
D)liberals.
E)people attending church every week.
Q2) The reason most commonly cited for people NOT voting in elections is A)being too busy.
B)forgetting.
C)not caring who wins.
D)not having transportation.
E)being out of town.
Q3) The 40% of the people who selectively participate in elections are called A)apathetic public.
B)representative citizens.
C)core constituents.
D)the attentive public.
E)part-time citizens.
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Q1) Critics of the primary system have recommended that rather than having state presidential primaries there should be regional presidential primaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A politician who cannot, or has announced he or she will not, run again for his or her office is called
A)a quitter.
B)a lame duck.
C)an enigma.
D)a term limit.
E)an incumbent.
Q3) A national meeting of delegates elected in primaries, caucuses, or state conventions who assemble once every four years to nominate candidates for president and vice president, ratify the party platform, elect officers, and adopt rules is known as a national party convention.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Some critics argue that bias in the media comes from reporters being __________ their subjects.
A)excluded from
B)related to
C)too friendly with D)unknown to
E)None of the above
Q2) Policy makers are more Republican than Democrat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ also allow(s) people to communicate and organize rapidly in response to political events.
A)The Internet
B)Newspapers
C)Television
D)Mass media
E)Magazines
Q4) Political campaigns no longer use radio to communicate with voters.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) John Smith is considering a run for the House of Representatives against Betty Jones who currently holds the seat.In this case, Betty Jones is the A)redistricter.
B)challenger.
C)constituent.
D)gerrymander.
E)incumbent.
Q2) Compared to fifty years ago, new members of Congress are increasingly reluctant to introduce legislation or resist the leadership of senior members.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about cloture?
A)It is a practice used only in the House of Representatives
B)It requires a three-fifths vote to pass
C)It is a tactic for delaying votes in the Senate
D)It is provided for in the Constitution
E)It has been ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
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Q1) The War Powers Resolution was signed into law by President Eisenhower in 1949.
A)True
B)False
Q2) George Washington's precedent of serving just two terms as president held until ____________ was elected as president in four consecutive elections.
A)Theodore Roosevelt
B)Abraham Lincoln
C)Dwight D.Eisenhower
D)Franklin D.Roosevelt
E)Ronald Reagan
Q3) Presidents use their annual State of the Union address to Congress to try to shape the legislative agenda for the coming year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chief of staff is the head of the White House staff.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The word bureaucracy refers to
A)a form of organization that operates through impersonal, uniform rules and procedures.
B)any group of officials who act as intermediaries between citizens and government.
C)any irrational organization.
D)the top-level career officials in the federal government.
E)the legislative pages.
Q2) The making of bureaucratic rules and regulations is governed by the A)Administrative Procedure Act.
B)Federal Regulations Index.
C)Register of Federal Policies and Rules.
D)Hatch Act.
E)All of the above
Q3) The 1883 Pendleton Act created an independent Civil Service Commission.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number of federal governmental departments is 70.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) At the Friday conference of Supreme Court justices, all BUT which of the following is true?
A)The chief justice presides
B)The chief justice votes first
C)A majority decides the case
D)Only the nine justices attend
E)All of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following statements about partisanship and judicial appointments is NOT correct?
A)Partisanship was cited more often as a reason the Senate rejected court nominees in the last century than it is this century.
B)Presidents most often ignore partisanship in their consideration of judicial nominees.
C)Both Democratic and Republican presidents have made partisan judicial selections.
D)The partisanship of judges influences their decisions.
E)All of the above are correct statements
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Q1) The Fifth Amendment presents a complex area of the law that includes many possible exceptions to the warrant requirement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which amendment states the following: "The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized?"
A)Fourteenth
B)Fourth
C)First
D)Third
E)Fifth
Q3) In Miller v.California (1973), the court agreed on a constitutional definition of protected speech.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The equal protection clause that forbids states from denying any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws is stated in what amendment?
A)Sixteenth
B)Thirteenth
C)Nineteenth
D)Fifteenth
E)Fourteenth
Q2) Problems of Native Americans include all of the following EXCEPT
A)alcoholism.
B)lack of adequate health care facilities.
C)poverty.
D)diabetes.
E)inability to vote in state and federal elections.
Q3) The equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment declares that no state shall "deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ____________________ is the sixth step in the process of making public policy.
A)Running the program itself
B)Choosing a tool for solving the problem
C)Deciding who will deliver the goods or services
D)Evaluating the program
E)Measuring outputs
Q2) College students, businesses, environmental groups, and older Americans are examples of
A)the people.
B)politics.
C)outcomes.
D)government.
E)policies.
Q3) Political scientist Anthony Downs calls the stage where the problem moves into prolonged limbo what?
A)Pre-problem stage
B)Alarmed discovery
C)Cost-benefit stage
D)Post-problem stage
E)Public-interest decline stage
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Q1) The Federal Reserve System consists of 50 banks, one for each state.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The value of all goods and services produced by an economy during a specific period of time such as a year is called the A)budget production.
B)growth rate.
C)economic output.
D)gross domestic product.
E)consumer price index.
Q3) When the federal government raises less money than it spends in a year it is called A)recession.
B)inflation.
C)the national debt.
D)stagflation.
E)a budget deficit.
Q4) Monetary policy is handled primarily by the Federal Reserve System.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Most western governments expanded their social programs long before the U.S.did because
A)they had more need of them.
B)they believed that people could not support themselves.
C)the U.S.believed that needy people were not working hard enough.
D)the U.S.had almost no needy people.
E)most of the western governments had no charities in place.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a federal agency promoting health care?
A)PHS
B)FDA
C)CDC
D)NIH
E)EPA
Q3) Public welfare assistance an individual may receive in a lifetime is limited to
A)three years.
B)five years.
C)eight years.
D)no limitation.
E)two months after job training begins.
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Q1) The decision to halt export, import, or financial relations with a country is known as the imposition of economic sanctions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Isolationism is
A)the desire to avoid international engagement altogether.
B)the belief that nations must engage in international problem solving
C)a theory of international relations that focuses on the hope that nations will act together to solve international problems and promote peace.
D)a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act on their own when facing threats from other nations.
E)a philosophy that encourages individual nations to act together to solve international problems.
Q3) State Department policy priorities include all BUT which of the following?
A)Promoting protective tariffs
B)Protecting American citizens' abroad
C)Negotiating treaties
D)Promoting U.S.commercial interests
E)Granting visas to foreign visitors
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Q1) The total number of employees is highest in
A)the military.
B)state and local governments.
C)international aid organizations.
D)the federal government.
E)All of the above have approximately the same number of employees
Q2) Approximately what percent of people indicated they trusted state government either "a great deal" or "a fair amount" in a 2006 survey?
A)43%
B)7%
C)50%
D)97%
E)65%
Q3) A NIMBY reaction is most likely to be triggered in a community when it is announced that
A)federal funds have been procured to build a new high school.
B)a new landfill will be built.
C)a local election has no clear winner and a runoff will result.
D)a proposed new airport will not be built after all.
E)an elected official has been accused of scandalous behavior.
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Q1) Until 2006, on average about 75% of voters had ratified proposed amendments to state constitutions.In 2006, that percentage changed to
A)70%.
B)50%.
C)60%.
D)85%.
E)90%.
Q2) Rhode Island's constitution calls for voters to be asked if they want to convene a constitutional convention every 10 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The goal of an initiative petition is always passage of the proposed amendment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a typical state government, the highway commission falls under the executive branch.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The epitome of the political machine in the United States was
A)Tammany Hall.
B)the Rotary Club.
C)the Free Masons.
D)the Fillmore East.
E)Berkeley Hall.
Q2) Approximately what percent of the voting age-population voted in the 2008 presidential election?
A)33%
B)57%
C)88%
D)11%
E)44%
Q3) Which of the following is among the ways in which party nominees are selected?
A)Primary elections
B)Caucuses
C)Conventions
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
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Q1) State representative John Doe believes that cigarette taxes should be increased.However, he votes against such an increase because the constituents of his tobacco-growing district oppose it.This is an example of what type of interpretation of his role as a legislator?
A)Corporation
B)Delegate
C)Caseworker
D)Follower
E)Trustee
Q2) How many states do NOT have term limits for their members of the state legislature?
A)15
B)25
C)44
D)35
E)8
Q3) In all but five states, representatives serve two-year terms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What was the primary reason for New Jersey Governor James Florio's defeat in 1993?
A)A recession
B)His recommendation for a tax increase
C)His lack of support for environmental issues
D)His support of same-sex marriage
E)His refusal to address the issue of illegal immigration
Q2) Perhaps the governor's most important job is to
A)grant pardons and clemency.
B)command the state National Guard.
C)recruit talented people for state office.
D)help establish the legislature's agenda.
E)create redistricting plans for the state legislature.
Q3) In some states, an eighteen-year-old could be elected governor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As of 2010, there had been 28 female governors in American history.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An advisory opinion is defined as an opinion unrelated to a particular case that gives a court's view about a constitutional or legal issue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prosecutors benefit from the plea bargain system in every way EXCEPT
A)they are able to dispose of cases quickly.
B)they avoid long and drawn-out trials.
C)they eliminate the risk of losing.
D)they build up better conviction records.
E)they are certain that justice is served.
Q3) Current ways of selecting state judges include election by the State Bar Association.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The victims' rights movement originated chiefly from
A)urban activists.
B)feminists.
C)gay-rights activists.
D)the Civil Rights movement.
E)None of the above
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Q1) During the last half of the 20 century, the fastest growing parts of the United States were
A)large cities.
B)rural areas.
C)central cities.
D)suburban areas.
E)townships.
Q2) Our basic pattern of local government is imported from
A)France.
B)Germany.
C)England.
D)Canada.
E)Rome.
Q3) The most common solution to the problems of overlapping and duplicating jurisdictions is for the units of government to contract for __________.
A)service agreements
B)annexation
C)dualistic government
D)power sharing
E)None of the above
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Q1) States compete with one another because economic development is the key to increasing the ________ that funds government services.
A)voter lists
B)population
C)tax base
D)tax incentives
E)number of companies within their borders
Q2) Which president below created the U.S.Environmental Protection Agency?
A)Johnson
B)Reagan
C)Ford
D)Carter
E)Nixon
Q3) Voucher programs have been tried since what decade?
A)1970s
B)1980s
C)1990s
D)1930s
E)1960s
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Q1) The general property tax is an unstable, unpredictable source of funding for local governments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Public and state employees are often hired through a political spoils system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stocks, bonds, and money in the bank are all examples of
A)intangible wealth.
B)tangible wealth.
C)real estate.
D)real property.
E)ad valorem.
Q4) State and local governments spend most of their funds on education.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lotteries helped finance the Revolutionary War.
A)True
B)False
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