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Introduction to Physics offers a foundational exploration of the fundamental principles that govern the natural world, including motion, forces, energy, matter, and the laws that connect them. Covering both classical and modern physics concepts, the course introduces students to topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, waves, electricity, and magnetism through a combination of theoretical discussions and practical experiments. Emphasizing problem-solving skills and critical thinking, this course provides students with the essential tools to understand and analyze physical phenomena in everyday life and lays the groundwork for further study in scientific and engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
The Physical Universe 15th Edition by Konrad Krauskopf
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Q1) Scientific theories
A)must be constantly reviewed to see whether they are in accord with new experimental observations.
B)represent guesses that have not yet been compared with observational data.
C)are summaries of particular experiments.
D)are laws of nature not subject to revision.
Answer: A
Q2) The size of a picture is given as 84 cm by 255 cm.Since (84)(255) = 2.142 exactly, the area of the picture is correctly expressed as
A)2.142 m<sup>2</sup>.
B)2.14 m<sup>2</sup>.
C)2.1 m<sup>2</sup>.
D)2 m<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: C
Q3) A planet that cannot be seen with the unaided eye is A)Neptune.
B)Jupiter.
C)Mars.
D)Mercury.
Answer: A
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Q1) A 1200-kg car is traveling at 10 m/s on a road such that the maximum frictional force between its tires and the road is 4000 N.The minimum turning radius of the car is
A)15 m.
B)30 m.
C)60 m.
D)120 m.
Answer: B
Q2) Which one or more of the following pairs of displacements cannot be added to give a resultant displacement of 2 m?
A)1 m and 1 m.
B)1 m and 2 m.
C)1 m and 3 m.
D)1 m and 4 m.
Answer: D
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Q1) The watt is a unit of A)energy.
B)work.
C)momentum.
D)power.
Answer: D
Q2) A 1-N weight has a PE relative to the ground of 1 J when it is at a height of
A)10.2 cm.
B)1 m.
C)9.8 m.
D)98 m.
Answer: B
Q3) A horse has a power output of 1 hp (746 W) when it is pulling a cart.If the cart covers 100 m in 30 s, the force the horse exerts on the cart is
A)0.22 kN.
B)0.34 kN.
C)0.45 kN.
D)2.49 kN.
Answer: A
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Q1) An unsolved problem for nuclear energy is
A)greenhouse gas emissions.
B)fuel supply.
C)acid rain.
D)permanent waste disposal.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Coal-fired power plants in the United States produce almost half of its electricity.
B)Over 1000 new coal-fired power plants are newly built or under construction in the world.
C)The United States has less than 5 percent of the world's coal reserves.
D)Coal is cheaper per unit of energy released when it is burned than any other fossil fuel.
Q3) Methane is the chief constituent of
A)natural gas.
B)gasoline.
C)diesel fuel.
D)ethanol.
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Q1) A thermometer calibrated in the Celsius scale and a thermometer calibrated in the Fahrenheit scale are used to measure the same temperature.The numerical reading on the Fahrenheit thermometer
A)is proportional to that on the Celsius thermometer.
B)is smaller than that on the Celsius thermometer.
C)is larger than that on the Celsius thermometer.
D)may be smaller or larger than that on the Celsius thermometer.
Q2) Radiation is emitted
A)only by liquids.
B)only by solids.
C)only by liquids and solids.
D)by liquids, solids, and gases.
Q3) When a liquid becomes a vapor,
A)its temperature must decrease.
B)its temperature must increase.
C)it must absorb heat.
D)it must give off heat.
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Q1) A current-carrying wire is in a magnetic field with the direction of the current parallel to that of the field.
A)The wire tends to move parallel to the field.
B)The wire tends to move perpendicular to the field.
C)The wire tends to turn until it is parallel to the field.
D)The wire has no tendency to move or to turn.
Q2) A current-carrying loop in a magnetic field always tends to turn until the plane of the loop is
A)parallel to the field.
B)perpendicular to the field.
C)either parallel or perpendicular, depending on the direction of the current.
D)at a 45-degree angle with the field.
Q3) A molecule that has lost an electron becomes a
A)positive ion.
B)negative ion.
C)nucleus.
D)superconductor.
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Q1) Two waves meet at a time when one has the instantaneous amplitude A and the other has the instantaneous amplitude
A) A + B.
B) A - B.
C) between A + B and A - B.
D) indeterminate.
Q2) The higher the frequency of a wave,
A)the lower its speed.
B)the shorter its wavelength.
C)the smaller its amplitude.
D)the lower its pitch.
Q3) When waves go from one place to another, they carry A)amplitude.
B)frequency.
C)wavelength.
D)energy.
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Q1) The electromagnetic interaction is
A)the fundamental interaction with the shortest range.
B)responsible for the structures of atoms, molecules, liquids, and solids.
C)responsible for holding nucleons together to form nuclei.
D)responsible for radioactive decays.
Q2) The nucleus of a helium atom is called
A)an alpha particle.
B)a beta particle.
C)a gamma ray.
D)a quark.
Q3) After 2 h has elapsed, one-sixteenth of the original quantity of a certain radionuclide remains undecayed.The half-life of this radionuclide is
A)15 min.
B)30 min.
C)45 min.
D)60 min.
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Q1) The energy difference between adjacent energy levels in a hydrogen atom
A)decreases with increasing quantum numbers.
B)increases with increasing quantum numbers.
C)is the same for all quantum numbers.
D)shows no regularities.
Q2) The electron structures of atoms never emit A)gamma rays.
B)x-rays.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)infrared light.
Q3) An electron in an s state of an atom has an angular momentum quantum number of
A)0.
B)1.
C)2.
D)3.
Q4) If Planck's constant were smaller than it is, A)moving bodies would have longer wavelengths. B)moving bodies would have lower speeds.
C)the uncertainty principle would be less significant. D)photons would have higher energies.
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Q1) The missing number in the equation 4NH<sub>3</sub> + [ ]O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 4NO + 6H<sub>2</sub>O is
A)1.
B)2.
C)5.
D)10.
Q2) When atoms join to form a molecule, A)energy is absorbed.
B)energy is given off.
C)energy is neither absorbed nor given off.
D)Any of these choices, depending on the circumstances.
Q3) The number of oxygen atoms in a molecule of aluminum sulfate, Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>, is A)3.
B)4.
C)7. D)12.
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Q1) The symbol of the hydronium ion is
A)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>-</sup>.
B)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>.
C)OH<sup>-</sup>.
D)OH<sup>+</sup>.
Q2) Pure acids in the liquid state consist of
A)neutral molecules.
B)H<sup>+</sup> ions and neutral molecules.
C)H<sup>+</sup> ions and negative ions.
D)H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
Q3) Which solids are the best heat conductors?
A)covalent
B)ionic
C)molecular
D)metallic
Q4) Pure water does not
A)contain H<sup>+</sup> ions.
B)contain OH<sup>-</sup> ions.
C)contain polar molecules.
D)form ionic crystals when it freezes.

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Q1) Chemical reactions in solution do not depend to any great extent upon A)pressure.
B)temperature.
C)concentration.
D)catalysts.
Q2) Oxidation-reduction reactions are not involved in A)electrolysis.
B)acid-base neutralization.
C)the operation of a storage battery.
D)the operation of a fuel cell.
Q3) Which of the following statements about ozone is incorrect?
A)The formula of ozone is O<sub>3</sub>.
B)Ozone molecules are more stable than those of ordinary oxygen.
C)At low altitudes ozone contributes to smog.
D)At high altitudes ozone absorbs solar ultraviolet radiation.
Q4) An example of slow oxidation is A)a lighted candle.
B)the rusting of iron.
C)the lighting of a match.
D)a log burning in a fireplace.

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Q1) An atomic orbital that is a mixture of s and p orbitals is called A)an unsaturated orbital.
B)a saturated orbital.
C)a hybrid orbital.
D)an isomeric orbital.
Q2) The number of genes in the human genome seems to be
A)20,000-25,000.
B)50,000-100,000.
C)1-2 million.
D)1-2 billion.
Q3) The average efficiency of photosynthesis in utilizing solar energy is A)1 percent.
B)20 percent.
C)50 percent.
D)90 percent.
Q4) Fermentation can convert sugar to carbon dioxide and A)ethanol.
B)methanol.
C)acetic acid.
D)starch.

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Q1) Completely dry air has a relative humidity of A)0.
B)1 percent.
C)50 percent.
D)100 percent.
Q2) A characteristic feature of the stratosphere is the presence of A)clouds.
B)dust.
C)ozone. D)ions.
Q3) When the temperature of a volume of air is equal to its dew point, the relative humidity of the air is A)0.
B)50%.
C)100%.
D)200%.
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Q1) A moraine is a pile of rock debris left by a A)river.
B)waterfall.
C)glacier.
D)volcano.
Q2) Rivers are not responsible for A)alluvial fans.
B)flood plains.
C)deltas.
D)water tables.
Q3) A body of porous rock through which groundwater moves is called a(n) A)water table.
B)aquifer. C)moraine.
D)batholith.
Q4) Coral reefs are composed of A)granite.
B)shale.
C)quartzite. D)limestone.

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Q1) The dinosaurs disappeared at the end of A)Precambrian time.
B)the Paleozoic era.
C)the Mesozoic era.
D)the Cenozoic era.
Q2) A subduction zone is never
A)associated with a mountain range.
B)associated with an island chain.
C)located at a midocean ridge.
D)located at a continental margin.
Q3) Large exposures of Precambrian rocks are found in A)eastern Canada and adjacent parts of the United States.
B)the Rocky Mountains.
C)Texas and New Mexico.
D)the Middle West.
Q4) Classed as mammals are A)reptiles.
B)fish.
C)birds.
D)human beings.

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Q1) Of the following planets, the one with the thinnest atmosphere is A)Mercury.
B)Venus.
C)Mars.
D)Uranus.
Q2) The interior of the moon
A)is uniform in structure.
B)has a liquid core.
C)is relatively cool.
D)is active geologically, giving rise to severe moonquakes.
Q3) On an average clear night, the number of meteors that can be seen per hour is A)1 or 2.
B)5 to 10.
C)100 to 200.
D)1000 to 2000.
Q4) Most asteroids lie in a belt between A)Mercury and the sun.
B)Earth and Mars.
C)Earth and moon.
D)Mars and Jupiter.

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Q1) The sun is a(n)
A)unusually small star.
B)unusually large star.
C)unusually hot star.
D)rather ordinary star.
Q2) The duration of the sunspot cycle is about
A)27 days.
B)6 months.
C)3 years.
D)11 years.
Q3) The size of a star can be found from its
A)temperature and mass.
B)temperature and brightness.
C)temperature and luminosity.
D)mass and apparent brightness.
Q4) A large modern astronomical telescope
A)is designed for high magnifications.
B)uses a single lens.
C)uses a single mirror.
D)uses a number of smaller mirrors.
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Q1) In the universe today there
A)seems to be little or no antimatter.
B)is much antimatter but less than the amount of matter.
C)are equal amounts of antimatter and matter.
D)is more antimatter than matter.
Q2) The energy that reaches the earth in cosmic rays is comparable to the energy that reaches the earth in A)sunlight.
B)moonlight.
C)starlight.
D)radio waves.
Q3) As they came into being, the planets were primarily heated by A)gravitational compression. B)solar radiation.
C)cosmic rays.
D)cosmic background radiation.
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