Introduction to Physics
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physics provides a foundational understanding of the fundamental principles governing the natural world. The course covers essential topics such as motion, forces, energy, waves, electricity, magnetism, and the structure of matter. Students are introduced to problem-solving techniques and the scientific method, emphasizing both conceptual understanding and practical applications. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and experiments, this course lays the groundwork for further study in physical sciences and equips students with critical thinking and analytical skills.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Page 2
Chapter 1: About Science
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Q1) Eratosthenes first learned about the position of the Sun in mid-summer by
A)consulting library information.
B)setting up a stick at Syene.
C)setting up a stick at Alexandria.
D)setting up sticks at both Syene and Alexandria.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Science and technology are
A)responsible for all the good in the world.
B)responsible for all the bad in the world.
C)actually one and the same.
D)fundamentally different from each other.
Answer: D
Q3) Pseudoscience is best characterized as being A)new age.
B)an alternate view to be taken seriously.
C)fake.
D)all of the above
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons First Law of Motion: Inertia
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you stand at rest on a pair of bathroom scales, the reading on each scale
A)is half your weight.
B)equals your weight.
C)add up to equal your weight.
Answer: C
Q2) If you toss a coin straight upward in train that slows while the coin is in the air, the coin will land
A)as if you were at rest.
B)in front of you.
C)in back of you.
Answer: B
Q3) The net force on any object in equilibrium is A)zero.
B)equal to its weight.
C)less than its weight.
D)non-zero when motion is involved.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) At one instant an object in free fall is moving downward at 50 m/s. One second later its speed is
A)25 m/s.
B)50 m/s.
C)55 m/s.
D)60 m/s.
E)100 m/s.
Answer: D
Q2) A freely-falling watermelon falls with constant A)velocity.
B)speed.
C)acceleration.
D)distances each successive second.
Answer: C
Q3) The accelerations possible for a ball on an inclined plane
A)range from zero to g.
B)range from g to infinity.
C)have no limit.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Newtons Second Law of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A block is dragged without acceleration in a straight-line path across a level surface by a force of 6 N. What is the force of friction between the block and the surface?
A)less than 6 N
B)6 N
C)more than 6 N
D)need more information
Q2) A mobile phone is pulled northward by a force of 10 N and at the same time pulled southward by another force of 15 N. The resultant force on the phone is
A)0 N.
B)5 N.
C)25 N.
D)150 N.
Q3) In which case would you have the largest mass of gold? If your chunk of gold weighed 1 N on the A)Moon.
B)Earth.
C)planet Jupiter.
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Chapter 5: Newtons Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction
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Q1) A river 100 m wide flows due south. A boat that goes 1 m/s relative to the water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. The boat crosses in
A)50 s.
B)100 s.
C)141 s.
D)200 s.
Q2) One end of a rope is pulled with 100 N, while the opposite end also is pulled with 100 N. The tension in the rope is
A)0 N.
B)50 N.
C)100 N.
D)200 N.
Q3) As a ball bounces from a floor, its acceleration off the floor between bounces is A)significantly less than g.
B)g.
C)slightly more than g.
D)significantly more than g.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you can't avoid being hit by a fast-moving object, you'll suffer a smaller contact force if you can extend that force over a A)longer time.
B)shorter time.
C)both the same
Q2) It is correct to say that impulse is equal to A)momentum.
B)a corresponding change in momentum.
C)force multiplied by the distance it acts.
D)velocity multiplied by time.
Q3) Two billiard balls having the same mass and speed roll toward each other. What is their combined momentum after they meet?
A)zero
B)half the sum of their original momentums
C)twice the sum of their original momentums
D)need more information
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8
Chapter 7: Energy
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Q1) A miracle car with a 100% efficient engine burns fuel having a 40-megajoules-per-liter energy content. If air drag and overall frictional forces at highway speeds totals 1000 N, what distance per liter can be achieved on the highway?
A)30 km
B)40 km
C)50 km
D)more than 50 km
E)need more information
Q2) A motorcycle moving at 50 km/h skids 10 m with locked brakes. How far will it skid with locked brakes when traveling at 150 km/h?
A)10 m
B)30 m
C)50 m
D)90 m
Q3) Earth's primary energy source is
A)the Sun.
B)fossil fuel.
C)electricity.
D)geothermal.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which jar will roll down an incline in the shortest time, an empty one or one filled with peanut butter?
A)the empty jar
B)both reach the bottom at the same time
C)the filled jar
D)need more information
Q2) As a huge rotating cloud of particles in space gravitate together forming an increasingly dense ball, it shrinks in size and A)rotates slower.
B)rotates at the same speed.
C)rotates faster.
D)cannot rotate.
Q3) Stand a meterstick on its end and let it rotate to the floor. If you attach a heavy glob of clay to its upper end and repeat, the time to fall will be A)shorter.
B)longer.
C)the same.
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Chapter 9: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factor most directly responsible for making a black hole invisible is its A)size.
B)mass.
C)color.
D)surface escape velocity.
E)none of the above
Q2) A black hole is
A)an empty region of space with a huge gravitational field.
B)at the center if all stars.
C)the remains of a giant star that has undergone gravitational collapse.
Q3) If the Moon had twice as much mass and still orbits Earth at the same distance, ocean bulges on Earth would be
A)smaller.
B)larger.
C)unequal in size.
D)not significantly different.
E)none of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Projectile and Satellite Motion
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Q1) Two projectiles are fired from ground level at equal speeds but different angles. One is fired at an angle of 30° and the other at 60°. Neglecting air resistance, the projectile to hit the ground first will be the one fired at A)30°.
B)60°.
C)both hit at the same time
Q2) Acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less than on Earth, and the Moon is smaller than Earth. This means that compared to an Earth satellite, a satellite in close orbit about the Moon would travel
A)slower.
B)faster.
C)the same.
D)need more information
Q3) A projectile is launched vertically upward at 50 m/s. If air resistance does affect motion, then its speed upon returning to its starting point is A)less than 50 m/s.
B)50 m/s.
C)more than 50 m/s.
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Chapter 11: Atomic Nature of Matter
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Q1) A nucleon has a mass of about A)1 amu.
B)1 atomic mass unit.
C)both are the same.
D)none of the above
Q2) Which of these has the greatest number of protons in its nucleus?
A)gold
B)mercury
C)lead
D)silver
Q3) Which is the lightest particle?
A)proton
B)electron
C)neutron
D)all about the same
Q4) An isotope is simply an atom that
A)is electrically charged.
B)has different numbers of neutrons for the same element.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 12: Solids
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Q1) If a loaf of bread is compressed its A)density decreases.
B)density increases.
C)neither of these
Q2) Flatten a spherical meatball into a hamburger and you increase its A)surface area.
B)volume.
C)both of these
D)none of these
Q3) Support a horizontal toothpick at both ends. Then do likewise for a log of the same kind of wood. There is more sag in the A)toothpick.
B)log.
C)same in each
Q4) Which has more skin compared to its body weight?
A)an elephant
B)a mouse
C)both the same
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Liquids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concept of pressure involves both A)force and volume.
B)force and area.
C)area and volume.
Q2) An important condition for operation of the Falkirk Wheel is that A)water in each gondola have the same depth.
B)ships carried are more or less equal in weight.
C)no water spill when a ship enters a gondola.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The attraction between like substances, stickiness, is called A)adhesion.
B)cohesion.
C)depends on the substances.
Q4) Two life preservers have identical volumes, but one is filled with Styrofoam while the other is filled with sand. When the two life preservers are fully submerged, the buoyant force is greater on the one filled with A)Styrofoam.
B)sand.
C)same on each as long as their volumes are the same
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Gases and Plasmas
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Q1) The depth to which an inverted drinking glass must be pushed beneath the water surface to squeeze the enclosed air to half its volume is A)76 cm.
B)10.3 m.
C)14.7 m.
D)20.6 m.
E)29.4 m.
Q2) A column that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere contains a certain mass of air. If the column instead contained the same mass of mercury, its height would be about A)3/4 meter.
B)10.3 meters.
C)5.6 kilometers.
D)none of the above
Q3) The Bernoulli effect causes passing ships to be drawn together when the ships are close and moving in A)the same direction.
B)opposite directions.
C)either of these
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Temperature, Heat, and Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ice floats in water, a small part of it extends above the surface. Interestingly, the volume of ice that extends above the surface is equal to the volume of the
A)water the ice displaces.
B)vast number of open spaces in all the hexagonal ice crystals.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Which of the following normally warms up fastest when heat is applied?
A)water
B)iron
C)glass
D)wood
E)all of the above
Q3) The white-hot sparks from a 4th-of-July-type sparkler that strike your skin transfer
A)little energy to you in spite of their high temperature.
B)little energy to you due to their low temperature.
C)much energy, but at a low temperature.
D)none of the above
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17
Chapter 16: Heat Transfer
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Sample Questions
Q1) If no molecular collisions occurred in a sample of gas, temperature of the gas would A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)be unaffected.
Q2) If the composition of the upper atmosphere were altered to permit a greater amount of terrestrial radiation to escape, Earth would be A)cooler.
B)warmer.
C)quite unaffected.
D)none of the above
Q3) To save energy while you leave your warm house for a half hour on a cold day, turn the thermostat A)down.
B)up.
C)to room temperature.
Q4) If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be A)less than its surroundings.
B)more than its surroundings.
C)the same as its surroundings.
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Chapter 17: Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) To turn 1 gram of boiling water to steam requires
A)almost as much energy as changing 1 gram of 0°C water to the boiling point.
B)as much as increasing 1 kilogram of 95°C water to the boiling point.
C)more energy than needed to turn 1 gram of absolute-zero ice to the boiling point.
D)none of the above
Q2) On a muggy day, water molecules in the air that strike our bodies
A)transfer some of their kinetic energy to us.
B)gain kinetic energy as they change phase.
C)form an insulating layer on our bodies.
Q3) In one word, how can water in the power plant of a nuclear submarine far exceed 100°C?
A)conductivity
B)evaporation
C)condensation
D)pressure
E)vaporization
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19
Chapter 18: Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) To totally convert a given amount of mechanical energy into heat is A)possible.
B)impossible.
C)need more information
D)none of the above
Q2) Your hand is warmed when you blow on it with your mouth open, but when your lips are puckered so that air expands as you blow, your hand is A)warmer still.
B)cooler.
C)neither warmer nor cooler.
Q3) When an ideal gas is subjected to an adiabatic process
A)no work is done on the gas.
B)the temperature of the gas does not change.
C)the internal energy of the gas does not change.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) The amount of energy converted to light by an incandescent light bulb is about A)10% and the amount converted to heat about 90%
B)90% and the amount converted to heat about 10%.
C)either of these depending on the brand.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Vibrations and Waves
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Q1) What is the wave speed of a wave traveling an average distance of 6 meters in one second?
A)less than 0.2 m/s
B)1 m/s
C)3 m/s
D)6 m/s
E)more than 6 m/s
Q2) A node is a position of
A)minimum amplitude.
B)maximum amplitude.
C)half amplitude.
Q3) Both a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave have
A)amplitude.
B)frequency.
C)wavelength.
D)speed.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 20: Sound
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Q1) A piano tuner knows that a key on the piano is tuned to the frequency of a test tuning fork when the fork and key struck at same time produce beats of A)0 Hz.
B)1 Hz.
C)2 Hz.
D)3 Hz.
E)4 Hz.
Q2) The kind of waves that travel fastest through a long metal rod have A)short wavelengths.
B)waves of medium length.
C)long wavelengths.
D)all have the same speed
Q3) The natural frequency of an object depends on its A)size.
B)shape.
C)elasticity.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 21: Musical Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) As we become older, the frequency range of human hearing
A)decreases.
B)increases.
C)remains relatively constant.
Q2) The number of nodes in a standing wave of three wavelengths, not including the endpoints, is
A)2.
B)3.
C)4.
D)5.
E)6.
Q3) How many octaves exist between 100 hertz and 1600 hertz?
A)4
B)5
C)6
D)7
E)8
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Electrostatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direction of an electric field is the direction of the force exerted on A)a neutral test charge.
B)an electron.
C)an atom.
D)a proton.
E)a molecule.
Q2) A common naturally-polarized bit of matter is
A)an electron.
B)a hydrogen atom
C)a water molecule.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) A proton and an electron are placed in an electric field. Which undergoes the greater acceleration?
A)electron
B)proton
C)both accelerate equally.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 23: Electric Current
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Q1) A 100-W lamp glows brighter than a 25-W lamp. The electrical resistance of the 100-W lamp is
A)less.
B)greater.
C)the same.
Q2) If an electric toaster rated at 110 V is accidently plugged into a 220-V outlet, the current drawn by the toaster will be
A)half its normal value.
B)the same as its normal value.
C)twice its normal value.
D)none of the above
Q3) When two lamps are connected in series to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is
A)more than the resistance of either lamp.
B)less than the resistance of either lamp.
C)none of these
Q4) Electric resistance in our skin is lowered when our skin is A)moist.
B)dry.
C)none of the above
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Chapter 24: Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like kinds of magnetic poles repel while unlike kinds of magnetic poles
A)attract.
B)repel also.
C)may attract or repel.
Q2) A current-carrying loop of wire experiences no tendency to rotate in a magnetic field when
A)field lines pass directly through the loop.
B)no field lines pass through the loop.
C)none of these
Q3) Magnetic domains normally occur in A)copper.
B)silver.
C)iron.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) The force that acts between a pair of magnetic poles depends on A)magnetic pole strength.
B)separation distance.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
26
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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction
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Q1) An efficient step-down transformer decreases
A)power.
B)energy.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Electromagnetism unites
A)electricity and magnetism.
B)electric and gravitational fields.
C)physics and biophysics.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Power is transmitted at high voltages because the corresponding current in the wires is
A)also high to deliver appreciable power to distant places.
B)low so that overheating of the wires is minimized.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 26: Properties of Light
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Q1) The round spots of light on the ground beneath a tree on a sunny day are images of A)the openings between leaves above.
B)nothing in particular.
C)the Sun.
Q2) If the color spectrum ranges from red to violet, then it ranges from A)low frequencies to high frequencies.
B)long wavelengths to short wavelengths.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Information-carrying nerves are connected to the retina at the A)fovea.
B)blind spot.
C)cornea.
D)iris.
E)periphery.
Q4) Compared to radio waves, the velocity of visible light waves in a vacuum is A)less.
B)more.
C)the same.
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Chapter 27: Color
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Q1) The darkness of clouds is due to A)absorption.
B)often being in the shadow of another cloud.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) When red, green, and blue lights shine on a golf ball, the shadows cast are
A)red, green, and blue.
B)black.
C)magenta, cyan, and yellow.
D)none of the above
Q3) A mixture of cyan and yellow pigments appears A)orange.
B)green.
C)magenta.
D)blue.
E)blackish-brown.
Q4) Which interacts more with high-frequency sounds?
A)large bells
B)small bells
C)both the same
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Chapter 28: Reflection and Refraction
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Q1) A fish above the surface of water will see better in air if it has goggles that are A)tinted blue.
B)hemispherical.
C)filled with water.
D)extremely shiny.
E)none of the above
Q2) Refraction occurs when light passing from one medium to another A)changes frequency.
B)changes speed.
C)loses energy.
D)reflects inward.
Q3) The inversion of your image in a plane mirror is actually an inversion of A)left-right.
B)up-down.
C)front-back.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 29: Light Waves
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Q1) Light emitted by the Sun is A)polarized.
B)nonpolarized.
C)sometimes polarized.
Q2) A thin film appears yellow when illuminated with white light. The color being cancelled by destructive interference is A)red.
B)green.
C)white.
D)blue.
E)none of the above
Q3) Diffraction from foghorns is best if the waves being diffracted are A)long.
B)short.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q4) For a pair of Polaroids with axes at 45 degrees to each other
A)light will not pass.
B)light that passes is dimmer than for a parallel orientation.
C)another Polaroid is necessary for any light to pass.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Light Emission
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Q1) If the radiation curve for an incandescent lamp filament peaks in the green region, the object would appear
A)red.
B)yellow.
C)green.
D)blue.
E)white.
Q2) Green light emitted by excited mercury vapor corresponds to an energy transition in the mercury atom. A more energetic transition might emit A)red light.
B)blue light.
C)white light.
D)any of these
Q3) White-light LEDs employ A)phosphors.
B)white-emitting diodes.
C)extra-high electrical barriers.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 31: Light Quanta
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Q1) Taking the work function into account, electrons ejected from a photosensitive material have
A)less kinetic energy than the absorbed photon's energy.
B)more kinetic energy than the absorbed photon's energy.
C)kinetic energy equal to the absorbed photon's energy.
Q2) An electron and a baseball move at the same speed. Which has the longer wavelength?
A)the electron
B)the baseball
C)both the same
D)none of the above
Q3) The idea of complementarity is evident in the
A)dual nature of light.
B)notion of opposites being components of a whole.
C)yin-yang symbol of Eastern cultures.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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33
Chapter 32: The Atom and the Quantum
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Sample Questions
Q1) The probability cloud for the electron in the hydrogen atom has an average radius
A)quite different from the radius predicted by Bohr.
B)in agreement with the orbital radius of Bohr.
C)as yet not accurately measured.
Q2) The finding that electrons in an atom occupy a volume much greater than the volume of the nucleus is best explained by
A)electromagnetic forces.
B)angular momentum conservation.
C)relative sizes of electrons and nuclei.
D)the wave nature of the electron.
E)none of the above
Q3) An excited atom decays to its ground state and emits a photon of green light. If instead the decay is to an intermediate state, then the light emitted could be A)red.
B)violet.
C)blue.
D)any of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 33: Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Geiger counter placed 1 meter from a point source of radiation registers 100 counts per minute. If the Geiger counter is moved closer, half-way to the source, the counting rate will be
A)25 counts/min.
B)50 counts/min.
C)100 counts/min.
D)200 counts/min.
E)400 counts/min.
Q2) There is a greater proportion of carbon-14 in A)new bones.
B)old bones.
C)same in each
Q3) When the hydrogen isotope tritium-3 emits a beta particle, it becomes an isotope of A)hydrogen.
B)helium.
C)lithium.
D)carbon.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 34: Nuclear Fission and Fusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although plutonium alone is chemically toxic, it is not toxic when A)oxidized.
B)ionized.
C)subcritical.
D)none of the above
Q2) The fact that more radioactive particles are spewed from coal-fired power plants than nuclear fission reactors is evidence that A)coal is more radioactive than uranium.
B)coal-fired plants have less shielding.
C)coal-fired plants are more numerous.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) A nucleon has more mass on average when it is A)inside the nucleus.
B)removed from the nucleus.
C)both the same
Q4) If gold were used as nuclear fuel, it would be best A)fused.
B)fissioned.
C)either of these
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Special Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relativity equations for time, length and momentum hold true for A)relativistic speeds.
B)everyday low speeds.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) When an electron and a positron meet and annihilate, the mass-energy of the particles is carried away by A)a gamma ray.
B)two gamma rays, otherwise momentum wouldn't be conserved.
C)nothing at all, gone.
Q3) Two spaceships approaching each other move at very close to the speed of light, each sending a beam of light to the other. Each measures the speed of light from the other spaceship as A)slightly less than c. B)c.
C)slightly greater than c. D)much greater than c.
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Chapter 36: General Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a spaceship with an acceleration more than g far from gravitational influences, with the effort it takes on Earth to do 20 pushups, you could comfortably do A)less than 20 pushups.
B)20 pushups.
C)more than 20 pushups.
Q2) If the orbit of Mercury were perfectly circular, its rate of precession would be A)larger.
B)smaller.
C)the same.
D)zero.
Q3) According to general relativity, a photon emitted by a star A)loses energy.
B)reduces in frequency.
C)is red-shifted.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) A profound message from all of science is that we are a part of nature
A)that stands above other life forms.
B)and have the ability to conquer it.
C)that is becoming more and more conscious of itself.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Systems of Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ohm's law tells us that the amount of current produced in a circuit is
A)directly proportional to voltage.
B)inversely proportional to resistance.
C)both of these.
Which means that current in a conductor can be increased by D)increasing the voltage across it
E)reducing its resistance
F)both of these
G)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following has the greater weight?
A)1 kilogram of gold
B)1 kilogram of feathers
C)both weigh the same in the same locality
This follows from the fact that D)gold is more compact than feathers.
E)weight and mass are directly proportional to each other.
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