Introduction to Physics Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physics provides a foundational understanding of the fundamental concepts and principles that govern the natural world. This course explores topics such as motion, forces, energy, matter, waves, electricity, magnetism, and the structure of atoms. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, applying scientific methods, and understanding the relevance of physics in everyday life and technology.
Through a combination of theoretical discussions and practical experiments, students gain insights into how physical laws describe and predict natural phenomena, preparing them for further study in science and engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
College Physics 10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Suppose an equation relating position,x,to time,t,is given by x = b t<sup>3</sup> + c t<sup>4</sup>,where b and c are constants.The dimensions of b and c are respectively:
A) T<sup>3</sup>,T<sup>4</sup>.
B) 1/T<sup>3</sup>,1/T<sup>4</sup>.
C) L/T<sup>3</sup>,L/T<sup>4</sup>.
D) L<sup>2</sup> T<sup>3</sup>,L<sup>2</sup> T<sup>4</sup>.
Answer: C
Q2) Assume everyone in the United States consumes one soft drink in an aluminum can every two days.If there are 280 million Americans,how many tons of aluminum need to be recycled each year if each can weighs 1/17 pound and one ton = 2000 pounds?
A) 412000 tons
B) 1.5 million tons
C) 3 million tons
D) 1 million tons
E) 376000 tons
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Introduction: Part A
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Q1) The information on a one-gallon paint can is that the coverage,when properly applied,is 270 ft<sup>2</sup>.One gallon is 231 in<sup>3</sup>.What is the average thickness of the paint in such an application?
A) 0.0036 in.
B) 0.0059 in.
C) 0.043 in.
D) 0.053 in.
Answer: B
Q2) I walk six miles in a straight line in a direction north of east,and I end up four miles north and several miles east.How many degrees north of east have I walked?
A) 19°
B) 42°
C) 60°
D) 71°
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension
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Q1) Mt.Everest is more than 8 000 m high.How fast would an object be moving if it could free fall to sea level after being released from an 8000-m elevation? (Ignore air resistance. )
A) 396 m/s
B) 120 m/s
C) 1 200 m/s
D) 12 000 m/s
Answer: A
Q2) Two objects of different mass are released simultaneously from the top of a 20-m tower and fall to the ground.If air resistance is negligible,which statement best applies?
A) The greater mass hits the ground first.
B) Both objects hit the ground together.
C) The smaller mass hits the ground first.
D) No conclusion can be made with the information given.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension: Part A
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Q1) The slope of the acceleration-time curve represents:
A) the velocity.
B) the rate of change of acceleration.
C) the rate of change of displacement.
D) the area under the position vs.time curve.
Q2) An astronaut applies a force of 500 N to an asteroid,and it accelerates at 3.00 m/s<sup>2</sup>.What is the asteroid's mass?
A) 1500 kg
B) 135 kg
C) 600 kg
D) 167 kg
Q3) A 7.0-kg bowling ball experiences a net force of 6.0 N.What will be its acceleration?
A) 0.86 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 6.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 7.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 42 m/s<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion
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Q1) Find the resultant of the following two vectors: i)40 units due east and ii)100 units 30° north of west.
A) 100 units 30° north of west
B) 68 units 17° north of west
C) 136 units 43° north of west
D) 68 units 47° north of west
E) 87 units 133° north of west
Q2) An object moves at a constant velocity of 16 m/s to the southwest for an interval of 30 s.Halfway through this interval,what is the magnitude of its instantaneous velocity?
A) It can be any value from 0 to 32 m/s.
B) 16 m/s
C) 8 m/s
D) More information is needed.
E) 32 m/s
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Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion: Part A
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Q1) Hector drives a pickup truck horizontally at 15.0 m/s.He is transporting a crate of delicate lead crystal.If the coefficient of static friction between the crate and the truck bed is 0.300,what is the minimum stopping distance for the truck so the crate will not slide?
A) 28.7 m
B) 51.0 m
C) 38.3 m
D) 44.4 m
Q2) Two blocks,joined by a string,have masses of 6.0 and 9.0 kg.They rest on a frictionless,horizontal surface.A second string,attached only to the 6.0-kg block,has horizontal force = 45 N applied to it.Both blocks accelerate.Find the tension in the string between the blocks.
A) 18 N
B) 27 N
C) 12 N
D) 9.0 N
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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion
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Q1) A girl is using a rope to pull a box that weighs 350 N across a level surface with constant velocity.The rope makes an angle of 30° above the horizontal,and the tension in the rope is 100 N.What is the normal force of the floor on the box?
A) 400 N
B) 250 N
C) 450 N
D) 300 N
E) 263 N
Q2) A cart of weight 25 N is accelerated across a level surface at 0.15 m/s<sup>2</sup>.What net force acts on the wagon? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
A) 36.75 N
B) 0.38 N
C) 3.8 N
D) 17.01 N
E) 166.7 N
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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion: Part A
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Q1) A 150-N sled is pulled up a 28° slope at a constant speed by a force of 120 N.What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between sled and slope?
A) 0.53
B) 0.22
C) 0.37
D) 0.33
Q2) A jet airliner moving at 600 mph due east moves into a region where the wind is blowing at 120 mph in a direction 30.0° north of east.What is the new speed and direction of the aircraft?
A) 706 mph,5.67° N of E
B) 620 mph,5.67° N of E
C) 706 mph,4.87° N of E
D) 588 mph,4.87° N of E
Q3) As I pull a rope connected to a box at constant speed up a frictionless slope,pulling parallel to the slope,the tension in the rope will be:
A) greater than the tension would be if the box were stationary.
B) greater than the weight of the box.
C) equal to the weight of the box.
D) less than the weight of the box.
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Page 10
Chapter 5: Energy
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Q1) Preston pushes a wheelbarrow weighing 490 N to the top of a 45.0-m ramp,inclined at 20.0° with the horizontal,and leaves it.Tamara accidentally bumps the wheelbarrow.It slides back down the ramp,during which an 80.0-N frictional force acts on it over the 45.0 m.What is the wheelbarrow's kinetic energy at the bottom at of the ramp? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
A) 3,942 J
B) 17,120 J
C) 11,142 J
D) 7,542 J
E) 1,231 J
Q2) A Hooke's law spring is mounted horizontally over a frictionless surface.The spring is then compressed a distance d and is used to launch a mass m along the frictionless surface.What compression of the spring would result in the mass attaining double the kinetic energy received in the above situation?
A) 1.41 d
B) 1.73 d
C) 2.00 d
D) 4.00 d
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Chapter 5: Energy: Part A
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Q1) A ventilation fan has blades 0.50 m long rotating at 20 rpm.What is the centripetal acceleration of a point on the outer tip of a blade?
A) 1.1 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 2.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 0.55 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 3.3 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A satellite is in a circular orbit about the Earth at a distance of two Earth radii above the surface.What is the speed of the satellite? (The radius of the Earth is 6.4 × 10<sup>6</sup> m,and G = 6.67 × 10 <sup>11</sup> N × m<sup>2</sup>/kg<sup>2</sup>.
)
A) 2 800 m/s
B) 4 600 m/s
C) 5 600 m/s
D) 16 800 m/s
Q3) At an altitude of 3 times the radius of the Earth,the acceleration due to gravity is A) g/3.
B) g/9.
C) g/27.
D) not given.
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Page 12
Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions
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Q1) A uranium nucleus (mass 238 units)at rest decays into a helium nucleus (mass 4.0 units)and a thorium nucleus (mass 234 units).If the speed of the helium nucleus is 6.5 × 10<sup>5</sup> m/s,what is the speed of the thorium nucleus?
A) 1.1 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s
B) 3,802.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s
C) 1,440.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s
D) 2.1 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s
E) 0.1 × 10<sup>4</sup> m/s
Q2) A model rocket sits on the launch pad until its fuel is ignited,blasting the rocket upward.During the short time of blast-off,as the ignited fuel goes down,the rocket goes up because:
A) the fuel pushes on the ground.
B) air friction pushes on the escaping fuel.
C) the downward force of gravity is less than the downward momentum of the fuel.
D) of none of the above reasons.
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13
Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions: Part A
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Q1) The net force acting on a 6.0-kg object is given by F<sub>x</sub> = (12 - x)N,where F<sub>x</sub> is in newtons and x is in meters.How much work is done on the object as it moves from x = 0 to x = 12 m?
A) 120 J
B) 72 J
C) 36 J
D) 18 J
Q2) A 20-N crate starting at rest slides down a rough 5.0-m long ramp,inclined at 25° with the horizontal.30 J of energy is lost to friction.What will be the speed of the crate at the bottom of the incline?
A) 0.98 m/s
B) 2.1 m/s
C) 3.5 m/s
D) 4.7 m/s
Q3) Which of the following is not true about potential energy?
A) Potential energy is stored energy.
B) Potential energy is related to position.
C) Potential energy is a scalar quantity.
D) Potential energy has direction.
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Page 14
Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity
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Q1) Consider a point on a bicycle wheel as the wheel turns about a fixed axis,neither speeding up nor slowing down.Compare the linear and angular velocities of the point.
A) Both are constant.
B) Only the angular velocity is constant.
C) Only the linear velocity is constant.
D) Neither is constant.
Q2) An Earth satellite is orbiting at a distance from the Earth's surface equal to one Earth radius (4 000 miles).At this location,the acceleration due to gravity is what factor times the value of g at the Earth's surface?
A) There is no acceleration since the satellite is in orbit.
B) 2
C) 1/2
D) 1/4
Q3) In order for a satellite to be geosynchronous,its orbit must:
A) go over the North and South Poles.
B) be over the equator.
C) be over a single longitude.
D) emit television signals.
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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity: Part A
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Q1) A 7.0-kg bowling ball strikes a 2.0-kg pin.The pin flies forward with a velocity of 6.0 m/s;the ball continues forward at 5.0 m/s.What was the original velocity of the ball?
A) 4.0 m/s
B) 5.7 m/s
C) 6.7 m/s
D) 3.3 m/s
Q2) A machine gun is attached to a railroad flatcar that rolls with negligible friction.If the railroad car has a mass of 6.25 × 10<sup>4</sup> kg,how many bullets of mass 25 g would have to be fired at 250 m/s off the back to give the railroad car a forward velocity of 0.3 m/s?
A) 400
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 5000
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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics
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Q1) A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope,which in turn,is wound around a 0.060-m radius cylinder at the top of a well.A crank with a turning radius of 0.5 m is attached to the end of the cylinder.What minimum force directed perpendicular to the crank handle is required to just raise the bucket? (Assume the rope's mass is negligible,that the cylinder turns on frictionless bearings,and that g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>. )
A) 1878 N
B) 3 N
C) 27 N
D) 451 N
E) 7 N
Q2) A Ferris wheel,rotating initially at an angular speed of 0.13 rad/s,accelerates over a 5.0-s interval at a rate of 0.050 rad/s<sup>2</sup>.What is its angular speed after this 5.0-s interval?
A) 0.25 rad/s
B) 0.9 rad/s
C) 0.38 rad/s
D) 0.03 rad/s
E) 0.19 rad/s
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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics:
Part A
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Q1) A ceiling fan is turned on and reaches an angular speed of 120 rev/min in 20 s.It is then turned off and coasts to a stop in an additional 60 s.The ratio of the average angular acceleration for the first 20 s to that for the last 60 s is which of the following?
A) 3
B) -3
C) 0.3
D) -0.3
Q2) A 0.20-m radius grinding wheel starts at rest and develops an angular speed of 12.0 rad/s in 4.0 s.What is the average tangential acceleration of a point on the wheel's edge?
A) 0.45 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 0.60 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 28 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 14 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q3) 1300 rev/min is equivalent to which of the following?
A) 2600 rad/s
B) 136 rad/s
C) 273 rad/s
D) 60 rad/s
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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids
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Q1) The quantity "pressure" expressed in terms of the fundamental quantities (mass,length,time)is equivalent to:
A) MLT <sup>1</sup>.
B) ML <sup>1</sup>T <sup>2</sup>.
C) M<sup>2</sup>L <sup>1</sup>T <sup>3</sup>.
D) a dimensionless quantity.
Q2) Which of the following characterizes the net force on a particle falling through a fluid at its terminal speed?
A) It is at a maximum.
B) It is upwards.
C) It is downwards.
D) It is zero.
Q3) A fountain sends water to a height of 100 m.What must be the pressurization (above atmospheric)of the underground water system? (1 atm = 10<sup>5</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>)
A) 1 atm
B) 44.3 atm
C) 10.8 atm
D) 9.8 atm
E) 0.1 atm
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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids: Part A
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Q1) A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.00 × 10 <sup>2</sup> kg·m<sup>2</sup> and spins freely on a frictionless bearing at 25.0 rev/min.A 0.600-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically on the turntable and sticks at a point 0.100 m from the center.By what factor does the angular momentum of the system change after the putty is dropped onto the turntable?
A) 1.22
B) 1.00 (no change)
C) 0.820
D) 1.20
Q2) A 6.0 kg mass in the xy plane is moving in the negative x direction at 3.0 m/s along the line y = 4.0 m.As the mass passes the point (x,y = 10 m,4.0 m),what is its angular momentum with respect to the z axis?
A) 30 SI units
B) 72 SI units
C) 60 SI units
D) 180 SI units
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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics
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Q1) What happens to its moment of inertia when a steel disk is heated?
A) It increases.
B) It decreases.
C) It stays the same.
D) It increases for half the temperature increase and then decreases for the rest of the temperature increase.
Q2) Between 0° and 4°C,the volume coefficient of expansion for water: A) is positive.
B) is zero.
C) is becoming less dense.
D) is negative.
Q3) A 3-L container holds half a mole of an ideal gas at a pressure of 12 atm.What is the gas temperature? (R = 0.082 1 L atm/mol K)
A) 439 K
B) 659 K
C) 1,098 K
D) 878 K
E) 549 K
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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics: Part A
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Q1) The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has an area of 4.0 m<sup>2</sup>,and the boat's mass is 120 kg.When set afloat in water,how far below the water surface is the boat bottom? (water density = 1.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>)
A) 0.060 m
B) 0.015 m
C) 0.030 m
D) 0.075 m
Q2) By what factor is the total pressure greater at a depth of 650 m in water than at the surface where the pressure is one atmosphere? (water density = 1.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>,1 atmosphere pressure = 1.01 × 10<sup>5</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>,and g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
A) 100
B) 83
C) 64
D) 19
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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal Energy
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Q1) The emissivity of an ideal reflector has which of the following values?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 100
D) infinity
Q2) Sea breezes that occur near the shore are attributed to a difference between land and water with respect to what property?
A) mass density
B) coefficient of volume expansion
C) specific heat
D) emissivity
Q3) The first experiment,which systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat,was performed by:
A) Joule.
B) Boltzmann.
C) Thompson,Count Rumford.
D) Kelvin.
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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal
Energy: Part A
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Q1) A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of 4.0 Hz and an amplitude of 5.0 cm.If a timer is started when its displacement is a maximum (hence x = 5 cm when t = 0),what is the acceleration magnitude when t = 3 s?
A) 31.6 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 15.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 10.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) zero
Q2) How large a force is necessary to stretch a 2.0 mm radius steel wire (Y = 2.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>)by 2.0%?
A) 5.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> N
B) 2.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> N
C) 2.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
D) 1.3 × 10<sup>4</sup> N
Q3) A large spring requires a force of 100 N to compress it only 0.010 m.What is the spring constant of the spring?
A) 1.0 N/m
B) 100 N/m
C) 10,000 N/m
D) 100,000 N/m
Page 24
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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in Thermodynamic Processes
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Q1) A turbine takes in 1,200-K steam and exhausts the steam at a temperature of 300 K.What is the maximum theoretical efficiency of this system?
A) 56%
B) 42%
C) 75%
D) 32%
E) 24%
Q2) A quantity of monatomic ideal gas expands adiabatically from a volume of 2.4 liters to 6.7 liters.If the initial pressure is P<sub>0</sub>,what is the final pressure?
A) 2.79 P<sub>0</sub>
B) 5.53 P<sub>0</sub>
C) 5.58 P<sub>0</sub>
D) 0.18 P<sub>0</sub>
E) 0.36 P<sub>0</sub>
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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in
Thermodynamic Processes: Part A
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Q1) The superposition principle has to do with which of the following?
A) effects of waves at great distances
B) the ability of some waves to move very far
C) how displacements of interacting waves add together
D) relativistic wave behavior
Q2) A musical tone,sounded on a piano,has a frequency of 820 Hz and a wavelength in air of 0.400 m.What is the wave speed?
A) 587 m/s
B) 328 m/s
C) 235 m/s
D) 170 m/s
Q3) A string with fixed ends is made to go into standing wave patterns.At a given tension,the lowest frequency for which such a pattern exists is 150 Hz.Which of the following frequencies would also cause a standing wave pattern in this case?
A) 250 Hz
B) 500 Hz
C) 750 Hz
D) All of the above frequencies will cause a standing wave pattern in this case.
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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves
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Q1) The oxygen molecule (O<sub>2</sub>)may be regarded as two masses connected by a spring.In vibrational motion,each oxygen atom alternately approaches,then moves away from the center of mass of the system.If each oxygen atom of mass m = 2.67 × 10 <sup>26</sup> kg has a vibrational energy of 1.6 × 10 <sup>21</sup> J and the effective spring constant is 100 N/m,then what is the amplitude of oscillation of each oxygen atom?
A) 3.2 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
B) 1.6 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
C) 1.1 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
D) 5.7 × 10 <sup>12</sup> m
E) 4 × 10 <sup>12</sup> m
Q2) For a wave traveling in a string,by what factor would the tension need to be increased to quinary the wave speed?
A) 2.2
B) 5
C) 25
D) 125
E) 625
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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves: Part A
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Q1) A chamber that can be filled with different gases has placed in it a source of sound that in air produces a frequency of 200 Hz and a microphone to pick up the sound for frequency analysis.First the chamber is filled with helium (speed of sound 1 000 m/s at room conditions),then the helium is replaced with oxygen (speed of sound 330 m/s at room conditions),and then finally the helium is replaced with carbon dioxide (speed of sound 269 m/s at room conditions).In which gas is the highest frequency of sound found by the microphone during this experiment?
A) helium
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) They all have the same frequency of sound.
Q2) A sound wave in air has a frequency of 515 Hz and a wavelength of 0.68 m.What is the air temperature?
A) -18°C
B) 32°C
C) 15°C
D) 27°C
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Chapter 14: Sound
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a sound level of intensity 1 W/m<sup>2</sup>?
A) extremely loud
B) about that of a power mower
C) normal conversation
D) like a whisper
Q2) If the intensity of a sound is increased by a factor of 100,how is the decibel level changed? The new decibel level will be:
A) two units greater.
B) double the old one.
C) ten times greater.
D) twenty units greater.
Q3) The density of a certain metal solid is 7 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>,and its Young's modulus is 13 × 10<sup>10</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>.What is the speed of sound in this metal?
A) 1.4 × 10<sup>7</sup> m/s
B) 4,400 m/s
C) 4,300 m/s
D) 4,000 m/s
E) 1.4 × 10<sup>3</sup> m/s
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Page 29
Chapter 14: Sound: Part A
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Q1) A steel wire,100 m long at 10°C,has a coefficient of linear expansion of 11 × 10 <sup>6</sup>/°C.Give its change in length as the temperature changes from 10°C to 45°C.
A) 0.65 cm
B) 3.8 cm
C) 5.8 cm
D) 12 cm
Q2) A rectangular steel plate with dimensions of 60 cm × 25 cm is heated from 20°C to 150°C.What is its change in area? (Coefficient of linear expansion for steel is 11 × 10 <sup>6</sup>/°C. )
A) 0.82 cm<sup>2</sup>
B) 1.1 cm<sup>2</sup>
C) 4.3 cm<sup>2</sup>
D) 6.6 cm<sup>2</sup>
Q3) In typical calorimetry problems,what is the usual conservation law being used?
A) energy
B) heat
C) temperature
D) None since nothing is being conserved.
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Page 30
Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields
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Q1) Two point charges are 6 cm apart.They are moved to a new separation of 2 cm.By what factor does the resulting mutual force between them change?
A) 1/3
B) 3
C) 1/9
D) 9
E) 2
Q2) A charge Q accumulates on the hollow metallic dome,of radius R,of a Van de Graaff generator.A probe measures the electric field strength at various points outside the sphere surface.By what factor will the electric field value at the 2R distance be changed if the charge value were increased to (9/4)Q?
A) (9/4)<sup>2</sup>
B) 9/4
C) 4/9
D) (4/9)<sup>2</sup>
E) 9
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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields: Part A
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Q1) In the relationship P T ,what scale is used for temperature?
A) Fahrenheit
B) Celsius
C) Kelvin
D) Both Celsius and Kelvin may be used since the degree size is the same for both.
Q2) With molar quantity and temperature held constant,by what factor does the pressure of an ideal gas change when the volume is four times bigger?
A) 16
B) 4
C) 1/4
D) 1/16
Q3) The value 1.38 × 10 <sup>23</sup> J/K is known as:
A) the universal gas constant.
B) Boltzmann's constant.
C) Avogadro's number.
D) the molar specific.
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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance
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Q1) If two parallel,conducting plates have equal positive charge,the electric field lines will:
A) leave one plate and go straight to the other plate.
B) leave both plates and go to infinity.
C) enter both plates from infinity.
D) none of the above.
Q2) The unit of electrical potential,the volt,is dimensionally equivalent to:
A) J C.
B) J/C.
C) C/J.
D) F C.
Q3) Consider two charged spheres,one with charge +2 C and the other with 2 C.A proton (a positively charged particle)is at the point halfway between the spheres.What is not zero?
A) the potential energy of the proton
B) the work to move the proton from infinity to that point
C) the force on the proton
D) all of the three above are zero
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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance: Part A
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Q1) You have a PV diagram for a device going through a cyclic process forming a closed loop on the diagram.How can you tell from the diagram whether the device is acting as a heat engine and not as a refrigerator?
A) The loop is longer than it is high which means it is acting as a refrigerator.
B) The loop is higher than it is long which means it is acting as a refrigerator.
C) The loop proceeds clockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.
D) The loop proceeds counterclockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.
Q2) In an isobaric process 3.6 × 10<sup>4</sup> J of work is done on a quantity of gas while its volume changes from 2.3 m<sup>3</sup> to 1.1 m<sup>3</sup>.What is the pressure during this process?
A) 1.2 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa
B) 2.4 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa
C) 3.0 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa
D) 8.3 × 10<sup>4</sup> Pa
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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current
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Q1) The temperature coefficient of resistivity is a quantity that is:
A) always positive.
B) always non-negative.
C) sometimes negative.
D) represented by the symbol .
Q2) An electric car is designed to run off a bank of 12-V batteries with total energy storage of 3.0 × 10<sup>7</sup> J.If the electric motor draws 5,400 W,what current will be delivered to the motor?
A) 450 A
B) 225 A
C) 675 A
D) 338 A
E) 113 A
Q3) The quantity volt is equivalent to which of the following?
A) J m
B) J C
C) C/
D) J/C
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Page 35
Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current: Part A
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Q1) If two 1.0-C charges have a force between them of 1.0 N,what is their separation?
A) 8.1 × 10<sup>19</sup> m
B) 1.0 m
C) 9.5 × 10<sup>4</sup> m
D) 9.0 × 10<sup>10</sup> m
Q2) An electron with a speed of 2.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> m/s moves into a uniform electric field of 325 N/C that is parallel to the electron's motion.How long does it take to bring the electron to rest? (me = 9.11 × 10 <sup>31</sup> kg,e = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)
A) 3.5 × 10 <sup>8</sup> s
B) 2.3 × 10 <sup>6</sup> s
C) 2.3 × 10 <sup>8</sup> s
D) 1.2 × 10 <sup>7</sup> s
Q3) About how many electrons are in 0.3 gram of water (H<sub>2</sub>O)?
A) 10<sup>23</sup>
B) 10<sup>21</sup>
C) 10<sup>25</sup>
D) 10<sup>19</sup>
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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF
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Q1) A voltage source of 15 V is connected to a series RC circuit where R = 2 × 10<sup>6</sup> ,and C = 1 µF.Find the amount of time required for the current in the circuit to decay to 6% of its original value.Hint: This is the same amount of time for the capacitor to reach 94% of its maximum charge.
A) 1.6 s
B) 3.6 s
C) 0.5 s
D) 5.6 s
E) 11.2 s
Q2) A series RC circuit,which is made from a battery,a switch,a resistor,and a 5- F capacitor,has a time constant of 8 ms.If an additional 7- F is added in series to the 5- F capacitor,what is the resulting time constant?
A) 11.2 ms
B) 4.7 ms
C) 0.5 ms
D) 13.7 ms
E) This cannot be found without the value of the resistance being given.
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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF: Part A
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Q1) A 0.50- F capacitor is connected to a 400-V battery.What potential energy is stored in the capacitor?
A) 0.020 J
B) 0.040 J
C) 1.0 × 10 <sup>4</sup> J
D) 1.2 × 10 <sup>12</sup> J
Q2) If the plane x = 4 m is an equipotential surface,in which of the following directions can the electric field be in the region immediately adjacent to this plane?
A) the positive y direction
B) both the positive and negative z directions
C) the positive x direction
D) more than one of these choices
Q3) If a doubly-ionized oxygen atom is accelerated from rest by going through a potential difference of 10 V,what will be the change in its kinetic energy?
A) 10 eV
B) 40 eV
C) 20 eV
D) none of the above
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Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets
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Q1) A proton is released such that it has an initial speed of 3.7 × 10<sup>5</sup> m/s from left to right across the page.A magnetic field of 1.5 T is present at an angle of 18° to the horizontal direction (or positive x axis).What is the magnitude of the force experienced by the proton? (q<sub>p</sub> = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)
A) 4.4E-33 N
B) 2.0E-33 N
C) 2.7E-14 N
D) 6.7E-14 N
E) 8.4E-14 N
Q2) Different units can be used to measure the same physical quantity,differing only by some multiplicative factor.The cgs unit for magnetic field,the gauss,is equal to ________ tesla.
A) 10<sup>4</sup>
B) 10<sup>-4</sup>
C) 0.5
D) These units do not measure the same physical quantity.
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Page 39
Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets: Part A
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Q1) A solar panel measures 80 cm × 50 cm.In direct sunlight,the panel delivers 4.8 A at 15 V.If the intensity of sunlight is 1000 W/m<sup>2</sup>,what is the efficiency of the solar panel in converting solar energy into electrical energy?
A) 12%
B) 24%
C) 18%
D) 6.0%
Q2) When a 24.0- resistor is connected across a 12.0-V battery,a current of 410 mA flows.What is the resulting terminal voltage of the battery?
A) 11.6 V
B) 9.8 V
C) 0.4 V
D) 12.0 V
Q3) Four 8.0- resistors are connected in parallel.What is their equivalent resistance?
A) 4.0
B) 0.50
C) 2.0
D) 32
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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance
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Q1) The "back emf" of a motor refers to a source of voltage that:
A) occurs when the motor runs backwards.
B) occurs when the motor is used as a generator.
C) is biggest when the current through the motor is biggest.
D) is biggest when the motor turns fastest.
Q2) When a voltage is generated by rotating a coil in a magnetic field at a constant rate,the period of the voltage equals the time that it takes for the coil to rotate through ________ radians.
A) 1
B) /2
C)
D) 2
Q3) The self-inductance of a solenoid increases under which of the following conditions?
A) Only the solenoid length is increased.
B) Only the cross sectional area is decreased.
C) Only the number of coils per unit length is decreased.
D) Only the number of coils is increased.
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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance: Part A
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Q1) A horizontal wire of length 3.6 m carries a current of 6.0 A and is oriented so that the current direction is 50° S of W.The Earth's magnetic field is due north at this point and has a strength of 0.14 × 10 <sup>4</sup> T.What is the direction of the force on the wire?
A) 40° S of E
B) out of the Earth's surface
C) toward the Earth's surface D) due east
Q2) A current-carrying wire of length 50 cm is positioned perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field.If the current is 10.0 A and it is determined that there is a resultant force of 7.5 N on the wire due to the interaction of the current and field,what is the magnetic field strength?
A) 1.8 × 10<sup>-3</sup> T
B) 1.5 T
C) 6.7 × 10<sup>-3</sup> T
D) 0.60 T
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42
Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves
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Q1) An electromagnetic wave with a peak magnetic field component of 1.06 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T carries what average power per unit area? ( <sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T m/A, <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10 <sup>12</sup> C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup> and c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 4.21 W/m<sup>2</sup>
B) 2.68 W/m<sup>2</sup>
C) 1.34 W/m<sup>2</sup>
D) 1.27 W/m<sup>2</sup>
E) 2.53 W/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) An AM radio tuning circuit has a coil with an inductance of 1.65 mH and a capacitor set at 7.01 × 10 <sup>6</sup> F.What frequency will it detect?
A) 1236 kHz
B) 1480 kHz
C) 2470 kHz
D) 236 kHz
E) 740 kHz
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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic
Waves: Part A
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Q1) The magnetic field inside a circular loop of wire of radius 30 cm increases at a constant rate from 2.0 × 10<sup>-3</sup> T to 3.5 × 10<sup>-3</sup> T in 0.47 s.If the resistance of the loop is 0.31 ,what is the current in the loop?
A) 7.4 × 10<sup>-4</sup> A
B) 5.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup> A
C) 2.9 × 10<sup>-3</sup> A
D) 5.8 × 10<sup>-3</sup> A
Q2) An RL circuit has L = 0.40 H and R = 5.0 .It is connected to a battery with = 22 V at time t = 0.Find the energy stored in the inductor when the current in the circuit is 2.3 A.
A) 5.0 J
B) 2.0 J
C) 50 mJ
D) 1.1 J
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Page 44
Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light
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Q1) White light is sent through a prism,and the various colors are separated in typical fashion.Which of the following colors would have the highest index of refraction in this prism?
A) red
B) green
C) yellow
D) blue
Q2) A certain kind of glass has n<sub>blue</sub> = 1.650 for blue light and n<sub>red</sub> = 1.610 for red light.If a beam of white light (containing all colors)is incident at an angle of 60°,what is the angle between the red and blue light inside the glass?
A) 0.90°
B) 0.88°
C) 59°
D) 0.27°
E) 89°
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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light: Part A
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Q1) In an AC circuit operating at a frequency where the phase angle with respect to the current is 30°,what happens to the phase angle if the capacitance of the circuit is increased?
A) It increases.
B) It decreases.
C) nothing
D) It decreases and can become zero.
Q2) An AC power generator produces 25 A (rms)at 3600 V.The energy is transmitted through a long-distance power line,which has a total resistance of 50 .What percentage of the power delivered by the generator is dissipated as heat in the long-distance line if a step-up transformer is not used?
A) 69%
B) 35%
C) 0.09%
D) 1.8%
Q3) The peak voltage of an AC source is 400 V.What is the rms voltage?
A) 100 V
B) 200 V
C) 141 V
D) 283 V
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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses
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Q1) Two convex thin lenses with focal lengths 9.0 cm and 24.0 cm are aligned on a common axis,running left to right,the 9-cm lens being on the left.A distance of 24.0 cm separates the lenses.An object is located at a distance of 14.0 cm to the left of the 9-cm lens.Where will the final image appear as measured from the 24-cm lens?
A) - 1.26 cm
B) + 81.1 cm
C) + 1.26 cm
D) + 49.8 cm
E) - 81.1 cm
Q2) Two thin lenses,with focal lengths of 22.0 cm and -40.0 cm are placed in contact in an orientation so that their optic axes coincide.What is the focal length of the two in combination? {Hint: A thin lens is one whose thickness is negligible).
A) 14.2 cm
B) 62.0 cm
C) 18.0 cm
D) 48.9 cm
E) -48.9 cm
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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses: Part A
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Q1) A radio wave signal,which transmits at a frequency of 10.4 MHz,has what wavelength?
(c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 28.8 m
B) 2.4 × 10 <sup>2</sup> m
C) 4.17 m
D) 41.7 m
Q2) A 6.0-J pulse of light from a laser has what momentum?
A) Light does not have momentum because it doesn't have mass.
B) 3.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> kg·m/s
C) 6.7 × 10<sup>-9</sup> kg·m/s
D) 2.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup> kg·m/s
Q3) Why are sound waves not polarizable?
A) Because they are not electromagnetic.
B) They are not transverse.
C) They are not longitudinal.
D) But this is readily possible!
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Chapter 24: Wave Optics
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Q1) A Young's double-slit experiment is performed in air and then the apparatus is submerged in water.What happens to the fringe separation,and what can be used to explain the change,if any?
A) The separation stays the as it is the same experiment independent of the medium.
B) The separation decreases because the frequency of the light decreases in the water.
C) The separation increases because the wavelength of the light increases in the water.
D) The separation decreases because the wavelength of the light decreases in the water.
Q2) A silicon monoxide (n = 1.45)film of 288.9 nm thickness is used to coat a glass camera lens (n = 1.56).What wavelength of light in the visible region (390 to 710 nm)will be most efficiently transmitted by this system? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 419 nm
B) 447 nm
C) 559 nm
D) 473 nm
E) 660 nm
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Chapter 24: Wave Optics: Part A
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Q1) When light goes through two or more separated lenses,
A) the image distance of the first lens (the one nearest the object)will be positive.
B) the final image can be inverted.
C) the image distance of the first lens will be the object distance for the second lens.
D) the object distance for the second lens will be negative.
Q2) An underwater scuba diver sees the Sun at an apparent angle of 45.0° from the vertical.How far is the sun above the horizon? (n<sub>water</sub> = 1.333)
A) 19.5°
B) 68.0°
C) 48.2°
D) 41.8°
Q3) Which of the following best describes the image from a plane mirror?
A) virtual and magnification equal to one
B) real and magnification equal to one
C) real and magnification less than one
D) virtual and magnification greater than one
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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments
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Q1) What must be the resolving power of a grating allowing a spectral line at 683.80 nm to be distinguished from another line differing by 0.33 nm? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 2,100
B) 46
C) 4,300,000
D) 230
E) 684
Q2) A camera uses a:
A) converging lens to form a real image.
B) converging lens to form an imaginary image.
C) diverging lens to form a real image.
D) diverging lens to form an imaginary image.
Q3) A diverging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?
A) myopia
B) presbyopia
C) hyperopia
D) astigmatism
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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments: Part A
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Q1) That all points on a wave front act as new sources of spherical waves is attributed to: A) Maxwell.
B) Young.
C) Thomas.
D) Huygens.
Q2) A Young's double-slit apparatus is set up so that a screen is positioned 1.6 m from the double slits,and the spacing between the two slits is 0.0315 mm.What is the distance between alternating bright fringes on the screen if the light source has a wavelength of 630 nm? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 0.016 m
B) 0.047 m
C) 0.025 m
D) 0.032 m
Q3) A diffraction grating has 2500 lines/cm.What is the slit separation?
A) 4.0 m
B) 250 nm
C) 400 nm
D) 2.5 m
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Chapter 26: Relativity
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Q1) At what speed would a clock have to be moving in order to run at a rate that is one-fourth the rate of a clock at rest?
A) 0.87 c
B) 0.75 c
C) 0.97 c
D) 0.50 c
E) 0.26 c
Q2) A space probe has an 15.6-m length when measured at rest.What length does an observer at rest measure when the probe is going by at a speed of 0.740 c?
A) 23.2 m
B) 10.5 m
C) 8.0 m
D) 11.5 m
E) 21.1 m
Q3) Doubling the momentum of:
A) a particle doubles its relativistic total energy.
B) a particle quadruples its relativistic total energy.
C) a photon doubles its relativistic total energy.
D) a photon quadruples its relativistic total energy.
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Page 53
Chapter 26: Relativity: Part A
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Q1) A 1.5-m tall woman stands 5.0 m in front of a camera with a 8.0 cm focal length lens.What is the size of the image formed on film?
A) 2.4 cm
B) 0.60 cm
C) 1.9 cm
D) 1.2 cm
Q2) Halving the focal length of a telephoto lens,while holding aperture size constant,will change the light intensity admitted to the film by what factor?
A) 0.50
B) 2.0
C) 0.25
D) 4.0
Q3) A magnifying lens with a focal length of 10 cm has what maximum magnification? (Assume the near point is 25 cm).Do not use the approximation formula.
A) 3.5
B) 2.5
C) 7.1
D) 3.0
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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis
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Q1) Light of wavelength 521 nm is incident on a target metal that has a work function of 1.6 eV.What stopping potential is required for this combination in a phototube? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 <sup>19</sup> J,and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 4.0 V
B) 0.8 V
C) 2.0 V
D) 0.4 V
E) 2.4 V
Q2) The "seeing" ability or resolution of radiation is determined by its wavelength.If the size of an atom is approximately 1.3 × 10 <sup>10</sup> m,how fast must an electron travel to have a wavelength smaller than that of an atom? (m<sub>e</sub> = 9.11 × 10 <sup>31</sup> kg and h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s)
A) 5.6E+6 m/s
B) 5.1E+7 m/s
C) 8.4E+5 m/s
D) 9.5E+6 m/s
E) 2.4E+3 m/s
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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks
Hypothesis: Part A
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Q1) A knight on horseback holds a 10-m lance.The horse can run at 0.78c.(It wins most of its races!)How long will the lance appear to a person that is standing still on the ground as the horse runs past?
A) 7.1 m
B) 15 m
C) 10 m
D) 6.3 m
Q2) If a proton with mass 1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg moves in an accelerator such that its total energy is two times its rest energy,what is its speed? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 1.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s
B) 2.83 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s
C) 1.41 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s
D) 2.60 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s
Q3) At what speed is the momentum of an object triple that found classically?
A) c/3
B) 0.942 c
C) 0.866c
D) 2c/3
Page 56
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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics
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Q1) The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the orbital quantum number = 6,there are permitted how many possible substates?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 26
D) 13
E) 36
Q2) In the Bohr model of the atom,the orbits where electrons move fastest:
A) have the lowest energy.
B) have the highest energy.
C) have the biggest radius.
D) have the greatest angular momentum.
Q3) In an x-ray machine,electrons are accelerated and then fired so that they are incident on a metal target.Which part of the process produces the characteristic x-ray spectra?
A) The incident electron loses energy.
B) The incident electron knocks an electron out of one of the metal atoms.
C) A vacancy in an energy level in a metal atom is filled.
D) The incident electron emits an x-ray.
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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics: Part A
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Q1) A light-emitting diode has a power output of 0.3 W.If 590 nm is the average wavelength of the source,about how many photons are emitted per second? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 10<sup>21</sup>
B) 10<sup>25</sup>
C) 10<sup>18</sup>
D) 10<sup>29</sup>
Q2) What potential difference is needed to accelerate a proton from rest to give it a wavelength of 2.00 × 10<sup>-12</sup> m?
A) 411 V
B) 206 V
C) 1650 V
D) 617 V
Q3) Which change will not affect the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emitted in the photoelectric effect?
A) changing the frequency of the light
B) changing the metal the light is hitting
C) changing the brightness of the light
D) All of the above will affect the electron's kinetic energy.
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Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics
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Q1) Genetic radiation damage is:
A) another name for somatic damage.
B) any radiation damage to a cell.
C) radiation damage affecting reproductive cells.
D) measured in roentgens.
Q2) The alpha emission process results in the daughter nucleus differing in what manner from the parent?
A) Atomic mass increases by one.
B) Atomic number decreases by two.
C) Atomic number increases by one.
D) Atomic mass decreases by two.
Q3) The Q of a nuclear reaction is equal to:
A) the total charge involved.
B) energy associated with the change in mass.
C) energy associated with momentum conservation.
D) the exothermic endothermy.
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Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics: Part A
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Q1) Magnesium has atomic number 12.In its ground state,how many electrons are in its n = 3 shell?
A) 2
B) 8
C) 16
D) 10
Q2) For n = 5,how many allowed values are possible for the orbital quantum number and the orbital magnetic quantum number?
A) 5,11
B) 6,12
C) 5,9
D) 4,9
Q3) When a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon that raises it to the n = 4 state,what is the least number of photons that can be emitted by that atom as it returns to the ground state?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 5
D) The correct value is not given.
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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles
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Q1) Which of the following is not a meson?
A) the muon
B) the pion
C) the kaon
D) All of the above are mesons.
Q2) The weak force is mediated by:
A) the W<sup>+</sup> boson.
B) the W<sup>-</sup> boson.
C) the Z<sup>0</sup> boson.
D) All of the above.
Q3) If the lifetime of a particle is roughly inversely proportional to the relative strength of the force involved,then for the strong,electromagnetic,and weak forces,arrange the forces according to their resulting lifetimes ranging from shortest to longest lifetimes.
A) strong,electromagnetic,weak
B) weak,electromagnetic,strong
C) weak,strong,electromagnetic
D) strong,weak,electromagnetic
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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles: Part
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Q1) The energy released from a nuclear reaction is equal to:
A) energy associated with momentum conservation.
B) the exothermic endothermy.
C) energy associated with the change in mass.
D) the total charge involved.
Q2) The half-life of <sup>19</sup>N is 0.42 s.What is the decay constant for this isotope?
A) 1.7 × 10<sup>-11</sup> Ci
B) 1.7 s<sup>-1</sup>
C) 1.1 s<sup>-1</sup>
D) The decay constant is not defined for a half-life of less than one second.
Q3) Tritium has a half-life of 12.3 years.How many years will elapse when the radioactivity of a tritium sample diminishes to 30% of its original value?
A) 29 years
B) 21 years
C) 86 years
D) 57 years
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Chapter 31: Particle Collisions, Mediating Photons, and Quark Structures: Exploring the Fundamentals of Physics
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Q1) The microwave background radiation:
A) represents the leftover glow from the Big Bang.
B) had its slight non-uniformity measured by COBE.
C) was discovered by Penzias and Wilson.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following forces is the strongest at near distances?
A) gravitational
B) weak nuclear
C) strong nuclear
D) electromagnetic
Q3) Processes in which one type of quark is converted into another type of quark involve which force?
A) electromagnetic
B) strong force
C) weak force
D) gravitational
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