Introduction to Physical Therapy Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physical Therapy provides students with an overview of the physical therapy profession, exploring its history, development, and contemporary scope of practice. The course covers foundational principles, including basic anatomical and physiological concepts relevant to movement and function, as well as common assessment and intervention strategies used in physical therapy. Emphasis is placed on patient-centered care, ethical and legal considerations, interprofessional collaboration, and communication skills. Students gain insight into various practice settings, specializations, and the role of physical therapists in injury prevention, rehabilitation, and health promotion. Through lectures, discussions, and practical observations, students are introduced to the responsibilities and impact of physical therapists within the broader healthcare system.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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17 Chapters
315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
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Page 2
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of energy does diathermy use to heat biological tissues?
A) High-frequency sound waves
B) Electromagnetic radiation
C) Compressive and distractive forces
D) Convective currents
Answer: B
Q2) Why is pregnancy widely considered a contraindication to the use of modalities?
A) Ligamentous laxity during pregnancy may be increased.
B) Effectiveness of modalities during pregnancy has not been determined.
C) The effect of modalities on fetal development is unknown.
D) Pregnant patients cannot be properly positioned to receive modality treatments. Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following outcomes is most recommended for determining the effectiveness of therapeutic modalities?
A) Pain reduction
B) Functional improvements
C) Changes in range of motion
D) Reduction of stiffness
Answer: B
3
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Chapter 2: Cold Therapy Modalities
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the presence of thick adipose tissue under the skin tend to block decreases in tissue temperature when cryotherapy is applied to the skin?
A) Adipose tissue has a low thermal conductivity.
B) Resting membrane currents are higher.
C) Adipose tissue has no thermal sensory receptors.
D) More blood flows to the skin through capillaries in adipose tissue.
Answer: A
Q2) The addition of compression to cold therapy can improve which of the following?
A) Microcirculation and tissue oxygenation
B) Vasoconstriction and histamine release
C) Nerve conduction velocity and tissue hypoxia
D) Analgesia and edema formation
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists contraindications for cold therapy?
A) Severe acute pain, joint effusion, muscle atrophy
B) Postoperative swelling, paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, neurapraxia
C) Open wound, cold urticaria, peripheral vascular disease
D) Raynaud's phenomenon, upper motor neuron lesion, decreased joint range of motion
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Therapeutic Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research studies on the effectiveness of paraffin for treatment of rheumatic arthritis found which of the following?
A) Pain and swelling were exacerbated following application of paraffin.
B) Paraffin combined with exercises provided beneficial short-term effects.
C) Patients were unable to tolerate the higher temperature of a paraffin bath.
D) Research is inconclusive and more studies are needed.
Answer: B
Q2) How does the application of heat to the body cause vasodilation of blood vessels remote from the application site?
A) Axon reflex
B) Release of chemical mediators
C) Increased postganglionic sympathetic adrenergic nerve activity
D) Local spinal cord reflex
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding air-activated heat wraps?
A) They maintain a temperature of 40°C up to 8 hours.
B) Air activates small magnetic coils in the wraps, which produce heat.
C) They can be reused up to five times after activation.
D) They provide a comfortable prolonged low-level moist heat.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The optimal intensity to achieve a heating effect of US in muscle tissue is
A) 1 watt/cm²
B) 1.5 watts/cm²
C) 2 watts/cm²
D) There is no optimal intensity because the intensity must be adjusted to meet the needs of the specific patient and the characteristics of the specific US device.
Q2) A common mistake made by therapists in heating a tissue using ultrasound is
A) Selecting the incorrect frequency
B) Selecting the incorrect applicator size
C) Selecting the incorrect mode: pulsed or continuous
D) Applying US over too large of an area
Q3) The optimal coupling medium used to apply ultrasound is
A) Regular tap water
B) Creams and ointments
C) Ultrasonic gel
D) There is no difference between any of these coupling media in terms of the efficiency of transmission of ultrasonic energy.
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6
Chapter 5: Hydrotherapy: the Use of Water As a Therapeutic Agent
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been using pulsed lavage with suction (PLWS) for a patient with a noninfected venous ulcer. You have noted no increase in new granulation tissue in the wound for 1 week. Which of the following is most appropriate at this time?
A) Increase treatment pressure to 20 psi and continue daily PLWS treatments.
B) Discontinue PLWS and consult with the patient's physician.
C) Debride 50% of the granulation tissue and resume PLWS.
D) Discontinue PLWS and start warm whirlpool treatments for the wound.
Q2) Your patient is a 64-year-old female with chronic back pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate hydrotherapy intervention for this patient?
A) Floating on her stomach in a pool while performing arm and leg raises
B) Swimming laps in a pool using standard overhead freestyle stroke
C) Sitting in a low-boy whirlpool with warm water with the agitation directed at her back
D) Floating on her back in a pool while performing arm and leg exercises
Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for pool therapy?
A) Fear of losing balance or sinking in water
B) History of seizures currently under control with anti-seizure medication
C) Impaired cognitive function
D) Decompensated congestive heart failure
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Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Modalities: Laser, Diathermy, and
Pulsed Electromagnetic Fields
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modalities would be the best choice to heat the posterior hip joint capsule prior to joint mobilization?
A) Pulsed electromagnetic fields (PEMFs)
B) Continuous shortwave diathermy (CSWD)
C) Low-level laser therapy (LLLT)
D) 3 MHz continuous ultrasound
Q2) Which is true regarding pulsed shortwave diathermy (PSWD)?
A) Mild heat sensation occurs when the mean power of PSWD exceeds 38 watts.
B) The power output monitor on the device is more accurate than patient perception of tissue heating.
C) The amount of heating of tissues is inversely related to tissue resistance.
D) PSWD is capable of performing vigorous heating of soft tissue.
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes the inductive method of diathermy?
A) Creation of electromagnetic eddy currents in conductive tissues
B) Preferential heating of tissues with high electrical resistance
C) Induction of capacitive currents around the electrical field
D) Body part between electrodes becomes part of the electrical field
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Spinal Traction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanical traction is unlikely to be effective in achieving which of the following?
A) Separation of vertebral bodies
B) Distraction of vertebral facet joints
C) Stretching of soft tissues of the spine
D) Permanent reduction of herniated nucleus pulposus
Q2) The most commonly used parameters for cervical traction are which of the following?
A) Neutral cervical spine, intermittent, up to 50 pounds
B) Cervical flexion of 15 to 35 degrees, constant, no more than weight of the head (about 10 to 15 pounds)
C) Extension of the upper cervical spine, intermittent, 15 to 30 pounds
D) Cervical flexion, intermittent, 10 to 25 pounds
Q3) A recently published clinical prediction rule for cervical traction includes which of the following?
A) Positive shoulder abduction test
B) Age of 50 years or younger
C) Negative upper limb tension test
D) Increased symptoms with manual distraction
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Chapter 8: Intermittent Pneumatic Compression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is appropriate prior to applying the garment to the limb?
A) A stockinette without wrinkles should be placed over the limb.
B) Deep effleurage should be performed to decrease edema in the limb.
C) Application of an analgesic cream to the skin will limit discomfort during treatment.
D) Light aerobic exercise, such as stationary bicycling, will increase circulation to the limb.
Q2) Which of the following circumference measurements of the limb must be recorded prior to treatment?
A) 2 cm proximal and 6 cm distal to the garment
B) Every 10 cm from bony landmarks
C) Proximal and distal to the garment
D) Every centimeter of the limb to be treated
Q3) Shortness of breath following IPC may indicate
A) The pressure was set too high during treatment and must be reduced next treatment.
B) The duration of the treatment was too long and must be reduced next session.
C) There may be a fluid overload in the lungs or a pulmonary embolism.
D) This is a normal response to IPC and there is no cause for concern.
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Clinical Electrotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes interferential current (IFC)?
A) Alternating current modulated into a series of bursts
B) Superimposition of two symmetrical, asynchronous, sinusoidal alternating currents
C) Juxtaposition of four alternating currents between two circuits with four electrodes
D) Modulation of an alternating current into two interfering bipolar currents
Q2) According to Ohm's law, when using a device that has a constant voltage, what will happen to the current when the skin resistance increases?
A) The current increases.
B) The patient will feel a short-duration shock.
C) There is no change in current.
D) The current decreases.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct description of "direct current"?
A) Flow of electrons directly from a charged object to another object
B) Bidirectional flow of electrons in opposite directions for at least 1 minute
C) Unidirectional flow of electrons for at least 1 second
D) Electrons that flow through a conductor in one direction for less than 1 second
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Chapter 10: Clinical Electrical Stimulation: Application and Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using balanced biphasic pulsed current for treatment, what is the correct attachment of the lead wires to the electrodes?
A) The red wire must be attached to the anode and the black wire to the cathode.
B) The red wire must be attached to the cathode and the black wire to the anode.
C) The red wire must be attached to the dispersive pad and the black wire to the smaller electrode.
D) Wire color does not matter for this type of current.
Q2) When performing motor-level stimulation for pain control, what clinical response is expected?
A) Comfortable tingling or buzzing feeling in the area of pain
B) Muscle twitching, which may be accompanied by prickling and stinging sensations
C) Muscle contraction and a feeling of deep pressure in the muscle
D) A painful sensation under the electrodes that may cause anesthesia
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Pain and Use of Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrode placement for TENS should be selected based on which of the following?
A) Chronicity of pain
B) The mode of TENS used
C) In accordance with the painful area or over the peripheral nerve responsible for the pain
D) The cost of the electrodes
Q2) Which of the following modes of TENS is administered with a pulse frequency of 100 Hz and a pulse duration of 100 µsec?
A) Acupuncture TENS
B) Brief-intense TENS
C) Burst-train TENS
D) Conventional TENS
Q3) Which of the following best describes why application of TENS near or over a pregnant uterus is considered a contraindication?
A) Because the effect of stimulation in these areas is not clearly understood
B) Because the stimulation will induce labor
C) Because the stimulation will increase fetal heart rate and blood pressure
D) Because the stimulation will cause analgesic tolerance in the fetus
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Modalities for Improving Range of Motion
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate for use over the Achilles tendon to facilitate an increase in dorsiflexion ROM?
A) Heating pack
B) Fluidotherapy
C) Continuous ultrasound
D) Paraffin wax
Q2) Which one of the following is not a commonly used clinical method of using electrical stimulation for improving range of motion (ROM) affected by spasticity?
A) Motor level stimulation over the antagonist muscle
B) Motor level stimulation over the spastic muscle
C) Sensory level stimulation over the spastic muscle
D) Sensory level stimulation over the antagonist muscle
Q3) For a patient having undergone ankle immobilization following a sprain, which of the following clinical measures best supports the administration of therapeutic modalities?
A) Active range of motion (AROM) ankle dorsiflexion of +2 degrees
B) AROM ankle inversion of 40 degrees
C) 4+/5 strength of the ankle evertors
D) Decreased stance time during gait
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Chapter 13: Electrotherapy for Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for biofeedback?
A) Muscle spasticity
B) Diabetes
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) There are no contraindications for biofeedback.
Q2) Which of the following ranges of frequencies represents the force-frequency relationship?
A) 10 to 20 Hz
B) 30 to 50 Hz
C) 50 to 80 Hz
D) 80 to 100 Hz
Q3) A possible limitation of NMES is which of the following?
A) The inability of NMES to achieve greater than 50% maximum voluntary contraction (MVC).
B) Recruitment of fast fibers occurs before recruitment of slow fibers.
C) Firing frequencies of muscle fibers are lower than frequencies used during NMES.
D) Duration of NMES treatments is much longer than comparable voluntary strengthening programs.
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15
Chapter 14: Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation Nmes
and Functional Electrical Stimulation Fes in Patients With
Neurological Diagnoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which parameters would most likely be effective when the goal of NMES is to enhance strength?
A) 75 pps, 10 seconds on : 50 seconds off, 10 minutes
B) 30 pps, 10 seconds on : 30 seconds off, 10 contractions
C) 75 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 contractions
D) 30 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 minutes
Q2) What is one potential advantage of using NMES on the lower body of a person with a complete thoracic-level spinal cord injury (SCI)?
A) The use of NMES improves independent ambulation speed.
B) Increased lower extremity muscle activity may result in improved density in bones prone to osteoporosis post-SCI.
C) NMES assists in weight loss, which makes transferring much easier.
D) The use of NMES prevents shoulder dislocation.
Q3) NMES applied to the antagonist muscle for patients with spasticity will reduce spasticity based on which of the following theories?
A) Reciprocal inhibition of the spastic agonist muscle
B) Recurrent inhibition via Renshaw cells
C) Sensory habituation of the antagonist muscle
D) Facilitation of parasympathetic neurons in the limb
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Modalities for Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest effective dose of ultraviolet (UV) light should be used for treatment of skin conditions because?
A) UV light can cause permanent discoloration of the skin.
B) The threshold for skin burns is very low and must be avoided.
C) Circulatory compromise has been shown to occur at higher doses.
D) Accumulative effects of UV light are associated with certain cancers.
Q2) Which of the following is a common clinical mistake when performing NPWT?
A) Debriding the wound prior to treatment
B) Applying contact dressing in touch with the entire wound bed
C) Overpacking the wound with contact dressing
D) Leaving the dressing over the wound for several days
Q3) The role of the inflammatory process that occurs following soft tissue injury can best be described as
A) Excessive and counterproductive to healing
B) Critical for successful tissue healing
C) Inadequate to promote scar formation
D) Required so the central nervous system (CNS) can produce mucopolysaccharides
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Chapter 16: Alternative Modalities for Pain and Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will create a magnetic field?
A) Metals of different atomic number combined in an alloy
B) Resistance to movement of ionic charges in a conductor
C) Forces opposed to normal variation of polar conductance
D) Movement of charges in an electric current
Q2) There is some evidence that therapeutic magnets may be effective for treatment of which of the following?
A) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Chronic low back pain
D) Osteoarthritis of the knees
Q3) Which of the following patients should not have hyperbaric oxygen therapy treatment?
A) A 23-year-old male with migraine headaches
B) A 36-year-old female with untreated pneumothorax
C) A 66-year-old male with complex regional pain syndrome
D) An 82-year-old female with refractory osteomyelitis
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Electrophysiological Testing of Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients will typically not benefit from a referral for ENMG testing?
A) Those with numbness and pain involving the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system
B) Those having weakness of the right arm and leg following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
C) Those having paresthesias in the left foot and toes involving the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system
D) Those having weakness of right hand grasp involving the motor division of the peripheral nervous system
Q2) An examiner performing an NCS on a patient notes that the upper extremity nerve conduction velocities are about 5 to 10 meters per second faster than the lower extremity nerves. What is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A) This indicates a neuropathy affecting only the upper extremity nerves.
B) This is an abnormal finding likely caused by practitioner error in performance of the test.
C) This indicates a neuropathy affecting only the lower extremity nerves.
D) This is a normal finding.
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