Introduction to Physical Therapy
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physical Therapy provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles, history, and scope of physical therapy as a healthcare profession. The course explores the roles and responsibilities of physical therapists, basic musculoskeletal and neurological concepts, patient assessment techniques, and therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on the development of professionalism, communication skills, and ethical decision-making in clinical practice. Students will also gain insight into patient care settings, interdisciplinary teamwork, and current trends in physical therapy, preparing them for further specialized study or careers in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Meeting the Physical Therapy Needs of Children 1st Edition by Susan K. Effgen PhD PT
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Chapter 1: Serving the Needs of Children and Their Families
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collaborative teams
A) desire consensus decision making in determining priorities for goals and objectives.
B) provide professionals with autonomy.
C) discourage role release because of liability issues.
D) prefer to provide intervention in special therapy rooms.
E) tell parents exactly what to do for their child.
Answer: A
Q2) If you suspect child abuse of a child you are serving,
A) you can say nothing because your professional code of conduct requires confidentiality.
B) you must report the abuse using your state's procedures.
C) you should speak to the child's parent.
D) you must write a report and share it with the child's physician.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Child Development
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Q1) Genomic imprinting indicates that conditions will vary depending on whether the trait is inherited from the mother or father. For example, if the child inherits deletion of the long arm of chromosome 15 from the father, the child will have Prader-Willi syndrome; if inherited from the mother, the child will have Angelman syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An infant has just begun to pull to stand through kneeling, still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing, and is independent in sitting including all protective reactions. This infant's chronological age is approximately
A) 5 months.
B) 7 months.
C) 9 months.
D) 12 months.
Answer: C
Q3) Anticipatory postural control in sitting occurs once the infant is able to walk.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Child Appraisal: Examination and Evaluation
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Q1) When possible, the best place for examination of a child is which of the following?
A) A natural environment
B) A pediatric outpatient clinic setting
C) A pediatric hospital setting
D) The Health Department
Answer: A
Q2) The evaluation process should
A) identify the unique styles, strengths, and coping strategies of each child.
B) develop the plan of care.
C) develop a shared and integrated perspective of the child and family.
D) build and reinforce the parents' sense of competence and worth.
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) The Alberta Infant Motor Scale would be appropriate for
A) identifying limitations in an infant's self-help skills.
B) diagnosing neurologic dysfunction in a newborn.
C) assessing a child's self-perceptions of their quality of life.
D) identifying an infant with a gross motor delay.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Family-Centered Care
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Q1) What is the key element defining family-centered care?
A) Holistic care
B) Evidence-based practices
C) Collaborative partnership
D) Quality service
Q2) What are three common stresses associated with raising a child with a disability?
Q3) John is a 4-year-old child with global developmental delay. His gross motor skills are approximately at the 8-month-old level, and he does not have expressive communication. He attends a special preschool program. John has three older siblings. His parents both work. The mother has primary responsibility for his caregiving and expresses concerns about stress and fatigue. The family is anxious for John to learn to walk. At this point in the child's intervention program, who is the most important team member?
A) Speech therapist
B) Physical therapist
C) Occupational therapist
D) Family
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal System: Structure,
Function, and Evaluation
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Q1) Select the correct definition(s):
A) Antetorsion is a posterior rotation through the long axis of the femur.
B) Retrotorsion results in a posterior rotation of the neck of the femur in relation to the acetabulum.
C) Anteversion refers to the position of the head of the femur relative to its position in the acetabulum.
D) Retroversion places the leg into external rotation.
Q2) You are doing an orthopedic evaluation on a 13-month-old child. The parents are concerned that the child isn't walking. Select the finding that is atypical in a 13-month-old child.
A) The child has no visible longitudinal arch in standing (flat feet).
B) The child has a 3-degree hip flexion contracture.
C) The child has genu valgum.
D) The child has a straight lateral border of the foot.
Q3) The spine of a newborn infant is initially in a A) scolotic position.
B) kyphotic position.
C) straight position.
D) lordotic position.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Musculoskeletal System: Considerations and
Interventions for Specific Pediatric Pathologies
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Q1) Which of the following conditions can present as toe-walking?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C) Idiopathic toe walking
D) All of the above
Q2) Which following disorder can cause fractures early in life, and children younger than 3 are typically investigated for child abuse?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Legg-Calve-Perthes
D) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Q3) Arthrogryposis
A) is characterized by an asymmetrical pattern of contractures and joint involvement. B) typically has associated cognitive impairments.
C) may be related to a lack of fetal movement.
D) is a progressive disorder.
Q4) Name two diagnoses where heightened reaction to trauma is common.
Q5) Name two pediatric diagnoses where limitation in range of motion is a common characteristic.
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Chapter 7: Neuromuscular System: Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What aspect of postural control is specifically tested by the Functional Reach Test?
A) Anticipatory postural control
B)Feedback postural control
C)Reactive postural control
D)Steady-state postural control
Q2) A 9-year-old child diagnosed with myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus presents with blurred vision, headache, increased spasticity, and lethargy. What is most likely causing these symptoms?
A) Bladder infection
B) Flu
C) Tethered cord
D) Ventricular peritoneal shunt infection/malfunction
Q3) Which component of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health would include the assessment of bed mobility, communication, and self-care?
A) Activities
B) Body functions and structures
C) Health condition
D) Participation
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Chapter 8: Neuromuscular System: the Plan of Care
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Q1) The difference between learning and changes in performance is that learning is the immediate effect of practice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Physical guidance should be
A) used to achieve high-level advanced motor skill performance.
B) used when the child finds the task easy but does not want to perform the task.
C) faded out and withdrawn when the child has a general idea of the movement.
D) included in all physical therapy interventions.
Q3) Application of the information-processing perspective to pediatric physical therapy is best illustrated by
A) considering cognitive aspects of motor learning, such as attention, memory, and the processing that occurs before a movement is initiated.
B) structuring the treatment environment to eliminate distracting stimuli.
C) repeating a task multiple times to ensure motor memory.
D) understanding that many body systems come together to affect movements.
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Chapter 9: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When learning a new motor skill, the novice learner may
A) engage all possible degrees of freedom, resulting in uncoordinated movements.
B) incorporate the motion-dependent forces from the leg and trunk movements and gravity, resulting in smoother movements.
C) selectively limit the degrees of freedom, resulting in "stiffer" movement patterns.
D) increase the number of synergies used, resulting in smoother movement patterns.
Q2) When providing physical guidance, the instructor should consider which of the following?
A) The phase of learning a task
B) The child's frustration in achieving the movement pattern required for the task
C) Methods for reducing or fading the use of manual guidance as the child gets the general idea of how to perform the task
D) All of the above
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Chapter 10: Integumentary System
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Q1) A pressure ulcer that presents as a partial-thickness skin loss and can be a blister or shallow crater is a stage ________ulcer.
Q2) All of the following are examples of synthetic skin substitutes except A) Acticoat.
B) Aquacel Ag. C) Biobrane. D) CEA.
Q3) A child with an upper extremity burn that crosses the anterior aspect of the antecubital fossa should A) be splinted in flexion. B) be splinted in extension. C) not be splinted and should perform PROM only. D) be measured for a compression garment.
Q4) The prognosis for a wound for a specific child will depend on what factors?
Q5) The self-reporting pain scale utilized for children aged 3 to 7 years is the _____scale.
Q6) ____________are the cells responsible for pulling the epidermal layer toward the center of the wound.
Q7) ___________is the process of laying down of collagen matrix.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Early Intervention
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Q1) Role release allows all therapists to complete the duties of all disciplines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Who should guide the focus of early intervention based on their priorities and concerns?
A) The physician
B) The family
C) The physical therapist
D) The primary service coordinator
Q3) Early intervention should occur
A) in a center-based program.
B) in a physician's office.
C) in the child's natural environment.
D) in the public school setting.
Q4) Which technique(s) assist the therapist and family in integrating therapeutic objectives into the family's daily lives?
A) Intervention in the child's natural environment
B) Activity-based instruction
C) Use of catalogs and matrixes
D) All of the above
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Chapter 12: Schools
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Q1) Preschool services, as defined by Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act, may start as early as
A) birth.
B) 1 year of age.
C) 2 years of age.
D) 3 years of age.
E) 5 years of age.
Q2) A transition planning individualized education program meeting for a student with autism must occur by the time the student is
A) 14 years old.
B) 16 years old.
C) 18 years old.
D) 21 years old.
Q3) Related services in schools are provided to
A) allow any student to achieve maximum potential.
B) assist a child with a disability to benefit from special education.
C) reduce the need for outpatient therapy services.
D) help the school system.
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Chapter 13: Sports Settings for the School-Aged Child
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Q1) What should be the emphasis of training programs for children?
A) Cooperation, fun, team play, and learning
B) Competitive spirit
C) Improvement of aerobic ability
D) All of the above
Q2) Adolescents (ages 14 to 18 years) need increased amounts (beyond adult recommendations) for which of the following?
A) Vitamin C
B) Protein
C) Calcium
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following characterizes the physiological structure of children?
A) Adult-size heart
B) Lower glycolytic capacity
C) Complete myelination of nervous system
D) Similar stroke volume
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Chapter 14: Pediatric Acute Care Hospital
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Q1) A 15-year-old male adolescent is admitted to the emergency room with a head trauma. He now presents with an external ventriculostomy to monitor intracranial pressure. When working on bed mobility, what should the position of the drain be in relationship to the patient?
A) Above the level of the patient's head
B) Below the level of the patient's head
C) Even with the patient's head
D) The position of the drain does not impact patient care
Q2) An 8-year-old child with a recurrent inoperable brain tumor is admitted to the oncology floor with worsening of symptoms and declining medical status. The pediatric advanced care team has been consulted and is working with the primary medical team and family to determine the course of medical care. Physical therapy was consulted to assess with mobility, positioning, and to provide recommendations for safe discharge to home. What are the goals you would establish in order for them to be discharged to home safely?
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Chapter 15: Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) Infants born preterm and weighing less than 1,000 g at birth are at the greatest risk for cerebral palsy and other motor, cognitive, and behavioral disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Physical therapy examination and evaluation of the infant in the NICU is an ongoing process and provides which of the following information?
A) The infant's physiological and behavioral responses to stress
B) The infant's active movements, strength, and muscle tone
C) The infant's ability to maintain a flexed position
D) Indications for specialty follow-up care after the infant is discharged from the NICU
E) All of the above
Q3) Behavioral signs of stress in a neonate include
A) hyperalertness and apnea.
B) finger splays and gaze aversion.
C) decreased respiratory rate and bradycardia.
D) leg extension and increased blood pressure.
Q4) Describe the behavioral state of "quiet alertness."
Q5) Name three neonatal methods of self-calming.
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Chapter 16: Rehabilitation Settings
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Q1) Pediatric rehabilitation is different from adult rehabilitation in that
A) there are no accrediting organizations to ensure safety and quality of care.
B) there are no standardized outcome measures for global independence in function.
C) caregivers require less training for discharge planning.
D) children often require a 1:1 staffing ratio during therapy sessions.
Q2) For a 7-year-old boy s/p posterior fossa tumor resection who is currently ambulating three steps in the parallel bars with maximal assistance of one, the following is the most appropriate goal for discharge from inpatient rehabilitation:
A) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and moderate assistance
B) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and contact guard assistance
C) Ambulate 50 ft independently without an assistive device
D) Run 50 ft independently without loss of balance
Q3) A child who is safe to go home but still requires intensive rehabilitation 5 days per week would most benefit from which setting?
A) Acute care
B) Inpatient rehabilitation
C) Day hospital rehabilitation
D) Home health care
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Chapter 17: Assistive Technology: Positioning and Mobility
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Q1) Assistive technology involves
A) the assistive technology device only.
B) the services necessary to obtain assistive technology devices only.
C) both the assistive technology device and services.
D) the assistive technology device and the acquisition of the device.
Q2) Which of the following mobility options would be most beneficial for Kevin?
A) A manual (dependent-propelled) wheelchair that is designed to allow Kevin to push the chair with his feet
B) A manual wheelchair, but have Kevin increase his walking using his walker throughout the school
C) Power wheelchair at school, and a manual chair and walker for use at home and in his community
D) Power mobility at school and at home, if his family home and transportation can accommodate the chair
Q3) The use of power mobility should be considered
A) as a last resort when other forms of mobility are unsuccessful.
B) for children older than the age of 5.
C) for children who score at an age-appropriate level on a cognitive test.
D) as a means to overcome mobility limitations for any child.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Assistive Technology: Augmentative
Communication and Other Technologies
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Q1) Which of the following most accurately describes a physical therapist's role in assessing a child for assistive technology, including augmentative communication and computer access?
A) Physical therapists are only involved in positioning and mobility assessments.
B) Physical therapists identify the best position to promote optimal motor control and match features of devices to the motor abilities of the child.
C) Physical therapists are only involved in training the child to use devices once they have been purchased.
D) Physical therapists identify abnormal movement patterns and design intervention strategies to promote use of those movement patterns to access the devices.
Q2) The best role of a physical therapist in an Augmentative Alternative Communication (AAC) evaluation is to
A) refer the student to a speech pathologist.
B) help select the exact AAC device the individual needs.
C) determine whether sign language or use of an AAC device is appropriate.
D) help determine the best motor access for using an AAC device.
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Chapter 19: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) The Peabody Developmental Motor Scales-2nd edition is an appropriate tool for assessing the level of motor development of a child with cerebral palsy who is A) 3 years old.
B) 7 years old.
C) 13 years old.
D) 21 years old.
Q2) When assessing the lower extremity range of motion of a child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy, accuracy of the measurement is
A) not achieved because of the changes in muscle tone.
B) easily achieved using a standard goniometer.
C) enhanced by averaging two consecutive measurements.
D) supported by high intersession reliability of goniometry.
Q3) A 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy who walks independently in the school environment using a wheeled, rear walker, would be classified in the Gross Motor Function Classification System as
A) Level I.
B) Level II.
C) Level III.
D) Level IV.
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Chapter 20: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) An 8-year-old child with cystic fibrosis presents to the clinic with a 1-wk history of persistent cough, increased sputum production, increased work of breathing, and weight loss. What steps should be taken next?
A) He should be sent to the emergency room of a local hospital for critical care.
B) He should most likely be admitted to the hospital for treatment of a pulmonary exacerbation.
C) He should be sent home on extra multivitamins and be seen for his next routine clinic visit in 6 months.
D) He should be sent home, his pulmonary hygiene program should be stopped, and his parents/caregivers should be instructed to focus on his nutrition for a few weeks.
Q2) You are examining a 2-month-old with cystic fibrosis. The family is meeting with you to learn postural drainage percussion and vibration (PDPV). You would teach them all the PDPV positions except A) left side lying. B) prone.
C) Trendelenberg. D) right side lying.
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Chapter 21: Down Syndrome
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Q1) Heart defects and cardiovascular pathology are a common complication in children with Down syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Original Borg Scale
A) measures blood pressure.
B) tracks perceived exertion during exercise.
C) evaluates muscle strength.
D) assesses functional range of motion.
Q3) For a preschool child with Down syndrome, which of the following would the most valid and appropriate tool to monitor the progress of gross motor skills and functional mobility?
A) Alberta Infant Motor Assessment
B) Bayley Scales of Motor Development
C) Bruinink Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency
D) Gross Motor Function Measure
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Chapter 22: Leukemia
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Q1) Your patient has neutropenia. Neutropenia is the condition of a low absolute neutrophil count. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that fights against infection. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is a measure of the number of neutrophil granulocytes. When a child is receiving chemotherapy, the physician measures the patient's white blood count regularly, specifically the neutrophils. If an ANC is less than __cells/µL, then the child is considered to have neutropenia and has a significantly increased risk of infection
A) 12,000
B) 3,000
C) 2,000
D) 500
Q2) Common physical therapy interventions for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia include
A) orthotics.
B) stretching exercises.
C) age-appropriate strengthening exercises.
D) age-appropriate gross motor developmental activities.
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 23: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
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Q1) As Duchenne muscular dystrophy progresses, the greatest life-threatening concerns are
A) cerebral hemorrhage and seizures.
B) pulmonary infections and cardiomyopathy.
C) cerebral thrombosis and seizures.
D) neoplasms and cardiac arrest.
Q2) Development of contractures in boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy has been documented to occur in which following sequence?
A) Heel cords, IT band/TFL, hip flexors
B) Hip flexors, knee flexors, elbow flexors
C) Heel cords, knee flexors, hip flexors
D) Hip flexors, elbow flexors, wrist flexors
Q3) Some boys who are delayed in their development of ambulation and speech are later diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Developmental Coordination Disorder
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics are typical of children with developmental coordination disorder?
A) Spasticity
B) Hyperactivity
C) Hypotonia
D) Decreased flexibility
Q2) A composite score on the Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency-2nd Edition that falls within 1 standard deviation below the mean is considered
A) below average.
B) average.
C) above average.
D) well below average.
Q3) One method being used to train children on how to ride a bike without training wheels requires
A) practice riding a bike for 2 hrs each day.
B) removal of the bikes pedals.
C) placement of the bike on a stationary rack.
D) the assistance of a caregiver.
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26
Chapter 25: Myelodysplasia
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Q1) List five common complications of myelodysplasia.
Q2) All of the following are environmental adaptations that might assist a child with mid-lumbar myelomeningocele in using the bathroom except
A) a sliding board.
B) grab bars.
C) a changing table.
D) a rolling stool.
Q3) What happens to the heart rate of children with low- and mid-lumbar myelomeningocele compared to nondisabled peers when walking?
A) Heart rate remains the same
B) Heart rate increases
C) Heart rate decreases
D) Heart rate varies
Q4) Improved strength and aerobic capacity in obese children with spinal cord dysfunction or myelomeningocele was found after a 16-week
A) intervention program of nutrition and fitness.
B) wheelchair training program.
C) exercise program.
D) walking intervention program.
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