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Introduction to Physical Therapy Exam Preparation Guide - 276 Verified Questions

Page 1


Introduction to Physical Therapy Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Introduction to Physical Therapy provides students with a foundational understanding of the physical therapy profession, its history, scope of practice, and role within the healthcare system. The course covers basic principles of human movement, concepts of rehabilitation, and common conditions treated by physical therapists. Students will explore the ethics, communication skills, and professional behaviors expected in clinical practice, as well as an overview of treatment techniques and assessment tools used to help patients restore mobility, relieve pain, and prevent or limit physical disabilities.

Recommended Textbook

Mobility in Context Principles of Patient Care Skills 1st Edition by Charity Johansson

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14 Chapters

276 Verified Questions

276 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Establishing the Therapeutic Alliance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient education is an integral part of many therapeutic interventions, and not all patients learn information the same way. List three different ways you might give patients information to facilitate learning.

Answer: Match the content and instructional method to the patient's age, developmental stage, knowledge base and health condition. Inquire about the patient's preferred way of learning. Provide important information in multiple formats. Pace the information provided. Engage the patient physically and cognitively when possible. Provide feedback. Practice recall of information and performance of activities in settings that are realistic. Encourage patients' questions and comments.

Q2) You just took a job working in a nursing home that employs a few very experienced therapists. You are surprised by some of the problems encountered by the therapy staff, such as poor productivity and frequent absenteeism. Which of the following factors most likely accounts for these problems?

A) The patients are very high-maintenance and difficult to work with.

B) The productivity requirements are very high, and no one can meet them.

C) The therapy staff is experiencing burnout due to a heavy caseload.

D) The therapy staff is older and more prone to illness and family issues.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: The Mechanics of Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of center of mass?

A) The balance point of an object

B) The direction of movement when weight is added

C) The point directly behind the gravity pull

D) The push or pull that modifies movement

Answer: A

Q2) Shear

A)Pulling that tries to stretch or lengthen tissue

B)The amount of force across a given area

C)The force applied to a given area

D)Twisting force about a structure's axis

E)Two opposite direction forces, parallel to contacting surfaces

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is an example of an internal force commonly used when assisting patients with movement?

A) Ankle weights

B) Friction

C) Gravity

D) Muscular tension

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Special Environments

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Sample Questions

Q1) Stresses to patients in critical care units can be severe enough to result in negative psychological consequences. A state of confusion that develops in response to these stresses is known as ____________________.

Answer: ICU delirium

ICU syndrome

ICU psychosis

Q2) Patients have varied home environments that include a variety of meaningful emotional and cultural attachments. It is important as clinicians to avoid ________________a person's choice of environment, whatever it might be.

Answer: judging

Q3) Which of the following clinician behaviors is most likely to help a patient cope with the challenges of the ICU environment?

A) Performing therapy as passively as possible to avoid disturbing the patient

B) Keeping the lights on all the time to reduce the patient's fear

C) Placing familiar objects within the patient's line of sight

D) Rotating the therapists treating the patient to prevent patient boredom

Answer: C

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5

Chapter 4: Keeping It Clean: Maintaining Cleanliness in the Clinical Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which of the following situations would the wearing of gloves be most appropriate?

A) You are cleaning the therapy treatment area at the end of the day in your inpatient rehabilitation unit.

B) You are opening packages of clean linens to place in the covered linen storage shelves.

C) You are providing education for the patient and family.

D) You have an open wound on your forearm where your kitten scratched you.

Q2) Which of the following represents bad practice in hand washing?

A) Drying your hands thoroughly, because doing so facilitates skin cracking

B) Turning the handle of the water off with your clean hand

C) Washing between your fingers as well as on top of the hands

D) Washing for a total of 45 sec

Q3) Which of the following pathogens is generally spread by airborne transmission?

A) Cytomegalovirus

B) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

C) Rubeola (measles)

D) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci

Q4) Infections that are acquired in a hospital are called ________________infections.

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Chapter 5: Assessing Physiological Status: Vital Signs

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Q1) Which of the following is true of the use of automated blood pressure monitors?

A) Cuff placement is more critical with the use of automated units than for auscultated measurement.

B) Finger units are the most accurate method of automated home blood pressure monitoring.

C) The arm should be placed in the same position as it is during auscultated measurement.

D) Automated monitors are generally less sensitive to changes in body movements.

Q2) Which of the following is true regarding blood pressure?

A) It is the range of pressure exerted by the blood in the ventricles.

B) The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures is pulse pressure.

C) Blood pressure is affected by blood volume and vessel compliance, not by vessel size.

D) Values are affected only by pathological conditions.

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding pain assessment in patient care?

A) Pain assessment is an objective measurement of the patient's experience.

B) Pain assessment is rarely useful in determining the underlying source of the pain.

C) Responses to pain are similar across all social and cultural groups.

D) Pain is always abnormal and can be a valuable indicator of a serious problem.

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Chapter 6: Draping for Minimum Exposure and Maximum

Dignity

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are a new female therapist working in an outpatient clinic. Today you are evaluating a 59-year-old man who is a native of China. He has lived in the United States for the past 20 years. Which of the following would you be most likely to do when establishing rapport with this patient?

A) Greet the patient in your usual fashion and determine through your contact with him what his preferences are in your clinic

B) Make sure that you do not ask the patient to wear a gown during the evaluation, because he will probably be uncomfortable

C) Make sure that you do not greet him with an outstretched hand, because he is likely going to be uncomfortable with the contact

D) Pass the patient to a male colleague because you know that this patient will not want to be treated by a female

Q2) List three benefits of draping patients:

Q3) The prone position poses some specific challenges with regard to draping. List two things you can do to minimize patient discomfort in this position.

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Chapter 7: Positioning Your Patient for Mobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) List two questions you should ask yourself when considering the use of restraints with a patient: ____________________

Q2) Which of the following factors must be considered for long-term positioning of patients?

A) Patient comfort is always the most important factor in long-term positioning.

B) A patient's lungs will drain optimally while he or she is in a sidelying position.

C) Patients need frequent changes of position to minimize the negative effects of immobility.

D) Patients should be positioned in supine for at least 60% of the day.

Q3) List three basic principles that apply to both short-term and long-term positioning.

Q4) When determining which mobility procedures to use in patient care, what is the first question you should consider?

A) How much assistance will be required for the maneuver?

B) What am I trying to accomplish with the maneuver?

C) Which movement does the patient want to practice?

D) Which movement will be the easiest for the patient?

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Chapter 8: Transferring Dependent Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________________is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity and allied illnesses.

Q2) "Super obesity" is defined as a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.

A)True B)False

Q3) Which of the following is most strongly related to injuries sustained when assisting patients?

A) The age and weight of the person completing the transfer

B) The diagnosis of the patient being transferred

C) The number of repetitions of the task completed by the person

D) Unexpected changes in the patient's position during the transfer

Q4) List three things you must consider when positioning a sling for a dependent transfer.

Q5) Describe the Trendelenburg position.

Q6) The use of friction-reducing devices to perform lateral patient transfers is recommended because it eliminates the risk of injury to the clinician performing the transfer.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 9: Maintaining Capacity for Mobility Through Range of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 39-year-old man who just had extensive surgery to repair torn ligaments in his shoulder. The physician has cleared him for passive range of motion exercises. He is in a great deal of pain and is fearful of moving the shoulder. Which of the following instructions would be the best instruction to give the patient during the passive range of motion activities?

A) Instruct him to close his eyes and attend to how the movement feels.

B) Instruct him to close his eyes and focus on a distracting thought.

C) Instruct him to watch the movement and pay attention to how it feels.

D) Instruct him to watch the movement and focus on a distracting thought.

Q2) The development of hypertonia that results in atypical and dysfunctional movement is a contraindication to active range of motion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) To accurately assess capsular and ligamentous flexibility of two-joint muscles, it is necessary to lengthen the muscles simultaneously over both of the joints involved.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Define range of motion. Be complete in your answer.

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Bed Mobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) When transitioning from supine to sitting through side lying, what is the advantage of moving both legs off the edge of the bed together?

A) It allows the patient to maintain a neutral spine.

B) It is easier to move the legs together than individually.

C) It shifts the load to the upper extremities.

D) The legs provide a counterweight to the upper body.

Q2) When patients demonstrate generalized weakness, which of the following characteristics is commonly observed during their attempts at functional mobility?

A) They use extension to replace flexion.

B) They use flexion to replace extension.

C) They use rotational movements to replace extension.

D) They use rotational movements to replace flexion.

Q3) Bridging is an important component of many bed mobility activities. Which of the following statements regarding bridging is true?

A) The ending position is one of nearly full hip extension.

B) The maneuver is best performed with the patient in the supine position.

C) The patient is instructed to use the head and neck to assist.

D) The pelvis remains in an anterior tilt throughout the maneuver.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Horizontal Transfers

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Sample Questions

Q1) Anteroposterior seated transfers allow patients to transfer directly between two surfaces. Which of the following patients might use such a transfer?

A) A patient with a bilateral transfemoral amputation

B) A patient who has sustained a cerebrovascular accident

C) A patient with spinal fusion

D) A patient with a total knee replacement

Q2) Your patient is a 60-year-old man who has just had bilateral transfemoral amputations secondary to an industrial accident. Prior to the accident he had been in good health and worked full-time in construction. He will be going home alone when he leaves rehabilitation. Which of the following transfers will provide him the most independence during his initial period of poor balance?

A) An anteroposterior seated transfer using a sliding board

B) An anteroposterior seated transfer without using a sliding board

C) A lateral seated transfer using a transfer board, moving to his right

D) A lateral seated transfer using a transfer board, moving to his left

Q3) What are the three ways to move a patient's hips forward in a chair in preparation for a transfer?

Q4) List two advantages of seated transfers over standing transfers.

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Chapter 12: Vertical Transfers

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the best wheelchair position for a chair-to-plinth transfer if the patient is going to lie down on the table?

A) The back edge of the chair seat should be near the center of the length of the table.

B) The back edge of the chair seat should be near the upper third of the table.

C) The front edge of the chair seat should be near the center of the length of the table.

D) The front edge of the chair seat should be near the upper third of the table.

Q2) Your patient is a 19-year-old woman who has paraplegia secondary to a horseback riding accident. She is preparing to leave rehabilitation, and you are working with her on wheelchair skills. You want to teach her how to transfer from the chair to the floor and back. She does not understand why she should learn this skill. Which of the following is the best explanation to give her?

A) This transfer is good for your upper-body strength.

B) This transfer is good for lower-extremity stretching.

C) This transfer is important for functional independence.

D) This transfer is similar to bathtub transfers.

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14

Chapter 13: Seated Mobility: Sitting but Not Sitting

Still--Fitting and Propelling a Wheelchair

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a 43-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who needs a wheelchair for occasional use, especially for locomotion over long distances. Her husband will push her during such trips. He will also put the chair in the car trunk for transportation. Which of the following is likely to be the most appropriate type of legrest for this patient?

A) Elevating legrests

B) Fixed legrests

C) Removable swing-away legrests

D) Rigid footplate only

Q2) For the optimal push angle, wheelchair seat alignment should allow how much elbow flexion when the hand is at the apex of the wheel?

A) 20° to 30°

B) 45° to 60°

C) 80° to 90°

D) 100° to 120°

Q3) List three potential physical and physiological risks associated with independent wheelchair propulsion. ____________________

Q4) Why is a wheelchair considered a mobility orthosis?

Q5) What is meant by "90-90-90"? ____________________.

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Chapter 14: Navigating the Challenges of Ambulating

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient underwent total right hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) 2 days ago. She required frequent reminders regarding movement precautions because she was getting out of bed. You are now initiating gait training with a walker. When it is time to turn around and walk back to her chair, in which direction should you instruct her to turn?

A) Toward either side is acceptable

B) Toward her dominant side

C) Toward her left side

D) Toward her right side

Q2) Which of the following is true of balance?

A) It is mediated exclusively by the vestibular system.

B) It is primarily a concept related to dynamic mobility.

C) It is the ability to maintain the BoS within the CoM.

D) It is the ability to maintain the CoM within the BoS.

Q3) Cannot be used when non-weight-bearing status on one extremity is required

A)Hemi-walker

B)Loftstrand or Canadian

C)Parallel bars

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