Introduction to Physical Science Test Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physical Science provides a broad overview of the fundamental concepts and principles that govern the physical world. This course explores topics across physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy, emphasizing scientific inquiry and critical thinking. Students will learn about the nature of matter and energy, the laws of motion, the structure of atoms, chemical reactions, the Earth's systems, and the basics of our universe. Through experiments, demonstrations, and problem-solving exercises, students develop an understanding of the scientific method and how physical science relates to everyday life and technology.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
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724 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) An event with two situations with all the influencing factors identical except one is a (an)
A)hypothetical experiment.
B)experiment.
C)controlled experiment.
D)impossible experiment.
Answer: C
Q2) A cube that measures 2 cm on each side has a surface area to volume ratio of A)1/2.
B)2.
C)3.
D)6.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is not a SI unit of the property it measures?
A)length - meter
B)volume - liter
C)time - second
D)mass - kilogram
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pound is an English unit of measure; its SI counterpart is the A)newton.
B)kilogram.
C)joule.
D)momentum.
Answer: A
Q2) The reason a moving object slows down is that its force of motion gradually runs out.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Newton's second law states that if an unbalanced force acts on an object, it will move at constant velocity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A car traveling at 20 mph on a curved exit ramp has a constant velocity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of energy produced by power-generating dams is
A)increasing, as more of this clean, non-polluting resource is used.
B)increasing, as more renewable resources are used.
C)decreasing, as more energy is used but new dams are not being built.
D)decreasing, as old dams are destroyed for environmental reasons.
Answer: C
Q2) Your electric bill for 1500 kilowatt-hours is a charge for the power you have used that month.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) You can find the kinetic energy of a book of a certain mass just before it hits the floor after falling a certain distance by using which equation?
A)W = Fd
B)K.E.= ½ mv<sup>2</sup>
C)P.E.= mgh
D)None of the above.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which solids vaporize without first becoming a liquid is called A)sublimation.
B)condensation.
C)evaporation.
D)boiling.
Q2) A passive solar home with direct solar gain requires A)a large, open window space.
B)a calculated overhang.
C)storage mass without carpets or drapes.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The heat needed to warm one gram of water one Celsius degree is called a A)joule.
B)calorie.
C)Btu.
D)kilocalorie.
Q4) The sum of all the energy of the molecules of an object is called the temperature of that object.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The restoring force of a spring is proportional to the displacement of the object at the end.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transverse mechanical waves can pass through A)solids.
B)liquids.
C)gases.
D)All of the above.
Q3) You are able to hear sounds from farther away on a cool night because sound waves are refracted toward
A)cooler air near the ground.
B)warmer air above the ground.
C)cooler air above the ground.
D)warmer air near the ground.
Q4) The fundamental frequency of a vibrating string has a length that is 1/2 the wavelength.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the voltage in the secondary coil if the primary coil is supplied with 120 V?
A)120 V
B)60 V
C)240 V
D)480 V
Q2) If you double the distance between two charged objects, you reduce the electrical force by a factor of four.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were to mechanically rotate the armature in an electric motor
A)the motor would burn out.
B)the motor would behave like a generator.
C)the motor would become magnetized.
D)nothing would happen.
Q4) Electrons move from the power plant to homes in an alternating current.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiation from the Sun is most intense near the yellow-green wavelength.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The slower light travels in a given media, the greater the index of refraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If 1 is the incident ray, what is the angle of reflection?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) Ultraviolet light carries more energy than infrared radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Farsightedness, or hyperopia, can be corrected with what type lens?
A)convex
B)concave
C)reflecting
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of a photon of light emitted by an electron equals the
A)energy of the level it currently occupies.
B)energy of the level it just left.
C)energy of the ground state of the atom.
D)difference in energy between two levels.
Q2) Niels Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom
A)was controversial because it contradicted accepted principles of physics.
B)held that electrons existed in allowed orbits and nowhere else.
C)accounted for the observed spectrum in hydrogen.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The proposal that matter, like light, exhibits wave-like behavior was
A)verified in diffraction experiments with a beam of electrons.
B)never tested since it was known to be impossible.
C)shown to be theoretically possible, but never verified by experiment.
D)verified by physical measurements of a moving baseball.
Q4) J.J.Thomson discovered that cathode rays were really a stream of electrons.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of energy released when wood is burned is
A)greater than the amount of solar energy absorbed during its formation.
B)equal to the amount of solar energy absorbed during its formation.
C)less than the amount of solar energy absorbed during its formation.
D)greater or less than the amount of solar energy absorbed during its formation, depending on how it is burned.
Q2) An atom becomes a positive ion by gaining an electron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ionic bonds occur between atoms from adjacent groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atoms from an element in group IIA are allowed to react with atoms from an element in group VIIA.What type of compound is likely to form?
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)polar
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When balancing a chemical equation, you need to change subscripts to make the number of atoms of an element the same on both sides of the equation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the equation __Li + __O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) __Li<sub>2</sub>O is correctly balanced, what is the sum of the coefficients?
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)12
Q3) How many molecules are in a 8.0-g sample of oxygen gas, O<sub>2</sub>?
A)6.0 * 10<sup>23</sup>
B)3.0 * 10<sup>23</sup>
C)1.5 * 10<sup>23</sup>
D)12.0 * 10<sup>23</sup>
Q4) A decomposition reaction always breaks down a compound into the elements that make up the compound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The water hardness in an area is reported as 700 ppm total dissolved solids.This is the same concentration as
A)0.007%.
B)0.07%.
C)0.7%.
D)7%.
Q2) Cooks add a pinch of salt to water to increase its boiling point since it is known that solutions boil at a higher temperature than pure water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hydrogen bonding in water accounts for A)water's higher than expected boiling temperature.
B)the fact that ice floats in liquid water.
C)the fact that snowflakes are 6-sided.
D)All of the above.
Q4) A strong acid is a concentrated solution of the acid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radioactive decay reaction produces a simpler, more stable nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The radioactive isotope Z has a half-life of 12 hours.After 2 days, the fraction of the original amount remaining is
A)1/2.
B)1/4.
C)1/8.
D)1/16.
Q3) The protons in a nucleus stay together due to the A)electrostatic force of attraction.
B)nuclear force.
C)gravitational force.
D)binding force.
Q4) The threshold model proposes that under a certain level, your body can repair the damage produced by radiation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The core of a star is plasma with the density of solid lead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A protostar is an accumulation of gases in outer space that will become a star.
A)True
B)False
Q3) About how old is the universe?
A)6.0 billion years
B)10.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)20 billion years
Q4) Nearby stars appear to move ____ relative to Polaris.
A)clockwise
B)counter-clockwise
C)straight by
D)in looping circles
Q5) More massive stars tend to use up their supply of hydrogen more rapidly.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Q1) Which of the following about Jupiter is not true?
A)Jupiter is mostly made of light elements like hydrogen and helium.
B)Much of the planet is composed of hydrogen compressed so greatly that it is liquid.
C)The colored bands in Jupiter's atmosphere are believed to result from atmospheric convection.
D)Because Jupiter is mostly hydrogen, it is only slightly more massive than Earth.
Q2) The polar ice caps of Mars is believed to consist mostly of
A)water ice.
B)solid carbon dioxide.
C)frozen ammonia.
D)frozen methane.
Q3) All the evidence indicates that the universe is about how old?
A)6,000 years
B)4.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)100,000 billion years
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Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) The findings from the Apollo space missions to the Moon support the idea that the Moon formed from the impact of Earth with a very large object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ancient Greeks believed that the shape of Earth was A)flat.
B)a perfect sphere.
C)an oblate spheroid.
D)an irregular lump.
Q3) On the Summer Solstice, the Sun rises south of due east, and sets south of due west. A)True
B)False
Q4) A person traveling westward across the International Date Line gains a day. A)True B)False
Q5) Latitude is a measure of how far north or south one is from the equator. A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) Granite and basalt are different because of their rate of cooling when they formed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The rock named schist has more foliation than the rock named slate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Molten rock material from which minerals can crystallize is called magma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About how many minerals are common in Earth's crust?
A)10
B)20
C)100
D)2,000
Q5) Weathered sediments are pressed and cemented to form
A)sedimentary rocks.
B)metamorphic rocks.
C)igneous rocks.
D)ferromagnesians.
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of Earth's mass is contained in the A)crust.
B)mantle.
C)outer core.
D)inner core.
Q2) From the study of ancient compasses, it has become apparent that Earth's magnetic polarity reverse every 2,000 years or so.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Himalayan Mountains were formed as a result of
A)ocean-continent plate divergence.
B)ocean-continent plate convergence.
C)continent-continent plate convergence.
D)the deformation that occurred along a transform boundary.
Q4) The interior of Earth is molten from the heat produced by the intense bombardment Earth experienced during its formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Q1) In a "normal" fault, the hanging wall moves downward relative to the foot wall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Deeply buried rocks tend to break when subject to stress forming faults or joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sills are formations of lava that cool on Earth's surface in giant sheets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stress is the adjustment a rock makes when it is subjected to a strain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compared to an earthquake of magnitude 5, an earthquake of magnitude 7
A)releases about 10 times as much energy.
B)produces 20 times as much ground movement.
C)releases about 60 times as much energy.
D)produces 100 times as much ground movement.
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) The expansion of freezing water in a crack can cause the crack to widen.This is an example of
A)chemical weathering.
B)hydration.
C)mechanical weathering.
D)exfoliation.
Q2) An easily crumbled soil with approximately equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay is called loam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following soil components is not likely to be the result of mechanical weathering?
A)quartz sand
B)clay minerals
C)silt
D)humus
Q4) Soils formed in cold, dry climates have shallow topsoil with less humus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Q1) Which is likely to be the oldest rock in the formation?
A)sandstone
B)shale
C)limestone
D)basalt
Q2) Lack of fossils in Pre-Cambrian rocks means that very little life existed in this era.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fossils are generally best preserved in metamorphic rock layers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Minerals replaced the wood in trees over a very long period making petrified wood. A)True
B)False
Q5) Reptiles were the dominant life form in the Mesozoic Era.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your ears "pop" when your plane descends because
A)air is moving from the outside into behind your eardrum.
B)air is moving from your eardrum to the outside.
C)the air pressure in the plane decreases.
D)the fluid in your Eustachian tubes exerts pressure on your eardrums.
Q2) The solar radiation that does reach Earth's surface
A)is eventually radiated back into space.
B)shows up as an increase in temperature.
C)is re-radiated by Earth largely in the infrared.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The upward movement of warmer, less dense air produces a "lifting effect" that results in higher pressure at the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The wind chill factor
A)measures the effect of low temperature and wind on humans.
B)increases as the wind speed increases.
C)is the temperature at which water vapor begins to condense.
D)is the product of the temperature (in C) and the relative humidity.
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Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Q1) The phenomenon known as El Ni-o
A)describes the high pressure system over the ocean west of South America.
B)is the upwelling of cooler water with dissolved nutrients.
C)is responsible for the large fishing industry off the coast of Peru.
D)is believed to be related to worldwide changes in weather.
Q2) Clouds that are gray have larger water droplets than do white clouds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The average density of liquid water in a cloud is 1 gram per cubic centimeter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the condensation process heat is absorbed, which produces down drafts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Brief periods of showers are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Q1) Water that falls in eastern Colorado eventually ends up in the Atlantic Ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A layer of heavy clay after a rain would be
A)highly porous and permeable.
B)quite porous, but not very permeable.
C)not very porous, but quite permeable.
D)neither porous nor permeable.
Q3) Tidal waves are actually not associated with tides or tide-making processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the total water supply, what is the amount that is available for human consumption and agriculture?
A)less than 1%
B)about 3%
C)about 50%
D)over 97%
Q5) The greatest use of fresh water in the United States is for industrial purposes.
A)True
B)False
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