Introduction to Physical Science Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physical Science offers a broad exploration of the basic concepts and principles that form the foundation of the physical sciences, including physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences. Designed for non-majors and students beginning their scientific studies, this course covers the scientific method, measurement, the nature of matter, energy transformations, laws of motion, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the structure of the universe. Through a combination of lectures, hands-on experiments, and real-world examples, students gain a fundamental understanding of how scientific principles are applied in everyday life and develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills essential for further study in science.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object is pulled with two forces, 10 N northward and 15 N southward. The magnitude of the net force is
A)0 N.
B)5 N.
C)10 N.
D)15 N.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) A tutor will be correct in saying that velocity and acceleration are
A)the same concept, but expressed differently.
B)rates of one another.
C)expressions for changing speeds.
D)different concepts.
Answer: D
Q3) The equilibrium rule F = 0 applies to A)objects or systems at rest.
B)objects or systems in uniform motion in a straight line.
C)both
D)neither
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pair of tennis balls fall through the air from a tall building. One ball is regular and the other is filled with lead pellets. The ball to reach the ground first is the A)regular ball.
B)lead-filled ball.
C)same for both
Answer: B
Q2) The net force on any object moving at constant velocity is A)zero.
B)10 meters per second squared.
C)equal to its weight.
D)less than its weight.
Answer: A
Q3) A person is attracted toward the center of Earth by a 500-N gravitational force. The force of attraction of Earth toward the person is A)very, very small.
B)very, very large.
C)500 N.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-kg sack is lifted 2 m in the same time as a 25-kg sack is lifted 4 m. The power expended in raising the 50-kg sack compared to the power used to lift the 25-kg sack is A)twice as much.
B)half as much.
C)the same.
Answer: C
Q2) An open freight car rolls friction-free along a horizontal track in vertically pouring rain. As water accumulates in the car, its speed
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)doesn't change.
Answer: B
Q3) The distinction between impulse and force involves the A)distance the force acts.
B)time the force acts.
C)difference between acceleration and velocity.
D)mass and its effect on resisting a change in momentum.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Earth's mass decreased to one-half its original mass with no change in radius, your weight would
A)decrease to one-quarter.
B)decrease to one-half.
C)remain the same.
D)none of the above
Q2) A projectile is thrown into the air at an angle of 50° and lands on a target that is at the same level the projectile started. With no air resistance it will also land on the target if it is thrown at an angle of
A)40°.
B)45°.
C)55°.
D)60°.
E)none of the above
Q3) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were closer to Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be
A)less than 28 days.
B)more than 28 days.
C)unchanged at 28 days.
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6
Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a weighted air-filled balloon sinks in deep water, it will
A)likely sink to an equilibrium level before reaching the bottom.
B)likely burst if water pressure is great enough.
C)become less dense as it sinks.
D)be acted on by a continually decreasing buoyant force.
E)none of the above
Q2) A hydraulic device has two pistons, one with a small cross-section area and another piston with a larger cross-section area. If a given force is applied to the small piston, the output force on the larger-area piston will be
A)less.
B)the same.
C)more.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Why will a helium-filled balloon rise in air while an air-filled balloon sinks?
Q4) Buoyant force is greatest on a submerged
A)10-N block of lead.
B)10-N block of aluminum.
C)same on each
Q5) Explain why ships of any weight are balanced on the Falkirk Wheel.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat energy is measured in units of A)degrees.
B)joules.
C)calories.
D)both joules and calories.
Q2) Ice has a lower density than water because ice A)sinks.
B)molecules are more compact in the solid state.
C)molecules vibrate at lower rates than water molecules.
D)is composed of open-structured crystals.
E)density decreases with decreasing temperature.
Q3) Water at 4°C will expand when it is slightly A)cooled. B)warmed.
C)both
D)neither
Q4) Heat is thermal energy that flows due to A)molecular activity.
B)calorie imbalance.
C)temperature differences.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) When steam condenses to water, energy is A)absorbed.
B)released.
C)conserved as the phase change occurs.
D)transformed to a different form.
Q2) Coastal winds shift from night to day due to A)conduction.
B)convection.
C)radiation.
D)all about equally.
Q3) When salt is introduced to water, the temperature at which freezing occurs is A)quite unaffected.
B)lowered.
C)increased.
D)dependent on the shape of salt and ice crystals.
Q4) Hot water will cool to room temperature faster in a A)black pot.
B)silver pot.
C)depends on size, not color.
Q5) Why does a hot dog pant?
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term for electric pressure is A)current.
B)voltage.
C)electric resistance.
Q2) A difference between electric and gravitational forces is that electric forces include A)separation distance.
B)repulsive interactions.
C)the inverse-square law.
D)infinite range.
E)none of the above
Q3) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two identical lamps connected in series to the same battery will draw A)more current.
B)less current.
C)the same current.
Q4) Distinguish between ac and dc. When you plug a light bulb into a wall outlet, where is the source of electrons?
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10
Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A superconducting electromagnet makes use of
A)low-resistance coils of wire.
B)super-high temperatures.
C)high-speed electrons.
D)close packing of high-density magnetic domains.
Q2) When a change of magnetic field occurs in a closed loop of wire,
A)a voltage is induced in the wire.
B)current is made to flow in the loop of wire.
C)electromagnetic induction occurs.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) When a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field experiences no force it is likely A)upside down relative to the field.
B)overly insulated.
C)parallel to the field lines.
D)all of the above
Q4) How are electric motors and electric generators similar? Different?
Q5) Distinguish between a common bar magnet and an electromagnet.
Q6) What is the connection, if any, between electromagnetic induction and sunshine?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The frequency of the second hand on a clock is A)1 Hz.
B)1/60 Hz.
C)60 Hz.
Q2) A bow wave is produced in water when the speed of an object
A)matches the speed of waves in water.
B)exceeds the speed of waves in water.
C)is less than the speed of waves in water.
D)none of the above
Q3) A floating leaf oscillates up and down two complete cycles each 1 s as a water wave passes by. What is the wave's frequency?
A)0.5 Hz
B)1 Hz
C)2 Hz
D)3 Hz
E)6 Hz
Q4) On days when the air nearest the ground is colder than air above, sound waves
A)tend to be refracted upward.
B)tend to be refracted downward.
C)travel without refraction.
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) To see his full height, a boy that is 1 meter tall needs a mirror that is at least
A)0.33 m tall.
B)0.50 m tall.
C)0.75 m tall.
D)1 m tall.
E)depends on the distance from the mirror.
Q2) Because of absorption, a Polaroid will actually transmit about 40% of incident nonpolarized light. Two Polaroids with their axes aligned will transmit A)0%.
B)40%.
C)100%.
D)between 0% and 40%.
E)between 40% and 100%.
Q3) Light will not pass through a pair of Polaroids when their axes are A)parallel.
B)perpendicular.
C)45° to each other.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a metalloid?
A)antimony (atomic no. = 51)
B)zinc (atomic no. = 30)
C)iodine (atomic no. = 53)
D)uranium (atomic no. = 92)
E)sulfur (atomic no. = 16)
Q2) Which of the following does not describe a neutron?
A)It has a positive charge equivalent but opposite of an electron's.
B)It is much more massive than an electron.
C)It is a nucleon.
D)It is often associated with protons.
E)It is more difficult to detect than a proton or an electron.
Q3) If you remove two protons and two electrons from a sulfur atom (S), what new element is formed?
A)Si
B)Si<sup>+2</sup>
C)Al<sup>+2</sup>
D)Al
E)Ar<sup>-2</sup>
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which produces more energy, the fissioning of a single uranium nucleus or the fusing of a pair of deuterium nuclei? Why?
A)Fusing a pair of deuterium nuclei produces more energy because, unlike fission, there is no radioactive waste product.
B)Fissioning a single uranium nucleus produces more energy since its mass is much greater than that of a pair of deuterium nuclei.
C)Both the fissioning of a single uranium nucleus and the fusing of a pair of deuterium nuclei produce the same amount of energy since the resulting products are the same.
D)Neither the fissioning of a single uranium nucleus nor the fusing of a pair of deuterium nuclei produce any net amount of energy. On the contrary, both processes require more energy than they produce.
Q2) What property of half-lives makes radioactive material so problematic?
A)There is no known way to shorten a half-life.
B)Radioactivity is limited by the natural decay-time to stable isotopes.
C)All half-lives are long.
D)There is no known way to measure half-lives with any accuracy.
E)both A and B
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Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered applied research?
A)determining the lightest and strongest metal to be used for an airplane wing
B)testing the strength of a piece of metal
C)determining the melting temperature of a metal
D)examining how susceptible a metal is to bending
E)determining how readily a metal corrodes in a wet environment
Q2) Oxygen atoms are used to make water molecules. Does this mean that oxygen, O<sub>2</sub>, and water, H<sub>2</sub>O, have similar properties?
A)Yes, and this explains how fish are able to breathe water.
B)Yes, but that their properties are similar is only a coincidence.
C)No, but their similar properties are only a coincidence.
D)No, compounds are uniquely different from the elements from which they're made.
Q3) How would you describe the size of the following object? a blood cell
A)microscopic
B)macroscopic
C)submicroscopic
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the surface area of a gecko's foot so extensive?
A)A gecko, like all amphibians, needs extensive surface area under foot for stability on land as well as mobility in water.
B)A gecko's foot acts like a large dipole and thus allows for ion-dipole interaction in water.
C)The greater the surface area the greater the number of induced dipole-induced dipole forces of attraction that can occur between the gecko's foot and the surface.
D)The extensive surface area, once charged by the gecko's body, allows for the dipole-dipole attraction of every contact surface.
Q2) Which of the following describes an aqueous solution?
A)a mixture of some compound dissolved in water
B)a mixture of polar molecules dissolved in a nonpolar solvent
C)a mixture of water dispersed in an ionic compound
D)a mixture of nonpolar molecules dissolved in a polar solvent
E)none of the above
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17
Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in treating raw sewage?
A)filtration of solids
B)removal of fine particles by settling
C)removal of grit by settling
D)removal of sludge
E)disinfection
Q2) What is the molarity of 0.5 liters of a solution with five moles of sucrose in it?
A)10 molar
B)0.5 molar
C)5 molar
D)2.5 molar
E)1 molar
Q3) Allowing water to cascade or bubble in a fountain during the purification process is an example of ________.
A)a gas dissolving in a liquid
B)a chemical reaction
C)ion exchange
D)a solid dissolving in a liquid
E)only a and b
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Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the following balanced equation, which has the highest coefficient? 4
H<sub>2</sub> + 2 C 2 CH<sub>4</sub>
A)H<sub>2</sub>
B)C
C)CH<sub>4</sub>
D)H<sub>4</sub>
E)none of the above
Q2) Given the following generic chemical reaction, which is the reactant? X Y
A)Y is the reactant.
B)X is the reactant.
C) is the reactant.
D)Both X and Y are the products.
E)Both X and Y are the reactants.
Q3) What coefficients balance the following equation? ____ P<sub>4</sub> (s)+ ____ H<sub>2</sub> (g) ____ PH<sub>3</sub> (g)
A)4, 2, 3
B)1, 6, 4
C)1, 4, 4
D)2, 10, 8
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In one type of fuel cell the following oxidation-reduction reactions are taking place: 2
H<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
What is the fuel?
A)H<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Along with the pH scale, there is the pOH scale, which indicates the level of "basicity" in a solution. Accordingly, pOH = -log[OH<sup>-</sup>]. What is the sum of the pH and the pOH of a solution always equal to?
A)the negative of the product of the hydronium and hydroxide ions
B)the negative log of K<sub>w</sub>, which is 14
C)The sum would equal 7, since that would be neutral for pH and pOH.
D)It is not constant because it depends on the acid/base solution in question.
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20
Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the above sections of this molecule would be considered to be the aromatic portion of the molecule?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)a and b
E)all of the above
Q2) Why does the melting point of hydrocarbons increase as the number of carbon atoms per molecule increases?
A)An increase in the number of carbon atoms per molecules also means an increase in the density of the hydrocarbon.
B)because of greater induced dipole-induced dipole molecular attractions
C)Larger hydrocarbon chains tend to be branched.
D)The molecular mass also increases.
Q3) What happens when you use a monomer with more than two functional groups?
A)The polymer cannot be remelted.
B)The polymer does not form.
C)The polymer has a lower molecular weight.
D)The polymer is softer and more flexible.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between a mineral and an element?
Q2) Metamorphic foliation is
A)the same as sedimentary layering.
B)the prominent orientation of recrystallized minerals.
C)caused by the interaction with chemical fluids.
D)a layered appearance caused by mineral growth perpendicular to direction of pressure.
Q3) Shield volcanoes are composed of
A)andesitic magma.
B)basaltic magma.
C)granitic magma.
D)silica-rich magma.
Q4) The metamorphism of coal to anthracite occurs due to A)high pressure and high temperature.
B)high temperatures.
C)contact metamorphism.
D)crystallization of organic matter.
Q5) Pebbles of granite are very common in a conglomerate, whereas pebbles of marble are relatively uncommon. Why is this? What are the properties of the different minerals in these rocks?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The speed of a seismic wave depends on A)the type of material it travels through.
B)how far it has to travel.
C)its amplitude.
D)its frequency.
Q2) Convergent boundaries are areas of
A)compressional forces that crunch the crust and generate a spreading center.
B)tensional forces that stretch the crust and generate a spreading center.
C)crustal formation.
D)plate collision.
Q3) Convergent boundaries are regions of A)great mountain building.
B)plate subduction.
C)plate collision.
D)plate collision, subduction, and mountain building.
Q4) Each step of 1 on the Richter scale corresponds to a change in energy release of A)2.
B)30.
C)100.
D)1000.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) A soil composed of well-rounded sand grains of uniform size will most likely have a
A)high porosity.
B)low porosity.
C)high permeability.
D)low permeability.
Q2) The Mississippi River has a huge delta. With each year and each episode of deposition, the river
A)lengthens its course and the delta shrinks.
B)becomes choked and shortens as the delta grows.
C)course lengthens and the delta grows.
D)shortens as the delta moves upriver.
Q3) What distinguishes a huge block of ice from a glacier?
Q4) Deltas form as
A)periodic flooding clogs stream channels.
B)erosion clogs stream channels.
C)stream gradient decreases.
D)streams enter a standing body of water.
Q5) In what three ways does flowing water erode a stream channel?
Q6) What three factors affect stream speed?
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eroded surface of metamorphic rocks on which a horizontal bed rests is called a A)strata.
B)dike.
C)nonuniform surface.
D)nonconformity.
Q2) Coal is composed of A)petrified wood.
B)buried plant material that has partially decayed.
C)buried animal material that has partially decayed.
D)a combination of oil-rich sediments and calcareous ooze.
Q3) Why is it believed that large parts of the United States were once covered by shallow seas?
Q4) The process where an element spontaneously changes into a different element (transmutation)by a change in the nucleus of an atom is called A)radiometric dating.
B)radioactive decay.
C)radiometric decay.
D)none of these
Q5) Why does sea level rise when spreading rate increases?
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) Where do the ocean's salts originate?
Q2) If the composition of the atmosphere changed so that less terrestrial radiation was allowed to escape, the Earth would experience
A)higher average temperatures.
B)lower average temperatures.
C)greater atmospheric pressure and higher temperatures.
D)no change in pressure or temperature.
Q3) In which atmospheric layer does all our weather occur?
Q4) Which pulls on the oceans of Earth with the greater force?
A)The Moon.
B)The Sun.
C)The Sun and the Moon both pull the same.
Q5) The winds in a Northern Hemisphere cyclone spiral
A)clockwise toward its center.
B)counterclockwise towards its center.
C)clockwise away from its center.
D)counterclockwise away from its center.
Q6) Identify erosional features of the shoreline. Identify depositional features of the shoreline.
Q7) How does terrestrial radiation warm Earth's surface?
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) If the relative humidity is 50%, what happens when the temperature drops and the mass of water in the air stays the same?
A)Relative humidity drops.
B)Relative humidity rises.
C)Relative humidity stays the same.
D)Outcome depends on the temperature of the air.
Q2) Any object that is warmer than its surroundings will
A)absorb heat.
B)emit radiation.
C)reflect heat.
D)become denser.
Q3) In a thunderstorm, the falling rain creates
A)an updraft that generates a storm cell within the cloud.
B)a downdraft, chilling the air and making it denser than the surrounding air.
C)a downdraft, chilling the air and making it less dense than the surrounding air.
D)an updraft, chilling the air and making it denser than the surrounding air.
Q4) What is a temperature inversion?
Q5) Why does a July day in the Gulf of Mexico generally feel appreciably hotter than a July day in Arizona?
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Q1) What makes Europa the most likely place extraterrestrial life will be found in our solar system?
A)It has an ocean of liquid water, which is warmed by tidal force interaction with Jupiter, and may house underwater volcanic thermal vents.
B)It has an ocean of liquid water, and there is increasing evidence of phytoplankton activity, particularly as shown by ongoing spectral analysis.
C)It has a hydrogen ocean and moderate levels of oxygen in its atmosphere, which is gradually producing water through frequent lighting strikes.
D)Actually, Io is the most likely place to find life, due to its high level of volcanic activity.
Q2) When the alignment of the Sun, the Moon, and Earth produce a solar eclipse, the body between the other two is the A)Sun.
B)Moon.
C)Earth.
Q3) Distinguish between a star and a planet. Which glows, or do they both glow?
Q4) What is the evidence that the Sun is a relatively new star in the universe?
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Q1) A pulsar is likely a
A)throbbing star in its death throes.
B)black hole companion.
C)spinning neutron star.
D)binary star with a dark companion.
Q2) A black hole is
A)an empty region of space with a huge gravitational field.
B)a small region that has the mass of many galaxies.
C)the remains of a giant collapsed star.
Q3) A white dwarf is a former
A)low-mass star.
B)high-mass star.
C)white giant.
Q4) Which best describes the intrinsic motion of stars?
A)Their circular motion across the sky in a 24-hour period
B)Their apparent yearly cycle around the Sun, due to Earth's revolution
C)Their motion relative to all other bodies
D)Their motion relative to Earth
Q5) What are the outward forces that act on a star? What are the inward forces? How do these compare?
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Cosmological Redshift" refers to
A)the expansion of space itself.
B)the expansion of galaxies.
C)the expansion of red giants.
D)the tendency of light to expand when free of gravitational influences.
Q2) According to Einstein, gravity is not the force exerted by one object on another, but rather the
A)effect we witness when a large mass causes a curvature in the shape of spacetime.
B)force of attraction that exists between two objects.
C)effects of the graviton particle.
D)curvature of space caused by objects reaching the speed of light.
Q3) "Local observations made in an accelerated frame of reference cannot be distinguished from observations made in a gravitational field" is known as the principle of A)equivalence.
B)equality.
C)equanimity.
D)interchangeability.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Science is concerned mainly with the A)natural world.
B)spiritual world.
C)difference between right and wrong.
D)search for eternal truths.
Q2) Science and technology are
A)really one and the same.
B)responsible for all the good in the world.
C)responsible for all that is wrong in the world.
D)fundamentally different from each other.
Q3) In science, facts
A)are absolute.
B)may change.
C)mean very little.
D)are more important than theories.
Q4) Success in science is mainly linked to emphasis on A)experiments.
B)luck.
C)trial and error.
D)philosophical discussions.
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