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Introduction to Physical Science provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern the natural world. The course explores key topics in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy, emphasizing scientific methods, problem solving, and real-world applications. Through lectures, experiments, and hands-on activities, students develop critical thinking and analytical skills while learning about matter, energy, motion, forces, the structure of atoms, properties of materials, Earths systems, and the universe. This course serves as a basis for further study in science and helps students appreciate the role of science in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Q1) A scientific law is a concise statement that describes a(n)______________ of nature.
Answer: relationship (or regularity)
Q2) Which of the following is a unit of mass density?
A) kg/m<sup>3</sup>
B) g/cm<sup>2</sup>
C) lb/ft<sup>3</sup>
D) lb/ft<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
Q3) For the multiplication of 2.817 m divided by 6.3 m,the result should be reported with how many significant figures?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
E) Seven
Answer: A
Q4) Write 0.000852 in standard powers-of-10 notation. Answer: 8.52 *10<sup>-4</sup>?
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Q1) A speedometer registers ______________.
Answer: instantaneous speed
Q2) Motion necessarily involves
A) a change in velocity.
B) a change in speed.
C) a change in direction.
D) a change in position.
E) all of these
Answer: D
Q3) All the following may be represented by vectors except A) velocity.
B) acceleration.
C) speed.
D) displacement.
Answer: C
Q4) Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller ______________.
Answer: acceleration due to gravity
Q5) Distance is a(n)______________ quantity.
Answer: scalar

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Q1) The angular momentum of a body is constant if the A) net torque is zero.
B) net force is constant.
C) net torque is constant.
D) net force is zero.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the force of gravity acting on a 1-kg mass??(g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
Answer: 9.8 N
Q3) A force of 100 N applied to an object produces an acceleration of 4.00 m/s<sup>2</sup>.Determine the force needed to give the object an acceleration of 16.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: 400 N
Q4) Newton's law of universal gravitation is believed to be applicable
A) to the Milky Way only.
B) on Earth and the Moon only.
C) throughout the universe.
D) to the solar system only.
E) on Earth only.
Answer: C
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Q1) Currently,in the United States,which fuel is utilized to produce the majority of electrical power?
A) Oil
B) Natural gas
C) Coal
D) Nuclear
Q2) When the height of an object is doubled,its gravitational potential energy is increased by a factor of ______________.
Q3) A ball is dropped from an upper-story dorm window.Neglecting air resistance,what is the speed of the ball when it has fallen 2.5 m?
Q4) A student weighing 300 N climbed a flight of stairs 5.0 m high in 6 s.How much work was done by the student?
A) 1500 J
B) 1800 J
C) 1500 W
D) 1800 W
E) 50 W
Q5) A student weighing 700 N climbs a flight of stairs 5.0 m high.Calculate the work done.
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Q1) A constant volume and mass of helium gas at 27°C is heated so that the pressure of the gas doubles.What is the new temperature of the gas in Celsius degrees?
Q2) The units of specific heat are
A) kcal-kg/°C.
B) J/kg-°C.
C) kcal-kg.
D) J/kg.
Q3) A sample of gas has its number of molecules halved,its Kelvin temperature doubled,and its volume halved.What is the new pressure,relative to the original pressure?
Q4) One kelvin unit is equivalent to A) 9/5 Fahrenheit degrees.
B) 1 Fahrenheit degree.
C) 2 Celsius degrees.
D) 1.8 Celsius degrees.
Q5) ______________ is the process whereby energetic molecules escape from a liquid.
Q6) How much heat is required to melt 5.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?
Q7) The ice point and the steam point of water are commonly called the ______________ point and the ______________ point,respectively.
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Q1) The threshold of hearing is
A) 0 dB.
B) 140 dB.
C) 40 dB.
D) 110 dB.
E) 1 dB.
Q2) The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its ______________.
Q3) The relationship of wave speed,wavelength,and frequency is given by ______________.
Q4) If a wave has a frequency of 15 Hz,it has a period of
A) 1/15 s.
B) 3.9 s.
C) 225 s.
D) 15 s.
Q5) The radiation given off by the nucleus of an atom is called A) a microwave.
B) a gamma ray.
C) an X-ray.
D) any of these.
Q6) A wave with a frequency of 5 Hz will have a period of ______________ s.
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Q1) The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called A) rods.
B) cylinders. C) cones.
D) cans.
Q2) The change in the direction of a wave resulting from its encountering a small slit is known as A) interference. B) diffraction.
C) reflection.
D) polarization.
Q3) The index of refraction of transparent materials is A) equal to 1.
B) greater than 1. C) less than 1.
D) any of these.
Q4) A change in the direction of a wave resulting from its meeting an opaque material is called ______________.
Q5) According to the law of reflection,the angle of reflection is equal to
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Q1) AC voltage may be stepped up or stepped down using a(n)______________.
Q2) In a 12-V battery circuit,a 10- resistor and a 30- resistor are connected in series.How much current does the battery supply to the circuit?
Q3) A system of 18 electrons and 11 neutrons has a net charge of
A) -28.8 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) 28.8 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) -11.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) -18.0 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
E) 11.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
Q4) A system of 11 protons and 15 neutrons has a net charge of
A) 17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) 11.0 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
E) -41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
Q5) The mathematical form of Coulomb's law is similar to that of A) the second law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of motion.
C) Kepler's second law.
D) the law of gravitation.

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Q1) The principle that states that the exact position and the velocity of an object can never be known simultaneously is called ______________ principle.
Q2) Atomic physics deals mainly with phenomena involving which particles in atoms?
A) Quarks
B) Protons
C) Electrons
D) Neutrons
Q3) Optical scanners at the grocery store often use He-Ne ______________.
Q4) The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum arise from transitions from higher levels back to the level where n equals A) 3.
B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 4.
Q5) Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it A) could be obtained in extremely high purity. B) was so abundant. C) had the simplest atom. D) was inexpensive.
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Q1) Most stable types of nuclei have an ______________ number of protons and an ______________ number of neutrons.
A) even; odd
B) odd; odd
C) odd; even
D) even; even
Q2) Defects in the subsequent offspring of the recipient of radiation are called ______________ effects.
A) genetic
B) latent
C) somatic
D) threshold
Q3) What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 3 protons each?
A) Mn
B) Li
C) Sr
D) Li.
E) Cm
Q4) The antiparticle of the electron is called the ______________.
Q5) The symbolic notation for a beta particle is ______________.
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Q1) Elements in which the outer shell contains 8 electrons are known as the
Q2) Arrange the atoms magnesium,fluorine,strontium,and sulfur in order of increasing ionization energy.
Q3) Homogeneous mixtures are A) heterogeneous mixtures. B) compounds. C) nonuniform mixtures. D) solutions.
Q4) The element ______________ displays some chemical properties of both Group 1A and Group 7A elements.
Q5) In general,elements that have four to eight electrons in their valence shell are A) semimetals. B) metalloids. C) nonmetals. D) metals.
Q6) The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).
Q7) Elements that display some properties of both metals and nonmetals are called
Q8) The compound BeF<sub>2</sub> is named ______________.
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Q1) The formula mass for C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> is ______________.
Q2) Predict the formula and draw the Lewis structure of magnesium bromide.
Q3) Compounds tend to be ______________ compounds if they are formed from two or more nonmetals.
A) covalent
B) organic
C) polar
D) ionic
Q4) What electric charge is characteristic for an ion of S?
A) 6+
B) 0
C) 2-
D) 2+
Q5) In chlorine gas,the bond between the two chlorine atoms is
A) ionic.
B) single covalent.
C) triple covalent.
D) double covalent.
Q6) The dipole arrow in an F-O bond would point toward the ______________ atom.
Q7) Ice is less dense than liquid water because of ______________ bonding.
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Q1) The process of melting lead is an example of A) a physical change.
B) a chemical change.
C) a physical property.
D) a chemical property.
Q2) A compound that contains water molecules as part of its formula is called A) a hydrate.
B) an anhydride.
C) a hydride.
D) a hydroxide.
Q3) When an element is oxidized,it ______________ electrons.
Q4) When the equation Al + O<sub>2</sub> Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> is balanced,the coefficient of Al is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q5) An ionic compound formed from a cation other than H<sup>+</sup> and an anion other than OH<sup>-</sup> is called a(n)______________.
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Q6) A solution of pH 5 is ______________ times as acidic as a solution of pH 6.
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Q1) In organic molecules,an oxygen atom will normally form how many bonds?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Q2) CH<sub>3</sub> CONHCH<sub>2</sub> CH<sub>3</sub> is an example of a(n) A) amide.
B) amine.
C) ester.
D) carboxylic acid.
Q3) What is the molecular formula for benzene?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
E) None of these
Q4) An alcohol is distinguished by having one or more ______________ groups in the molecule.
Q5) Hydrocarbons with a carbon-carbon triple bond are called ______________.
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Q1) If it is 2:00 P.M.EST in Washington,D.C.,what is the time in San Diego,California,the longitude of which is 45° more westerly?
A) 1:00 P.M. PST
B) 11:00 A.M. PST
C) Noon PST
D) 5:00 P.M. PST
Q2) The longest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°N occurs at the
A) summer solstice.
B) vernal equinox.
C) winter solstice.
D) autumnal equinox.
Q3) When the noonday Sun is overhead in London,England,on April 15,what are the standard time and date in San Francisco?
Q4) Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on December 22 for an observer located at 30°N.
Q5) The maximum value of longitude is ______________.
Q6) What are the latitude and longitude of a place on Earth directly opposite Columbia,South Carolina,which is at 81°W,34°N?
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Q1) Gravity acting on ______________ played an important role in the condensation process of forming nebulae.
Q2) The planet with the most prominent rings is
A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn.
C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q3) Proof that Earth revolves around the Sun is obtained by the use of ______________ and the ______________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet?
A) Earth
B) Mars
C) Saturn
D) Venus
Q5) The planet Earth
A) has retrograde motion.
B) is the closest planet to Venus.
C) is the smallest of the terrestrial planets.
D) has a unique circular orbit.
Q6) The Moon's albedo is ______________.
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Q1) The local solar time at 135°W is 12:00 noon.What is the longitude of an observer who sees the full moon on her meridian at this time?
A) 45°E
B) -45°E
C) 135°E
D) 135°W
E) None of the above
Q2) The diameter of the Moon is approximately
A) 800 mi.
B) 239,000 mi.
C) 93,000,000 mi.
D) 2200 mi.
Q3) The tail of a comet is longest when the comet is
A) closest to the Sun.
B) farthest from the Sun.
C) closest to Earth.
D) farthest from Earth.
Q4) The seriousness of an asteroid collision is gauged by the ______________ scale.
Q5) Short-period comets,such as Halley's Comet,are believed to come from the ______________.
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Q1) What is the pseudoscience that contends the planets' positions in the sky at the time of a person's birth affect the individual's personality or future?
A) Astronomy
B) Card reading
C) Physics
D) Astrology
Q2) What is the value for the total energy that reaches each square meter of Earth from the Sun each second called?
A) Solar constant
B) Solar maximum
C) Sunspots
D) Solar wind
Q3) When the Sun moves off the main sequence,it will next become a _______________.
A) red giant
B) dwarf star
C) white dwarf
D) black hole
Q4) Gas and dust distributed among the stars is known as the ______________.
Q5) When the Sun moves off the main sequence,it will next become a(n)______________.
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Q1) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
Q2) The study of all aspects of the atmosphere is called ______________.
Q3) The term weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of the ______________.
Q4) A meteorologist getting ready for a weather report notes that the wet bulb of a psychrometer has a reading of 60°F when the air temperature is 70°F.What would be the resulting reports for (a)the relative humidity and (b)the dew point temperature?
Q5) Radio waves are reflected by which of the following ion layers?
A) C
B) D
C) F
D) A
Q6) A primary force that produces air motion is
A) gravity.
B) the Coriolis force.
C) friction.
D) the electromagnetic force.
Q7) The ______________ lies below the stratosphere.
Q8) Doppler radars at airports are capable of detecting dangerous,downward
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Q1) An air mass derives its characteristics from its A) temperature.
B) surroundings.
C) location.
D) source region.
Q2) When a cold front advances under a warm front,this results in a(n)
A) stationary front.
B) anticyclone.
C) cold front occlusion.
D) warm front occlusion.
Q3) Snowstorms accompanied by high winds and low temperatures are called
Q4) An air mass forming over the Gulf of Mexico would be classified as ______________.
Q5) The boundary between two air masses is called a A) division.
B) border.
C) front.
D) storm.
Q6) An air mass derives its characteristics from its ______________.
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Q1) The discovery of seafloor spreading led to acceptance of the theory of
Q2) The radius of Earth is about __________ mi.
A) 6000
B) 8000
C) 4000
D) 2000
Q3) The type of plate boundary at which one plate collides with another and subduction occurs is called ______________.
Q4) Earth's radius is about
A) 3600 km.
B) 5800 km.
C) 6400 km.
D) 4400 km.
Q5) Longitudinal seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.
Q6) The rock on the upper side of an inclined fault plane is called the hanging wall,and the rock on the underside is called the ______________.
Q7) Folded rock layers that resemble an arch are called ______________.
Q8) The Japanese word tsunami means "______________ wave."
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Q1) Volcanoes are so numerous along the margins of the Pacific Ocean that the region has been dubbed the ______________.
Q2) ______________,lava,and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.
Q3) The term cleavage refers to the tendency of some minerals to A) resist scratching.
B) break along definite smooth planes.
C) break into equal-sized halves.
D) scratch other minerals.
Q4) When a mineral's surface reflects light in a manner similar to a smooth metal,the mineral is said to have a(n)______________ luster.
Q5) Gas,lava,and ______________ are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.
Q6) The existence of the Ring of Fire is best explained by the A) theory of plate tectonics. B) principle of superposition.
C) concept of uniformitarianism. D) law of catastrophism.
Q7) The brilliancy of a gem is a function of its index of ______________.
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Q1) The percentage volume of unoccupied space in a material is called the material's ______________.
Q2) Subsurface soil that remains permanently frozen is called A) a swamp.
B) a bogg.
C) permafrost.
D) none of these.
Q3) A common depositional feature of shoreline topography is a A) spit.
B) guyot.
C) seamount.
D) sea arch.
Q4) The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called A) weathering.
B) gradation.
C) erosion.
D) none of these.
Q5) Carbonic acid is the main agent of ______________ weathering.
Q6) The true edges of the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
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Q1) The Tertiary is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q2) Fossils that are useful in correlating rock layers are called
A) index fossils.
B) trace fossils.
C) range fossils.
D) tracing fossils.
Q3) The ______________ states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks,lavas,or ash,each layer is younger than the layer beneath it.
Q4) Which of the following is a period of the Cenozoic era?
A) Eocene
B) Quaternary
C) Cretaceous
D) Cambrian
Q5) Eons are subdivided first into ______________.
Q6) The actual age of rock layers and geologic events is referred to as ______________ geologic time.
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