Introduction to Physical Science
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Physical Science is a foundational course designed to provide students with a broad understanding of the principles and concepts that govern the natural world. Covering topics from physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy, the course emphasizes the scientific method, measurement, and problem-solving skills. Students will explore the fundamental laws of motion, energy, matter, and the structure of the universe, while applying scientific reasoning to everyday phenomena. Laboratory activities and hands-on experiments are incorporated to reinforce theoretical knowledge and foster critical thinking and inquiry-based learning.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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20 Chapters
2616 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) In buying a product, a shopper has a choice of the following amounts, all at the same price. Which is the best buy?
A) 432 cc
B) 1 pint
C) 1 half-liter
D) 450 mL
Answer: C
Q2) The standard unit of length, the meter, is now defined with reference to
A) a meridian on the Earth.
B) the French metre.
C) the speed of light.
D) a platinum-iridium bar.
E) a member of the royal family.
Answer: C
Q3) Calculate the approximate number of seconds that a(n) 28-year-old student has lived.
Answer: 8 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup> s
Q4) A cubic container 40 cm on a side is filled with water. What is the mass of the water?
Answer: 64 kg
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Chapter 2: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller
Answer: acceleration due to gravity
Q2) On a trip, a family travels 200 km in 2.5 h on the first day, 300 km in 4.0 h on the second day, and 250 km in 3.5 h on the third day. What was the average speed, in kilometers per hour, for the total trip?
Answer: 75 km/h
Q3) The following are data for an accelerating car:
t (s) 0 5 10 15 20
v (m/s) 0 3 6 9 12
a. Is this car undergoing uniform acceleration?
b. If so, what is the acceleration?
Answer: 6 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q4) A projectile's horizontal velocity component (ignoring air resistance)
A) does not change.
B) changes most rapidly near the bottom of its trajectory.
C) changes at a variable rate.
D) changes at a constant rate.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Linear momentum has units of ______________.
Answer: kg-m/s
Q2) Forces always occur in ____________.
Answer: pairs
Q3) The acceleration produced by an unbalanced force acting on an object is A) inversely proportional to the mass of the object. B) directly proportional to the magnitude of the force. C) in the direction of the force.
D) all of these.
Answer: D
Q4) Calculate the centripetal force on a 3.0-kg object moving in a horizontal circular path of 20-m radius with a speed of 8.0 m/s.
Answer: 6 N
Q5) In the equation A = B/C, the A and C are said to be _______________ proportional.
A) directly
B) inversely C) not D) exactly
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) One watt is equal to one joule per ______________.
A) second
B) newton
C) hour
D) kilogram
Q2) The energy of a system
A) always increases.
B) always remains constant.
C) decreases when work is done by the system.
D) decreases when work is done on the system.
Q3) Some food costs may rise in the future as a consequence of the increased use of which food-based fuel?
A) Ethanol
B) Gasoline
C) Oil
D) Coal
Q4) The United States' most abundant fuel supply is ______________.
Q5) A stone is dropped from a bridge 15 m above a river. With what speed does the stone hit the water?
Q6) A horsepower is a unit of power equal to 550 ______________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy involved in a phase change is called the
A) specific heat.
B) thermal energy.
C) internal energy.
D) latent heat.
Q2) The Celsius degree is
A) the same size as the Fahrenheit degree.
B) larger than the kelvin.
C) the same size as the kelvin.
D) smaller than the Fahrenheit degree.
Q3) A quantity of ideal gas in a rigid container has a pressure of 1.00 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup> Pa at 0°C. If the pressure is increased to 1.75 \(\times\) 10<sup>6 </sup>Pa, what is the temperature of the gas after this is done?
Q4) What happens to a sample of water when its temperature is reduced between 4°C and 100°C?
A) Its density increases.
B) It vaporizes.
C) Its density decreases.
D) Its density remains constant.
Q5) The Fahrenheit scale has a ___________ degree size than the Celsius scale.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A series of ocean waves, each 12.0 m from crest to crest and moving past an observer at a rate of 6.0 waves per second, has what speed?
A) 72 m/s
B) 2 m/s
C) 6 m/s
D) 0.5 m/s
Q2) As a truck moves away from a person with its horn blowing, the person hears a frequency ______________ than that of the horn.
Q3) The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths just greater than those in the microwaves region is the ______________ region.
A) radio waves
B) ultraviolet
C) x-rays
D) gamma rays
E) visible
Q4) A sound wave in air travels at a speed of 340 m/s. If the wavelength is 0.100 m, in what range of the sound spectrum is the wave?
Q5) If the wave frequency is doubled, the period of the wave is ______________.
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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A liquid crystal display (LCD) using a "twisting" effect in the display involves
A) polarization.
B) interference.
C) refraction.
D) diffraction.
Q2) The angle of incidence of a light wave is
A) different depending on whether there is diffuse or specular reflection.
B) measured from a normal to the surface.
C) equal to the angle of refraction.
D) measured relative to the surface of the material.
Q3) A visual defect wherein a person can see distant objects clearly but not nearby objects is called
A) dispersion.
B) destructive interference.
C) farsightedness.
D) nearsightedness.
Q4) According to the law of reflection, the angle of reflection is equal to ______________.
Q5) Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) make use of the wave phenomenon called
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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetism results from
A) the movement of magnetic particles.
B) the movement of electric charge.
C) Earth's magnetic field.
D) the movement of magnetic charge.
Q2) A system of 11 protons and 9 neutrons has a net charge of
A) 17.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
B) -17.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
C) 32.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
D) 11.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
E) -32.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
Q3) A(n) ______________ converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Q4) Three resistors, 80 \(\Omega\), 40 \(\Omega\), and 60 \(\Omega\), are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery. How much current flows in this circuit?
A) 0.67 A
B) 6.5 A
C) 2200 A
D) 0.00063 A
Q5) The resistances are added in a(n) ______________ circuit.
Q6) A step-down transformer has more windings on the ________ coil.
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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Doubling the wavelength of a photon would ______________ its energy.
A) halve
B) double
C) quadruple
D) not change
Q2) Calculate the energy in electron volts of the photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom goes from n = 2 to n = 1.
Q3) The lines in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum are known as the
A) Lyman series.
B) Balmer series.
C) Paschen series.
D) Bohr series.
Q4) Einstein's special theory of relativity deals with objects that are A) being hit by X-rays.
B) entering intense gravitational fields.
C) moving close to the speed of light.
D) being hit by energetic photons.
Q5) Microwave ovens work mainly by exciting molecules of the substance named
Page 11
Q6) The nucleus of an ordinary hydrogen atom consists of a(n) ______________.
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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) After two half-lives have gone by, what fraction of the original sample of a radionuclide remains?
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) None of these
Q2) Write the equation for the reaction of a deuteron with a triton to form a neutron and another particle.
Q3) When an unstable Es nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the nucleus formed is that of
A) Es.
B) Md.
C) Cf.
D) Bk.
E) Fm.
Q4) The symbol for the element whose atoms contain 28 protons is ______________.
Q5) The percentage of a radionuclide that would remain after 4 half-lives is ______________.
Q6) The symbolic notation for a beta particle is ______________.
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Q7) The number of nucleons in a nucleus is the same as the number of neutrons plus the number of _______________.
Chapter 11: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smaller portion of a solution is generally called the A) salt.
B) solute.
C) molar concentrate.
D) solvent.
Q2) Aluminum is an example of A) a compound.
B) a solution.
C) an element.
D) an alloy.
Q3) A metal alloy, such as brass, is A) a compound.
B) a heterogeneous mixture.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) an element.
Q4) How many elements occur naturally on Earth?
A) 102
B) 88
C) 112
D) 82
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Chapter 13: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, fast reactions
A) are exothermic.
B) are endothermic.
C) have low activation energies.
D) have high activation energies.
Q2) The process of melting lead is an example of A) a physical change.
B) a chemical change.
C) a physical property.
D) a chemical property.
Q3) When the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at the same rate, the reaction is said to have reached ______________.
Q4) The loss of oxygen or gain of electrons by an atom or ion is called ______________.
Q5) Complete and balance the equation: Ba(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq) + K<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq) \(\to\) ________
Q6) When an acid reacts with a base, the products are ______________ and a salt.
Q7) Balance the chemical equation: Cu + Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> \(\to\) CuO + Al
Q8) One mole of aluminum consists of ______________ aluminum atoms.
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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the maximum altitude of the Sun on June 21 for an observer located at 30°N.
Q2) Some people mistakenly call noon and midnight ______________ and ______________.
Q3) The altitude of the North Star (Polaris) is approximately A) 90°.
B) equal to the observer's local latitude.
C) equal to the observer's local longitude.
D) dependent on the time of day.
E) none of these
Q4) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by a star other than the Sun is known as the ______________ day.
Q5) An observer measures the North Star (Polaris) at an altitude of 30°. The observer's latitude is
A) 40°N.
B) none of these.
C) 60°N.
D) 30°N.
Q6) Daylight Saving Time begins on the first Sunday of ______________ and ends on the last Sunday in ______________.
Page 15
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Chapter 16: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following planets moves the slowest in its orbit around the Sun?
A) Earth
B) Mars
C) Venus
D) Mercury
Q2) The heliocentric model of the solar system was developed by A) Brahe.
B) Kepler.
C) Copernicus.
D) Newton.
Q3) The study of astronomy involves A) space.
B) energy.
C) matter.
D) all of these.
Q4) Halley's comet has a sidereal period of 76.2 years. Determine the value of the semimajor axis of its orbit. (Use Kepler's third law.)
Q5) The fraction of incident sunlight reflected by a celestial body is called its ______________.
Q6) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spring tides occur
A) only in March.
B) when Earth, the Moon, and the Sun line up.
C) fewer than 10 times a year.
D) once a month.
Q2) If a person weighs 150 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon?
A) 25 lb
B) 900 lb
C) 150 lb
D) 75 lb
E) 15 lb
Q3) On March 21, the Moon is in its first-quarter phase. An observer who sees this Moon on his or her meridian at this time
A) cannot see the Sun.
B) sees the Sun setting.
C) sees the Sun rising.
D) none of these
Q4) A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon is in the ______________ phase.
Q5) Sunlight reflected from interplanetary dust results in the appearance of
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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stratosphere and the troposphere account for ______________ of the mass of the atmosphere.
A) 80%
B) 90%
C) 99.9%
D) 78.1%
Q2) Nimbus means
A) "poorly formed."
B) "curl."
C) "heap."
D) none of these.
Q3) The rate at which air temperature changes with altitude is called
A) the inversion rate.
B) vertical development.
C) the lapse rate.
D) an isotherm.
Q4) The relative humidity is 100% at the ______________ temperature.
Q5) If the ground-level air temperature is 20°C, what is the air temperature at the top of the troposphere (16 km), assuming a normal lapse rate?
Q6) Radio waves are reflected by layers in the ______________.
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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transverse seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.
Q2) Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with the movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________.
A) canyons
B) trenches
C) subduction zones
D) faults
Q3) Which of the following is not a general type of faulting?
A) Forward
B) Normal
C) Strike-slip
D) Reverse
Q4) A description of the severity of the damage caused by an earthquake is given by its ranking on the ______________ scale.
Q5) Evidence for the existence for Pangaea includes
A) biological evidence only.
B) continuity of geologic features only.
C) glacial evidence only.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The element that is the second most abundant in Earth's crust is A) oxygen.
B) iron.
C) nitrogen.
D) silicon.
Q2) The size and shape assumed by the crystal faces when a mineral crystal has time and space to grow are known as the mineral's ______________.
Q3) Sediments that are transported to the sea in solution are known as ______________ sediments.
Q4) If iron floats in liquid mercury, then the specific gravity of iron is A) less than that of mercury.
B) greater than that of mercury.
C) about equal to that of mercury.
D) in no way related to that of mercury.
Q5) The hardest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named _____________.
Q6) Gas, ______________, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.
Q7) Molten rock material on Earth's surface is known as ______________.
Q8) Orthoclase and plagioclase are the two major types of _____________.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the ends and along the sides of a glacier, the sediment deposits may form ridges known as
A) deltas.
B) levees.
C) drifts.
D) moraines.
Q2) The two major types of weathering studied in this chapter are mechanical weathering and ______________ weathering.
A) stream
B) chemical
C) abrasion
D) adverse
Q3) The unsaturated zone of soil or rock above the water table is called the zone of
Q4) Which of the following is not a component of a stream's load?
A) Mother load
B) Dissolved load
C) Suspended load
D) Bed load
Q5) Seamounts with flat tops are known as ______________.
Page 21
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because sediments are not deposited continuously in a given locality over time, breaks called ______________ occur in the rock record.
Q2) Layers of sediment, lava, and ash are originally laid down in a(n) ______________ position.
Q3) The ______________ states that in a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, lavas, or ash, each layer is younger than the layer beneath it.
Q4) Another name for cyanobacteria, the earliest evidence of ancient life, is A) blue-green algae.
B) amber.
C) foraminifera.
D) coal.
Q5) The Pliocene is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q6) Eons are subdivided first into ______________.
Q7) A fossil imprint made by the movement of an animal is called a(n) ______________ fossil.
Page 22
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