Introduction to Pharmacology Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Pharmacology provides students with a foundational understanding of how drugs interact with biological systems. The course covers the basic principles of drug action, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the mechanisms by which drugs produce therapeutic and adverse effects. Students will explore the classification of drugs, receptor theory, dose-response relationships, and factors influencing drug efficacy and safety. Emphasis is placed on major drug classes used in the treatment of common diseases, preparing students for advanced study or clinical application in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton
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915 Verified Questions
915 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult experiencing shortness of breath is brought to the hospital by her daughter.While obtaining the medication history from the patient and her daughter,the nurse discovers that neither has a list of the patient's current medications or prescriptions.All the patient has is a weekly pill dispenser that contains four different pills.The prescriptions are filled through the local pharmacy.Which resource(s)would be appropriate to use in determining the medication names and doses?
A) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
B) Physicians' Desk Reference, Section 4
C) Senior citizens' center
D) Patient's home pharmacy
Answer: B,D
Q2) What is the name under which a drug is listed by the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A) Brand
B) Nonproprietary
C) Official
D) Trademark
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are routes of drug excretion?
A) GI tract; feces
B) Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
C) Lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system; blood/plasma
E) Respiratory system; exhalation
Answer: A,B,E
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer tetracycline to a patient diagnosed with an infection.Which medication should not be administered with tetracycline?
A) Ativan
B) Tylenol
C) Colace
D) Mylanta
Answer: D
Q3) What do drug blood levels indicate?
A) They confirm if the patient is taking a generic form of a drug.
B) They determine if the patient has sufficient body fat to metabolize the drug.
C) They verify if the patient is taking someone else's medications.
D) They determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the ideal time for a nursing mother to take her own medications?
A) Before the infant latches on to begin to breastfeed
B) As soon as the mother wakes up in the morning
C) Right before the mother goes to sleep at night
D) As soon as the infant finishes breastfeeding
Answer: D
Q2) Which patient,when compared with the general population,would require a larger dose or more frequent administration of a drug to attain a therapeutic response?
A) A 29-year-old who has been diagnosed with kidney failure
B) A 35-year-old obese male who is being evaluated for an exercise program
C) A 52-year-old diagnosed with hypothyroidism and decreased metabolic rate
D) A 72-year-old with decreased circulatory status
Answer: B
Q3) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the planning phase of the nursing process?
A) Administer insulin subcutaneously (subcut) in the abdominal area.
B) Patient is at high risk for falls related to hypotension.
C) The patient will state the expected adverse effects of medication by the end of the teaching session.
D) Itching has resolved; medication given is effective.
Q2) The nurse is prioritizing care of a pediatric patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse consider the highest priority?
A) Risk for altered nutrition: less than body related to decreased appetite
B) Altered breathing pattern related to thickened mucus secretions
C) Knowledge deficit related to disease process
D) Impaired skin integrity related to decreased mobility
Q3) Prior to the administration of a nephrotoxic drug,the nurse determines that the kidney lab data are within normal range.Which step of the nursing process is being used?
A) Assessment
B) Nursing diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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Q1) Which item(s)would be considered characteristic of the cognitive domain level of learning?(Select all that apply.)
A) A patient's opinion regarding wellness
B) Basic mathematical formulas learned in grade school
C) Incorporation of a person's previous experiences and perceptions
D) Skill demonstration using a step-by-step approach
E) Relationship between prior experiences and new concepts
Q2) The nurse is preparing to instruct a patient and his wife on technique and importance of assessing pulse prior to taking heart medication.Which principle(s)of learning would be appropriate in this situation?(Select all that apply.)
A) The learning environment
B) The patient's and wife's learning styles
C) The objectives/goal statements listed on the patient's care plan
D) The patient's financial ability to purchase the medication
E) The patient's understanding of the seriousness of his illness
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Chapter 6: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where would the procedures and treatments directed by the health care provider be found?
A) Summary sheet
B) Physician's order form
C) Physician's progress notes
D) History and physical examination form
Q2) Which advantage(s)does the unit dose drug distribution system include?(Select all that apply.)
A) There is decreased participation by the pharmacy.
B) The pharmacist is able to analyze prescribed medications for each client for drug interactions and contraindications.
C) There is less waste of medications.
D) The time spent by nursing personnel preparing these medications is increased.
E) Credit is given to the patient for unused medications.
Q3) Which action will the nurse take if a dosage is unclear on a health care provider's order?
A) Ask the patient what dosage was given in the past.
B) Ask another physician to determine the correct dosage.
C) Tell the patient that the medication will not be given.
Page 8
D) Contact the health care provider to verify the correct dosage.
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Chapter 7: Percutaneous Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying nitroglycerin topically,which nursing intervention is correct?
A) Secure the paper on two sides with tape.
B) Shave the area prior to application of the paper.
C) Wear gloves while placing the new paper.
D) Remind the patient to discontinue use of the medication if chest pain is relieved.
Q2) Where will the nurse administer a medication that was ordered to be given sublingually?
A) Between the molar teeth and cheek
B) Below the skin surface
C) Under the tongue
D) Into the conjunctival sac
Q3) Where would the nurse apply nitroglycerin ointment on a male patient?
A) The same site that was previously used
B) A hairy area of the chest
C) The upper arm
D) The back of the knee
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9
Chapter 8: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which route of administration would be ordered by the health care provider if a patient is vomiting?
A) Gastrostomy tube
B) Intradermal
C) Ophthalmic
D) Rectal
Q2) After entering the patient's room to administer oral medications,which action will the nurse take first?
A) Assist the patient to sit upright.
B) Check the patient's identification.
C) Inform the patient about the medications.
D) Offer the patient something to drink.
Q3) Which receptacle(s)is/are commonly used in the hospital with pediatric oral medications?(Select all that apply.)
A) Oral syringe
B) Baby bottle full of formula
C) Infant feeding nipple
D) Teaspoon
E) Medicine dropper
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Chapter 9: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral
Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle(s)is/are correct for mixing insulin?(Select all that apply.)
A) Insulin orders and calculations must be checked with another nurse.
B) Air is injected into the vial of the shorter-acting insulin first.
C) The longer-acting insulin is drawn up first.
D) The nurse must verify the compatibility of the insulin types.
E) Withdraw the shorter-acting insulin first.
Q2) When preparing parenteral medications,the nurse should perform which intervention(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Check the expiration date.
B) Use sterile technique throughout the entire procedure.
C) Check the drug dose form ordered against the source available.
D) Prepare the drug in a clean well-lighted area.
E) Check calculations.
Q3) Which syringe will the nurse use to administer insulin subcutaneously to a patient?
A) A syringe calibrated in minims
B) A syringe calibrated in units
C) A syringe calibrated in tenths of mL
D) A syringe calibrated in mL
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique by the nurse is accurate when administering heparin to a thin,older adult patient?
A) Aspirate before injecting the medication.
B) Inject at a 45-degree angle.
C) Inject at a 90-degree angle.
D) Massage site following injection.
Q2) The nurse administers a skin prick test (SPT)to a patient at 9:00 AM.The earliest time the nurse can expect to read the test is
A) the next day at 9:00 AM.
B) by 9:00 PM the same day.
C) by 9:10 AM the same day.
D) one week from the date and time of administration.
Q3) Which assessment by the nurse is most important to obtain prior to performing allergy sensitivity testing?
A) Identify areas of loose connective tissue.
B) Question the patient about frequency of exercise.
C) Determine if the patient is using aspirin.
D) Palpate and measure the size of induration.
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses erythema,warmth,and burning pain along the patient's IV site.Which complication is this patient most likely experiencing?
A) Air embolism
B) Extravasation
C) Phlebitis
D) Pulmonary edema
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions.Which type of intravenous (IV)access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q3) The nurse is about to administer a prescribed medication IV push into a patient's Hickman catheter.When providing this medication,the nurse will first
A) administer the prescribed drug.
B) flush with saline.
C) flush with heparin.
D) prepare a pump.
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Chapter 12: Drugs That Affect the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body function(s)is/are controlled by the autonomic nervous system?(Select all that apply.)
A) Blood pressure
B) Skeletal muscle contraction
C) GI secretion
D) Body temperature
E) Urination
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient taking a cholinergic agent.When auscultating lung sounds,the nurse notes inspiratory and expiratory wheezing bilaterally.The best action for the nurse to take would be to
A) provide the next dose of the cholinergic agent immediately.
B) assess heart rate and blood pressure.
C) reposition the patient.
D) withhold the next dose and notify the physician.
Q3) The autonomic nervous system can be subdivided into which types of adrenergic receptors?
A) Nicotinic and muscarinic
B) Afferent and efferent
C) Alpha and beta
D) Agonists and antagonists
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Drugs Used for Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering Somnote to a patient.When providing medication education to the patient,the nurse will include that Somnote should be
A) thoroughly chewed.
B) taken with a full glass of water.
C) taken on an empty stomach.
D) taken only before bedtime.
Q2) The nurse finds that a patient is extremely agitated,yells frequently,and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance.What is the nurse's initial action?
A) Administer zolpidem after taking the patient's vital signs.
B) Close the patient's door for privacy after administering Tylenol.
C) Administer benzodiazepine before calling the health care provider.
D) Spend uninterrupted time listening to the patient.
Q3) Why are benzodiazepines often preferred over barbiturates?(Select all that apply.)
A) They have selective action at specific receptor sites.
B) There is a wide range of safety between therapeutic and lethal levels.
C) REM sleep is decreased to a lesser extent.
D) Accidental overdoses are well tolerated.
E) There are no hypotensive episodes when rising to a sitting position.
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Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softener for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q2) Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease?
A) Oculogyric crisis
B) Tardive dyskinesia
C) Sudden sleep events
D) Akathisia
Q3) Which adverse effects associated with levodopa therapy would support the nursing diagnosis risk for injury?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Anorexia and depression
D) Tachycardia and palpitations
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prenatal nurse is educating a woman regarding preconception care.The patient informs the nurse that she is currently taking a benzodiazepine drug for management of anxiety.Appropriate teaching for this patient will include that benzodiazepines(Select all that apply.)
A) readily cross into breast milk.
B) are safe to take throughout pregnancy.
C) enter fetal circulation.
D) are not associated with ill effects on the infant following birth.
E) may increase newborn muscle tone.
Q2) Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
D) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
Q3) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?
A) It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.
B) It is not considered a true addiction.
C) It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.
D) It requires medical intervention to treat.
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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Depressive and Bipolar Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is most important when providing care to a patient diagnosed with a mood disorder?
A) Assess the patient for thoughts of suicide.
B) Provide supplemental feedings as needed.
C) Assist with activities of daily living.
D) Offer opportunities for interaction with other patients.
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin)for smoking cessation.Which statement by the patient would indicate the need for further teaching?
A) "My dose will increase after 3 days."
B) "I should swallow this medication whole."
C) "If I have the urge to smoke, I will take more medication."
D) "I do not need to taper my dose when the drug is discontinued."
Q3) On what is the choice of tricyclic antidepressants based?
A) The need to decrease the action of norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin
B) Patient age and gender
C) An absence of adverse effects, such as orthostatic hypotension
D) The need for stimulation and increased mental alertness
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young male patient taking an antipsychotic is experiencing an oculogyric crisis.The nurse prepares to administer
A) diphenhydramine.
B) haloperidol.
C) aripiprazole.
D) risperidone.
Q2) Which sign(s)and symptom(s)may occur in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?(Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Hypertension
C) Severe extrapyramidal symptoms
D) Alterations in consciousness
E) Bradycardia
Q3) What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment?
A) Expense
B) Increased symptoms of chemical dependency
C) Extrapyramidal effects
D) Inability of the patient to understand the need to take medications
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information would be most important for the nurse to provide to a patient when teaching about the adverse effects of succinimide therapy?
A) Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during the initiation of therapy.
B) Avoid taking the medication with food or milk to minimize adverse effects.
C) Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to worsen with continued therapy.
D) Reducing the dosage of medication will relieve symptoms of nausea.
Q2) Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin)for control of seizures must be aware of the risk for which adverse effect(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Blood dyscrasias
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Urinary retention
D) Gingival hyperplasia
E) Insomnia
F) Sedation
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20
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Q1) Which medication is contraindicated when a patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C) Propoxyphene (Darvon)
D) Morphine (Roxanol)
Q2) Which medication would the nurse administer to a patient who is rating the pain at 8 on a 0 to 10 scale?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine (Roxanol)
C) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
D) Oxycodone and aspirin (Percodan)
Q3) Which sign or symptom displayed by a patient would be indicative of opiate withdrawal?
A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Lethargy
D) Hypothermia
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Q1) What lifestyle choice(s)may aggravate metabolic syndrome?(Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive tobacco smoking
B) Inadequate hydration
C) Excessive exercise
D) Inadequate caloric intake
E) Excessive consumption of alcohol
Q2) Healthy diets should include no more than which percentage of saturated fat based on total calories?
A) 30%
B) 10%
C) 7%
D) 2%
Q3) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?
Q4) What is the most critical approach to the treatment of metabolic syndrome?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Pharmacotherapy
C) Lifestyle management
D) Patient education
Q5) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?
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Chapter 21: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Q1) The nurse transcribes a new order for Lovaza on a patient in a long-term care facility.When providing education to the patient about this medication,the nurse will include which statement(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Liver function tests should be completed before initiating therapy.
B) Lovaza is available in tablet form.
C) Triglyceride levels should increase with use.
D) Lovaza should be used with caution if the patient has an allergy to fish.
E) Lovaza does not cause myositis.
Q2) What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy?
A) Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels
B) Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels
C) Reduced LDLs and HDLs
D) Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels
Q3) In addition to controlling hyperlipidemia,what are bile acid-binding resins prescribed to treat?
A) Constipation secondary to excess fecal bile acids
B) Constipation related to pseudomembranous colitis
C) Pruritus secondary to biliary stasis
D) Jaundice related to cholelithiasis
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) A patient who has just begun taking an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitor calls the nurse and reports feeling very dizzy when standing up and asks if the medication should be discontinued.What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Stop taking the medication immediately."
B) "Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly; your symptoms will resolve."
C) "I will schedule you to visit the health care provider today."
D) "Cut the pill in half and take a reduced dosage."
Q2) A patient's blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg.The nurse records the pulse pressure as
A) 212.
B) 134.
C) 78.
D) 56.
Q3) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient who was recently prescribed an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.Which is an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Constipation
B) Chronic cough
C) Hypokalemia
D) Nervousness
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Q1) Which symptom will the nurse encourage the patient taking flecainide to report to the health care provider?
A) Headache
B) Dizziness
C) Constipation
D) Weight gain
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia.Which consideration(s)should the nurse take into account before administration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Constant ECG monitoring is necessary.
B) Initial recommended dosage is 12 mg IV bolus.
C) Rapid IV bolus administration is recommended.
D) Saline flush following bolus is necessary.
E) Long half-life of adenosine may prolong adverse medication effects.
Q3) The patient recently prescribed quinidine is at highest risk for which common adverse effect?
A) Chills
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Rash
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the pain associated with angina?
A) It does not subside until treatment is initiated.
B) It is highly variable in intensity and location.
C) It typically subsides after 1 to 3 minutes.
D) It is directly related to the degree of myocardial damage.
Q2) How do beta-adrenergic blocking agents reduce myocardial oxygen demand?
A) By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine
B) By increasing the production of dopamine and acetylcholine
C) By delaying the destruction of acetylcholinesterase and cholinesterase
D) By enhancing the sensitivity of alpha receptors and beta receptors
Q3) The nurse is performing pain assessment on a patient admitted for evaluation of angina.Which type of angina is precipitated by physical exertion and is relieved by rest?
A) Chronic stable
B) Nocturnal
C) Unstable
D) Variant
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Q1) The nurse has admitted a resident with the diagnosis of PVD to a long-term care facility.When providing care to this patient,the nurse will(Select all that apply.)
A) initiate elevation of lower extremities.
B) implement pain management as ordered.
C) assess skin temperature.
D) vigorously dry feet after washing.
E) palpate pedal pulses.
Q2) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD?(Select all that apply.)
A) History of heart disease
B) Smoking and dietary habits
C) Current medications
D) Weight
E) Limb pain
F) Mental status
Q3) Which assessment verifies increased blood perfusion to the lower extremities?
A) Toes cool to the touch
B) Decreased sensation below the knees
C) Increased amplitude of pedal pulses
D) Paleness of the foot
27
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Q1) The pharmacologic agents used to treat DVT may act in which way(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Prevent platelet aggregation.
B) Prevent the extension of existing clots.
C) Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade.
D) Prolong bleeding time.
E) Lower serum triglycerides.
Q2) A patient is receiving 1400 units of heparin/hour on an IV pump.The aPTT time is 54.The laboratory control is 25.Which action by the nurse is accurate?
A) Bolus the patient with an additional 5000 units of heparin.
B) Stop the heparin immediately and notify the health care provider that the patient's blood level is toxic.
C) Administer protamine sulfate stat.
D) Continue with the prescribed rate.
Q3) Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Petechiae
C) Increased urinary output
D) Dry skin
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) The nurse is assessing an emergency department patient who was recently discharged following a myocardial infarction (MI).Which symptom(s)would the nurse observe in this patient with left ventricular systolic failure?(Select all that apply.)
A) Reports of recent weight loss
B) Complaints of peripheral edema
C) Diminished exercise tolerance
D) Shortness of breath with activity
E) Blood pressure elevation
Q2) Which drug will be administered to a patient being admitted with severe digoxin intoxication?
A) Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
D) Digitalis glycoside
Q3) Which is the initial manifestation of digoxin toxicity in children?
A) Hallucinations
B) Weakness
C) Atrial dysrhythmia
D) Diuresis
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are common signs and symptoms of dehydration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Furrowed tongue
B) Decreased intake and output levels
C) Bounding pulse rate
D) Mental confusion
E) Elastic skin turgor
Q2) Which condition warrants the use of acetazolamide (Diamox)as a diuretic?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Increased extravascular fluid pressure
C) Increased intraocular pressure
D) Periorbital edema
Q3) Which sign(s)and/or symptom(s)of dehydration may occur as a result of a diuretic?(Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased urine specific gravity
B) Skin remains peaked on turgor assessment
C) Bounding peripheral pulses
D) Neck vein engorgement
E) Soft, sunken eyeballs
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing education for a patient who has developed rebound nasal congestion resulting from use of topical decongestants.What information will the nurse include?(Select all that apply.)
A) For future topical decongestant use, follow the dosage directions daily. Do not overuse.
B) Stop the topical decongestant at once.
C) A decrease in congestion will occur immediately.
D) Nasal steroid solutions can be used but may take several days to reduce inflammation and congestion.
E) Use nasal saline spray to moisturize irritated mucosa.
Q2) A patient at sports camp is complaining of itchy and watery eyes,coughing,and sneezing when outdoors.The patient's chart states that he has an allergy to grasses.Which medication will the nurse administer?
A) Antitussive
B) Expectorant
C) Antihistamine
D) Decongestant
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer two inhalations of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent).When providing this medication,the nurse will instruct the patient to(Select all that apply.)
A) hold the canister horizontally.
B) keep the eyes closed.
C) exhale through the mouthpiece.
D) wait 15 seconds before the second inhalation.
E) shake the canister thoroughly prior to use.
Q2) Which statement(s)is/are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder?(Select all that apply.)
A) Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes.
B) Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia.
C) As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate.
D) The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min.
E) Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.
Q3) Which is a common expectorant in over-the-counter medications?
A) Dextromethorphan
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Guaifenesin
D) Codeine
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated with topical amlexanox paste 5% (Zilactin).Which statement by the patient indicates a knowledge deficit?
A) "This medicine will help control discomfort."
B) "I will apply the paste before meals."
C) "The paste will be applied to each lesion."
D) "Healing will be promoted."
Q2) What is the most common cause of most tooth,gum,and periodontal disease?
A) Sugar
B) Halitosis
C) Plaque
D) Smoking
Q3) The nurse is assisting with care of a patient on chemotherapy with severe mucositis.The patient reports mucous membrane pain level to be "8" on the pain scale.The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) altered nutrition: less than body requirements.
B) risk for aspiration.
C) fluid volume deficit.
D) pain.
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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are important nursing considerations when administering prokinetic agents?(Select all that apply.)
A) These agents are used to treat esophagitis associated with gastric reflux.
B) They are used to treat GERD when lifestyle changes and diet are ineffective.
C) They may be useful in treating nausea associated with chemotherapy treatment.
D) They may be administered intravenously.
E) Administer the medication to diabetic patients after meals.
Q2) A patient taking misoprostol (Cytotec)to treat a gastric ulcer reports recurrent diarrhea.The nurse should encourage this patient to
A) immediately discontinue misoprostol (Cytotec).
B) take with a magnesium-containing antacid.
C) omit fresh fruits from diet.
D) take medication with meals.
Q3) Cimetidine (Tagamet)is an example of which class of drug?
A) Protokinetic agent
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Histamine (H<sub>2</sub>) receptor antagonist
D) Coating agent
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the nurse monitor daily weights prior to the administration of antiemetic medications to chemotherapy patients?
A) Antiemetics are calculated according to body surface area.
B) Antiemetics are toxic, and the minimal dosage should be administered.
C) Weight loss is a common adverse effect associated with chemotherapy, and dosages may need to be readjusted.
D) Fluid overload is common, and antiemetic dosages are increased as treatment progresses.
Q2) The recovery room nurse is preparing to assist with the care of several postoperative patients.Which patient would the nurse prioritize care for regarding the potential for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
A) A 5-year-old child undergoing a closed reduction procedure with regional anesthesia
B) A 50-year-old woman undergoing a total hysterectomy with general anesthesia
C) A 27-year-old man undergoing a middle ear manipulation with general anesthesia
D) An 80-year-old man undergoing a total hip replacement with spinal anesthesia
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A friend reports using loperamide (Imodium)for continual diarrhea for a week since returning home from a vacation outside the country.Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "There are some other over-the-counter products available for diarrhea, such as Kaopectate (bismuth subsalicylate)."
B) "I'd stop taking the Imodium and go in to see a health care provider immediately. You may have an infection in your intestinal tract."
C) "If you're not running a temperature, I wouldn't worry. That happens to many people when they travel."
D) "As long as you can drink plenty of fluids, I'm sure the diarrhea will go away once you're back in a normal routine."
Q2) Which treatment(s)would be considered safe for an infant?(Select all that apply.)
A) Saline laxatives
B) Bulk-forming laxatives
C) Malt soup extract
D) Stimulant laxatives
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36
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about insulin administration.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need more insulin if I have surgery."
B) "Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator."
C) "I will date the insulin bottle when I open it."
D) "I will keep a spare bottle of insulin on hand."
Q2) What laboratory test is the preferred screening test for diabetes in children and nonpregnant adults?
A) FPG
B) ECG
C) GTT
D) A<sub>1c</sub>
Q3) The nurse is administering sulfonylurea drugs to four different patients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.Which patient should not receive the medication as ordered?
A) A 42-year-old man with hypertension
B) A 50-year-old woman with shingles
C) An 80-year-old woman with an allergy to sulfa
D) A 37-year-old man with a blood glucose level of 140
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Radioactive iodine
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Methimazole (Tapazole)
Q2) Which condition can occur if congenital hypothyroidism is not treated?
A) Diabetes
B) Impaired vision
C) Periorbital edema
D) Cretinism
Q3) A patient with a history of heart failure has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism.The drug interaction with glycosides and thyroid replacement therapy will most likely require which change in therapy?
A) Decrease in the daily digoxin dosage
B) Gradual increase in the daily glycoside dosage
C) Inability to begin thyroid replacement therapy because of the underlying heart condition
D) Increased thyroid replacement dosage
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Chapter 37: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient for adverse effects of long-term glucocorticoid therapy.Which condition would most likely be present?
A) Dehydration
B) Hypotension
C) Osteoporosis
D) Thrombocytopenia
Q2) The nurse transcribes a new order for a patient for a fludrocortisone.When planning the time of administration,the nurse will schedule this medication to be given
A) with breakfast and dinner.
B) once daily in the evening.
C) before meals.
D) with lunch.
Q3) What are functions of glucocorticoids?(Select all that apply.)
A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B) Have anti-inflammatory activities
C) Regulate protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism
D) Provide relief of rheumatoid arthritis
E) Include aldosterone
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Chapter 38: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient about estrogen therapy,which drug(s)will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions?(Select all that apply.)
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Q2) Which condition(s)would be of special concern when evaluating a patient for treatment with gonadal hormones?(Select all that apply.)
A) Sexually transmitted disease
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Cancer of the reproductive organs
E) Smoking
Q3) What is the rationale for using an androgen as part of breast cancer treatment?
A) For maintenance of fat stores
B) To promote nutrition
C) To prevent wasting resulting from cancer growth
D) For palliative treatment to suppress cancer cell growth
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Chapter 39: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which emergency drug must be available when caring for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
A) Naloxone
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Dextrose
D) Dopamine
Q2) A patient is a gravida 1,Rh-negative woman at a 28 weeks' gestation.The father of her child is Rh positive.The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered.What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must caution be used when taking a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to enhance male sexual function?
A) It can become habit forming.
B) Life-threatening consequences can occur with cardiovascular disorders.
C) It is an ineffective treatment.
D) It is expensive and available only by special prescription.
Q2) Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the mini pill as an oral contraceptive?
A) Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and breakthrough bleeding
B) Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness
C) Increased estrogen-related adverse effects
D) Difficulty breastfeeding after pregnancy
Q3) The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who is seeking oral contraceptives.Which condition would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
A) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Varicose veins
D) Thromboembolic disease
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What may become discolored by phenazopyridine (Pyridium)in addition to the urine?
A) Feces
B) Sclera
C) Sputum
D) Saliva
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient taking Pyridium for the diagnosis of UTI.What should the nurse report to the health care provider?(Select all that apply.)
A) Orange-colored urine
B) Yellow sclera
C) Flushing of the skin
D) Headache
E) Increased pain and burning
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a single-dose packet of fosfomycin to a patient diagnosed with a UTI.When preparing this medication,the nurse will
A) pour contents into a soufflé cup and administer by mouth.
B) mix with 3 mL of normal saline and inject subcutaneously.
C) pour contents into 90 mL of juice, stir, and administer by mouth.
D) mix contents with 120 mL of water and administer by mouth.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient and family about postoperative care for a trabeculectomy?(Select all that apply.)
A) Use aseptic technique for all dressing changes and medication administration.
B) Place the patient on the operated side.
C) Avoid heavy lifting.
D) Redness in the eye, pain, and swelling are common occurrences after surgery.
E) Avoid straining on defecation.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient immediately following a right-sided trabeculectomy.When positioning this patient,the nurse will encourage a _____ position.
A) prone
B) right side lying
C) left side lying
D) Trendelenburg
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Cancer
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Q1) Which nursing consideration(s)would be taken into account prior to the administration of cisplatin IV?(Select all that apply.)
A) Review of laboratory data for presence of myelosuppression and hepatic and renal parameters
B) Administration of IV hydration as prescribed
C) Administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen)
D) Administration of prechemotherapy mesna (Mesnex)
E) Assessment for dermatologic conditions
Q2) The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin)acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle?
A) S phase
B) Mitotic phase
C) Phase G
D) Phase G
Q3) Why are bone marrow stimulants used in the treatment of cancer?
A) To increase uptake of the chemotherapy from the interior of the bones
B) To strengthen bones weakened by pathologic processes
C) To enhance the patient's immune system during treatment
D) To protect the bone marrow from destructive actions from the cancer treatment
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Drugs Used to Treat the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's family asks why neuromuscular blocking agents are used before electroconvulsive therapy.Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "They stimulate respirations while therapy is delivered."
B) "They prevent aspiration of respiratory secretions during the therapy."
C) "They decrease intracranial pressure resulting from therapy."
D) "They reduce the risk of injury during therapy."
Q2) Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular-blocking agents?
A) Fever
B) Flushing
C) Nausea
D) Ataxia
Q3) Patients with which conditions must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular-blocking agent?(Select all that apply.)
A) Pregnancy
B) Hepatic disease
C) Pulmonary disease
D) Renal disease
E) Neurologic disorders
F) Psychiatric disorders
46
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Chapter 45: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient can safely be treated with a fluoroquinolone medication?
A) A 40 year old on steroid therapy
B) A 15 year old with a sore throat
C) A 70 year old with a gait abnormality
D) A 30 year old with a fractured tibia
Q2) Which drugs may reach toxic blood levels if administered with macrolide antibiotics?(Select all that apply.)
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Digoxin
C) NSAIDs
D) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
E) Diuretics
F) Theophylline
Q3) Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Amphotericin B (Abelcet)
B) Streptomycin (Streptomycin)
C) Isoniazid (Nydrazid)
D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
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Chapter 46: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of most healthy individuals in a group?
A) Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)
B) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
C) Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)
D) Adequate Intake (AI)
Q2) A newly admitted patient asks the nurse why the physician has ordered the DASH diet for him.The nurse informs the patient that this diet is ordered to encourage healthy eating specifically for the diagnosis of
A) diabetes.
B) hypertension.
C) arthritis.
D) seizure disorder.
Q3) Which dietary fats are cardioprotective?
A) Monounsaturated
B) Polyunsaturated
C) Saturated
D) Trans
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48
Chapter 47: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse at a health care clinic is educating a patient regarding the use of the supplement ginseng.What information should be conveyed by the nurse?(Select all that apply.)
A) Research has confirmed that ginseng increases the body's resistance to stress.
B) Ginseng is available in tablet form.
C) Insomnia can result from ginseng intake.
D) Ginseng is an aphrodisiac.
E) Ginseng may affect blood coagulation.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old male patient newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).The patient asks if he can continue to take echinacea to help boost his immune system.The nurse's best response is
A) "Limit use to no more than 8 weeks at a time."
B) "Echinacea use is not recommended for patients with autoimmune diseases."
C) "What other medications are you taking?"
D) "That is a decision that you will need to make independently."
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49
Chapter 48: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
Q2) Which patient assessment will the nurse expect to observe when a patient has ingested alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)?
A) Unconsciousness
B) Hypertension
C) GI bleeding
D) Severe vomiting
Q3) The nurse is transcribing an order for disulfiram on a patient in alcohol rehabilitation.When planning the time of day to administer this medication the nurse will document that disulfiram be given
A) before breakfast.
B) with lunch.
C) before dinner.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 49: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid.Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug?
A) It prevents uric acid crystal formation.
B) It promotes uric acid excretion.
C) It provides analgesia.
D) It treats acute gout attacks.
Q2) A patient is prescribed memantine (Namenda)10 mg by mouth daily in liquid form.When preparing this medication,the nurse observes that memantine (Namenda)oral solution has 2 mg/mL in 360 mL.How many milliliters will the nurse prepare?
A) 2.5
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q3) What condition is allopurinol (Zyloprim)used to treat?
A) Gout resulting from antineoplastic therapy
B) Acute attacks of gouty arthritis
C) Cholelithiasis
D) First time gout attacks
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