Introduction to Pharmacology Question
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Pharmacology provides students with a foundational understanding of how drugs interact with biological systems. The course covers key principles such as pharmacokinetics (how drugs move through the body), pharmacodynamics (how drugs exert their effects), drug metabolism, and the various factors influencing drug action. Students will learn about the classification of drugs, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and the basics of drug development and regulation. Emphasis is placed on clinical applications and the role of pharmacology in healthcare and disease management, equipping students with the knowledge necessary for further study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 17th Edition by Clayton
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Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?
A) Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)
B) Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)
C) Controlled Substances Act (1970)
D) Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)
Answer: A
Q2) The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar.Which section of the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)is most helpful to get information about this drug?
A) Manufacturer's section
B) Brand and Generic Name section
C) Product Category section
D) Product Information section
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are routes of drug excretion?
A) GI tract; feces
B) Genitourinary (GU) tract; urine
C) Lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system; blood/plasma
E) Respiratory system; exhalation
Answer: A,B,E
Q2) The nurse administers an initial dose of a steroid to a patient with asthma.Thirty minutes after administration,the nurse finds the patient agitated and stating that "everyone is out to get me." What is the term for this unusual reaction?
A) Desired action
B) Adverse effect
C) Idiosyncratic reaction
D) Allergic reaction
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which life-threatening illness may occur as a result of aspirin (salicylate)administration during viral illness to patients younger than 20 years of age?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Reye's syndrome
C) Chickenpox
D) Influenza A
Answer: B
Q2) Which classification of medications commonly causes allergic reactions in children?
A) Antacids
B) Analgesics
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticonvulsants
Answer: C
Q3) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s)regarding critical pathways is/are true?(Select all that apply.)
A) Efficient for specific diseases or case types
B) The same as medical plans
C) Standardized and enhanced quality care
D) Evaluated less frequently than care plans
E) Enhanced communication for a variety of health care providers
Q2) In which way(s)is nursing diagnosis different from a medical diagnosis?(Select all that apply.)
A) Statement of the patient's alterations in structure and functions
B) Description of the patient's ability to function in relation to impairment
C) Tend to remain the same throughout the course of illness or recovery from injury
D) Varies depending on patient's state of recovery
E) Based on research done by nurses
F) Conditions can be accurately identified by nursing assessment methods
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6
Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of ethnocentrism?
A) A 5-year-old Native American child colors in a book about diabetes.
B) A 14-year-old African American attends a support group to learn about disease management.
C) A 36-year-old Asian prefers to take herbs instead of an oral medication.
D) A 72-year-old Hispanic asks questions about potential adverse effects to a newly prescribed medication.
Q2) The nurse is educating a 13-year-old boy newly diagnosed with diabetes and his parents about diet and glucose monitoring.Which domain of learning is represented when the patient expresses concern about feeling different from his peers?
A) Cognitive
B) Psychomotor
C) Affective
D) Learning style
Q3) Which is the most intangible portion of the learning process?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Psychomotor
D) Eminent
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most reliable method to calculate a pediatric patient's medication dosage?
A) Age
B) Height
C) Body surface area (BSA)
D) Placement on a growth scale
Q2) Which advantage(s)does the unit dose drug distribution system include?(Select all that apply.)
A) There is decreased participation by the pharmacy.
B) The pharmacist is able to analyze prescribed medications for each client for drug interactions and contraindications.
C) There is less waste of medications.
D) The time spent by nursing personnel preparing these medications is increased.
E) Credit is given to the patient for unused medications.
Q3) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A) Temperature
B) Respirations
C) Pain
D) Pulse
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Chapter 7: Percutaneous Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the nurse correctly administer ophthalmic medication?
A) At the inner canthus of the eye
B) In the lower conjunctival sac
C) Directly onto the eyeball
D) To the outer corner of the eyelid
Q2) Which is an accurate nursing action when treating a patient's rash with a lotion?
A) Avoid shaking the container prior to application.
B) Cleanse area with alcohol prior to treatment.
C) Cover the area with gauze because of the oil base.
D) Pat on the area with a gloved hand.
Q3) A patient with metastatic cancer is being admitted for pain control.Which action will the nurse perform in administering a transdermal patch?
A) After removal, dispose of the old patch in a receptacle in the patient's room.
B) Change the fentanyl patch every day, either in the morning or at bedtime.
C) Hold the short-acting oral pain medication when a fentanyl patch is initiated.
D) Label the patch with date, time, dosage, and initials after patch placement.
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Chapter 8: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing to administer medications to a patient with an NG tube,which would be appropriate to give through that route?(Select all that apply.)
A) Liquid medication
B) Tablets crushed and diluted in 30 mL of water
C) Enteric coated tablets crushed and diluted in 30 mL of water
D) Capsules emptied into 30 mL of water
E) Timed release capsules emptied into 30 mL of water
F) Suppositories
Q2) The nurse is administering an oral medication to a 90-year-old patient who has difficulty swallowing pills.One of the medications to be administered is a spansule type capsule.What nursing consideration(s)should be applied in this case?(Select all that apply.)
A) Wash hands before preparing medications and before administration.
B) Crush medications and administer with a soft food, such as applesauce.
C) Check the patient's ID band with the MAR to ensure patient rights are followed.
D) Have an 8-ounce glass of water available.
E) Check with the pharmacist to see if the spansule medication comes in a liquid form.
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Chapter 9: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral
Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer insulin.What does U 100 indicate?
A) 100 mL per unit
B) 10 units per mL
C) 100 units per mL
D) 10 units per 100 mL
Q2) Which needle will the nurse use to administer an intramuscular (IM)immunization on an 18-month-old child?
A) 18-gauge, 1 inch needle
B) 20-gauge,½ inch needle
C) 27-gauge,½ 1 inch needle
D) 25-gauge, ½ inch needle
Q3) Which action by the nurse is accurate when withdrawing medication into a syringe from a vial?
A) Inject an amount of air equal to the medication into the vial.
B) Break the thin neck of the vial container.
C) Remove the rubber stopper on the top of the vial.
D) Discard the initial 0.5 mL of medication to ensure sterility.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration:
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the preferred IM site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
Q2) The nurse administers B IM to a patient in a long-term care facility.After administering this medication,the nurse will(Select all that apply.)
A) carefully recap the needle.
B) identify the patient.
C) massage site of injection.
D) dispose of the used needle according to policy.
E) apply a small bandage to the site.
Q3) Which site is identified by the posterior superior iliac spine and greater trochanter?
A) Ventrogluteal
B) Dorsogluteal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Rectus femoris
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diabetic patient requires the administration of insulin continuously at home.Which system would most likely be used in this instance?
A) Central line catheter
B) Microdrip set
C) Piggyback system
D) Syringe pump
Q2) In assessing a patient with a central venous access device,which sign or symptom indicates that the patient is experiencing an air embolism?
A) Chest pain
B) Erythema
C) Frothy sputum
D) Sweating
Q3) The nurse determines that an elderly patient's IV of D 0.2 NS with 20 mEq KCl at 75 mL/hr is running 3 hours behind.After determining the IV site is patent,what action will the nurse take?
A) Call the health care provider to obtain an order to decrease the IV rate.
B) Administer a bolus to make up the deficit.
C) Recalculate the flow rate and slowly make up the fluids.
D) Maintain the ordered rate.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Drugs That Affect the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the initiation of anticholinergic medications,it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition?
A) Hypertension
B) Infectious diseases
C) Diabetes
D) Closed-angle glaucoma
Q2) A long-term care resident is taking an anticholinergic agent.The nurse observes the resident to be disoriented and hallucinating.The priority nursing action is to
A) report development of alterations to the charge nurse.
B) assess blood glucose.
C) provide for resident's safety.
D) medicate with antianxiety medication.
Q3) Which statement(s)is/are true about efferent nerves?(Select all that apply.)
A) They transmit signals to the spinal cord and brain.
B) They leave the CNS to carry impulses to other body parts.
C) They are part of the peripheral nervous system.
D) They transmit signals that control contractions of smooth and skeletal muscle.
E) They transmit signals that control contractions of some glandular secretions.
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Chapter 13: Drugs Used for Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse finds that a patient is extremely agitated,yells frequently,and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance.What is the nurse's initial action?
A) Administer zolpidem after taking the patient's vital signs.
B) Close the patient's door for privacy after administering Tylenol.
C) Administer benzodiazepine before calling the health care provider.
D) Spend uninterrupted time listening to the patient.
Q2) Which two phases make up normal sleep?
A) Hypnagogic and hypnopompic
B) Rapid eye movement (REM) and non REM
C) Alpha and beta
D) Delta and theta
Q3) Which sleep pattern stage diminishes as an effect of aging?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
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15
Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing an older patient with Parkinson's disease who was started on entacapone 1 week ago.The patient has a history of coronary artery disease and takes an antihypertensive and aspirin.Which information would support the need for a reduction in medication dosage by the health care provider?
A) Constipation
B) Brownish orange urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Dizziness
Q2) Which cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease are reduced with anticholinergic drugs?
A) Cognitive impairments
B) Rigidity
C) Tremors and drooling
D) Postural abnormalities
Q3) Which vitamin will reduce the therapeutic effects of levodopa?
A) A
B) B<sub>6</sub>
C) C
D) D
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient is admitted to the adult psychiatric floor with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.Anxiolytic medications and group therapy have been prescribed.Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes related to her acute stay can be measured by which assessment(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) She is able to sleep 5 hours during the night.
B) The tremor and pacing she exhibited on admission are reduced.
C) She is able to attend and actively participate in group sessions.
D) She is eating only 10% of her meals.
E) She complains of chest pain before group therapy.
Q2) Which is a benzodiazepine of choice when treating anxiety associated with alcohol withdrawal?(Select all that apply.)
A) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B) Oxazepam (Serax)
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Clorazepate (Tranxene)
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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Depressive and Bipolar Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s)is/are true regarding the pharmacologic actions of certain antidepressant drugs?(Select all that apply.)
A) MAOIs block the effects of dopamine in the CNS.
B) SSRIs inhibit the destruction and reuptake of serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants block the action of norepinephrine and epinephrine in the SNS.
D) Monocyclic antidepressants such as bupropion (Wellbutrin) have an unknown mechanism of action.
E) SNRIs prolong the action of neurotransmitters by decreasing the destruction of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Q2) Which postoperative narcotic analgesic will most likely be prescribed to a patient whose current medications include a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI),a thyroid hormone,and a multivitamin?
A) Meperidine (Demerol)
B) Morphine
C) Ibuprofen (Advil)
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
Q2) A patient admitted to a psychiatric facility is hallucinating,pacing,and acting highly suspicious.Based on this information,the nurse will take which action(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Use the most restrictive restraints available to subdue the patient.
B) Be open and direct when handling the patient.
C) Encourage a variety of interactions with others.
D) Provide high-protein, high-calorie foods.
E) Reinforce hallucinations.
Q3) Which type of adverse effects is present when a patient displays prolonged tonic contractions of the tongue,oculogyric crisis,and torticollis?
A) Dystonic reactions
B) Pseudoparkinsonism
C) Akathisia
D) Tardive dyskinesia
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin)for control of seizures must be aware of the risk for which adverse effect(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Blood dyscrasias
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Urinary retention
D) Gingival hyperplasia
E) Insomnia
F) Sedation
Q2) Which premedication assessment by the nurse is most important prior to the initiation of carbamazepine (Tegretol)therapy?
A) Determine patient's ancestry.
B) Monitor blood pressure (BP) lying, sitting, and standing.
C) Auscultate lung sounds.
D) Obtain smoking history.
Q3) What is the drug of choice when treating a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Valproic acid (Depakene)
D) Risperidone (Risperdal)
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via percutaneous coronary angioplasty (PCA)has a shallow,irregular respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min?
A) Elevate the patient's head of bed to facilitate lung expansion.
B) Increase the patient's primary intravenous (IV) flow rate.
C) Complete the FLACC scale.
D) Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan).
Q2) Which statement is true about neuropathic pain?
A) This pain is the result of a stimulus to pain receptors.
B) Patients describe it as dull and aching.
C) It commonly originates in the abdominal region.
D) The pain is a result of nerve injury.
Q3) Which sign or symptom displayed by a patient would be indicative of opiate withdrawal?
A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Lethargy
D) Hypothermia
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Q1) Which cardiovascular condition(s)is/are related to coronary artery diseases (CADs)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
Q2) In addition to type 2 diabetes and heart disease,which condition(s)is/are associated with metabolic syndrome?(Select all that apply.)
A) Dementia
B) Insomnia
C) Renal disease
D) Obstructive sleep apnea
E) Orthostatic hypotension
F) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Q3) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?
Q4) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?
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Chapter 21: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for hyperlipidemia.Which assessment will most increase the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg
B) Hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub>, 6%
C) Walks 3 miles briskly, usually 4 days a week
D) Eats five servings of fruits and vegetables daily
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about statin therapy.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take this medication at night."
B) "This medication will reduce blood clot formation."
C) "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
D) "If I get a headache, I will notify my health care provider."
Q3) Which lipoprotein contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
A) Chylomicrons
B) Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
C) Low-density lipoprotein chylomicron (LDL C)
D) High-density lipoprotein chylomicron (HDL C)
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) Which statement(s)concerning the use of antihypertensive therapy for the treatment of hypertension would be considered true?(Select all that apply.)
A) Diuretics are the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive agent.
B) Diuretics are not used for older adult patients.
C) Diuretics are the most expensive of the antihypertensive agents.
D) Diuretics are often prescribed in combination therapy with other antihypertensive agents.
E) Loop diuretics are considered potassium sparing.
Q2) Which nursing assessment confirms that the angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)that a patient is taking is effective?
A) Weight loss of more than 2 pounds/week
B) LDL cholesterol levels have decreased.
C) Urinary output is increased.
D) Blood pressure has decreased.
Q3) Which medication lowers blood pressure by directly inhibiting renin?
A) Aliskiren (Tekturna)
B) Eplerenone (Inspra)
C) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
D) Reserpine
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to mix a lidocaine infusion for a patient.Which consideration(s)should the nurse take into account before administration?
A) Lidocaine with preservatives should be used.
B) Dextrose 5% is the solution to mix with lidocaine.(Select all that apply.)
C) Therapeutic blood levels should be 1 to 5 mg/L.
D) The rate of administration is 1 to 4 mg/min.
E) Monitor for changes in neurologic status.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia.Which consideration(s)should the nurse take into account before administration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Constant ECG monitoring is necessary.
B) Initial recommended dosage is 12 mg IV bolus.
C) Rapid IV bolus administration is recommended.
D) Saline flush following bolus is necessary.
E) Long half-life of adenosine may prolong adverse medication effects.
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) How frequently are nitroglycerin tablets discarded and prescriptions refilled?
A) Monthly
B) Every 3 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Yearly
Q2) What risk is minimized when the smallest dose of nitroglycerin is used to provide satisfactory results?
A) Allergy
B) Dependence
C) Tolerance
D) Nausea
Q3) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient about the administration of translingual nitroglycerin spray?
A) Shake the container to disperse the medication evenly.
B) Inhale the medication slowly over 1 to 2 minutes.
C) Administer the medication under the tongue.
D) Close the mouth and "swallow" the spray.
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a client recently prescribed pentoxifylline (Trental),which medication will alert the nurse to monitor closely for adverse effects?
A) Antilipemic
B) Antihypertensive
C) Antibiotic
D) Antipsychotic
Q2) Which are necessary steps in the assessment of the patient preparing for treatment PVD with pentoxifylline (Trental)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Check for intolerance to caffeine.
B) Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present.
C) Obtain test results for PT and aPTT.
D) Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia.
E) Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness.
F) Schedule the patient for an exercise stress test.
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27
Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharmacologic agents used to treat DVT may act in which way(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) Prevent platelet aggregation.
B) Prevent the extension of existing clots.
C) Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade.
D) Prolong bleeding time.
E) Lower serum triglycerides.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease?
A) Dissolving clots and preventing formation of new clots
B) Making platelets more flexible and preventing formation of new clots
C) Causing vasodilation and increased blood flow
D) Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation
Q3) Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situation(s)?(Select all that apply.)
A) To prevent stroke in patients at high risk
B) Following a myocardial infarction
C) Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery
D) With DVT
E) To prevent thrombosis in immobilized patients
F) Peptic ulcer disease
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin),the nurse takes the adult patient's apical pulse for 1 full minute.What additional nursing consideration(s)will be taken before administration of the medication?(Select all that apply.)
A) Review of the digoxin blood level
B) Administration of the medication with pulse less than 60 beats/min
C) Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies
D) Administration of the medication with a pulse of 110 beats/min
E) Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight
Q2) Which drug will be administered to a patient being admitted with severe digoxin intoxication?
A) Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
D) Digitalis glycoside
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Q1) The nurse transcribes a new order for ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)on a patient with edema resulting from cirrhosis of the liver.Which currently prescribed medication(s)should the nurse report to the ordering health care provider?(Select all that apply.)
A) Digoxin
B) Prednisone
C) Tobramycin
D) Lipitor
E) Zofran
Q2) What would the nurse anticipate if a patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is prescribed a thiazide diuretic?
A) No change in the antidiabetic regimen
B) Decreased need for antidiabetic medication
C) Increased blood sugar levels
D) Less frequent monitoring of blood sugar level
Q3) Which medication is a potassium sparing diuretic?
A) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Bumetanide (Bumex)
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Q1) Which principle(s)will the nurse include in a teaching plan for antihistamine therapy?(Select all that apply.)
A) It is typical to experience an increase in energy.
B) Dietary fiber and fluids should be increased.
C) Do not take with prescription medications unless approved by a physician.
D) Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect.
E) Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are safe to use with any currently prescribed prescription medications.
Q2) Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seasonal rhinitis and blocked nasal passages about intranasal corticosteroid therapy?
A) "Clear your nasal passage after administration."
B) "Anticipate a therapeutic benefit within 24 hours."
C) "Use a decongestant prior to administration."
D) "Report nasal burning to your health care provider."
Q3) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Q1) The health care provider in an outpatient clinic has prescribed omalizumab (Xolair)to a patient.Which primary outcome will the nurse teach the patient to expect?
A) Easier expectoration of phlegm
B) Less frequent asthma exacerbations
C) Increased moisture of the mucous membranes
D) Liquefaction of thick secretions
Q2) Which statement(s)is/are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder?(Select all that apply.)
A) Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes.
B) Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia.
C) As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate.
D) The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min.
E) Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.
Q3) What is the reason for administering sodium chloride to a patient with emphysema?
A) To increase blood sodium levels
B) To decrease mucus viscosity
C) To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D) To decrease bronchial irritation
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32
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?
A) Steroids
B) Antifungal agents
C) Topical anesthetics
D) Topical anti-inflammatory agents
Q2) The nurse is completing education for a patient who will be undergoing chemotherapy next week.In anticipation of adverse effects associated with oral mucositis resulting from chemotherapy,which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan?(Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid acidic and spicy foods.
B) Using docosanol (Abreva) will decrease the pain.
C) Milk of Magnesia can be used to rinse the mouth and coat mucous membranes.
D) Nystatin liquid can be taken orally to eliminate fungal infections.
E) Cleanse the oral cavity before applying topical agents.
F) Rinse the mouth with an over-the-counter (OTC) mouthwash.
Q3) Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes?
A) Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
B) 2% viscous lidocaine
C) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D) Hydrogen peroxide
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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which explanation by the nurse is accurate to include when teaching a patient who is beginning therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)with metoclopramide?
A) "This medication decreases esophageal muscle tone to reduce reflux."
B) "Peristalsis is increased, so food is digested more quickly."
C) "Gastric emptying is delayed, so you may feel full for longer intervals."
D) "This medication is an antikinetic agent, so you may have difficulty with motor skills."
Q2) Cimetidine (Tagamet)is an example of which class of drug?
A) Protokinetic agent
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Histamine (H<sub>2</sub>) receptor antagonist
D) Coating agent
Q3) Which is considered an acceptable time frame for a patient with gastric distress to self-medicate with over-the-counter antacids?
A) Hours
B) Days
C) Weeks
D) Months
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting?(Select all that apply.)
A) Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B) Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C) Prevents dehydration
D) Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E) Increases intracranial pressure
Q2) What is the role of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)in vomiting?(Select all that apply.)
A) Initiates or induces vomiting
B) Coordinates the vomiting reflex
C) Activates the vomit center (VC) to induce vomiting
D) Samples blood and spinal fluid for potentially toxic substances
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting.Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe?
A) Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing
B) Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness
D) Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the laxative
B) Increased laxative effect
C) Increased absorption of the digoxin
D) Decreased absorption of the digoxin
Q2) Which sign(s)and symptom(s)is/are consistent with dehydration?(Select all that apply.)
A) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit
B) Decreased urine specific gravity
C) Mental confusion and excessive thirst
D) Periorbital edema and increased blood pressure
E) Nonelastic skin turgor and delayed capillary filling
Q3) Which instruction by the nurse will assist in the patient's understanding of lactulose,an osmotic laxative?
A) "This medication draws water into the intestine and stimulates defecation."
B) "There is increased irritability directly on the intestinal wall."
C) "There is lubrication of the intestinal wall that softens the stool."
D) "There is an effect on the nerves to increase the peristalsis of the intestinal smooth muscle."
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus,which was previously controlled with an oral antidiabetic agent,is hospitalized for treatment of a leg ulcer.The health care provider has ordered sliding scale insulin coverage with regular insulin for hyperglycemia.The nurse brings the injection into the room,and the patient becomes upset,stating "I don't want to start taking that drug! I'll need it the rest of my life." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This is the same drug as the oral medication you were taking. It's a stronger dose while you are in the hospital."
B) "Don't worry. You shouldn't need this too often. As you feel better, your blood glucose level will drop."
C) "Your body is under stress right now, which raises your blood glucose level. This does not mean you will be on this drug permanently. Once you're feeling better, your provider will determine if your oral medication is all you will need."
D) "Your disease is progressing and your pancreas is producing less insulin. I know this is a hard time for you. Do you want to talk about it?"
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with myxedema complains to the nurse that he has a "hangover" the next morning after taking a pain medication at night.Which explanation by the nurse is the most accurate?
A) "You have increased sensitivity to the medicine because of your thyroid condition."
B) "Because you haven't been sleeping, you have increased fatigue and should increase the analgesic."
C) "You are not taking enough thyroid medication and you should increase the dosage."
D) "The pain medication is incompatible with your thyroid medication and you should find another analgesic to take."
Q2) Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
B) Liotrix (Thyrolar)
C) Propylthiouracil (Propacil)
D) Liothyronine (Cytomel)
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Chapter 37: Corticosteroids
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Q1) Which fluid replacement method will the nurse identify for a patient on a fluid restriction?
A) Freely throughout the day and evening shift
B) One third of the allowed volume on each shift
C) Half the volume with meals and the remainder divided among shifts
D) As the patient desires
Q2) What are functions of glucocorticoids?(Select all that apply.)
A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B) Have anti-inflammatory activities
C) Regulate protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism
D) Provide relief of rheumatoid arthritis
E) Include aldosterone
Q3) A patient has been on high-dose corticosteroid therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus.In addition to monitoring electrolyte levels,which laboratory studies will the nurse monitor?
A) Complete blood count
B) Partial thromboplastin time
C) Liver function panel
D) Blood glucose levels
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Chapter 38: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack?
A) A 34-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis
B) A 28-year-old woman with a history of eczema
C) A 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day
D) A 36-year-old woman who has a history of abnormal Pap smears
Q2) Which is the most potent of the natural estrogenic hormones produced in the ovaries?
A) Estradiol
B) Estrone
C) Estriol
D) Estrogen
Q3) When teaching a patient about estrogen therapy,which drug(s)will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions?(Select all that apply.)
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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Chapter 39: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is a gravida 1,Rh-negative woman at a 28 weeks' gestation.The father of her child is Rh positive.The mother is asking the nurse about the effect on her unborn child of RhoGAM that has been ordered.What is the nurse's best reply?
A) "Your child will do well after birth once transfusions are administered."
B) "If the baby is Rh negative at birth, he or she will need RhoGAM also."
C) "RhoGAM kills antibodies you make, so your child will be protected."
D) "Your baby may be Rh positive and cause you to make antibodies. These won't affect this baby but could affect future children if RhoGAM isn't given."
Q2) What will the nurse include when teaching a postpartum patient about expected adverse effects of Rh (D)immune globulin?(Select all that apply.)
A) Nausea
B) Constipation
C) Fever
D) Insomnia
E) Aches
F) Diarrhea
G) Anorexia
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax),an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent,has been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) It inhibits the action of testosterone.
B) It improves sexual function.
C) It reduces the size of the prostate.
D) It increases urinary flow.
Q2) A nurse working at the community health clinic receives a call from a teen patient who reports that she has missed one of her birth control pills.Which response by the nurse is accurate?(Select all that apply.)
A) Take the missed pill now.
B) Take the next pill at the regularly scheduled time.
C) Come into the clinic for a pregnancy test.
D) Start with the next month's pill packet at day 1.
E) Take the missed pill and the next pill together at the next regularly scheduled time.
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42
Chapter 41: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often is fosfomycin (Monurol)usually administered when used in the treatment of UTIs?
A) In a one-time dose
B) Once per day
C) Once per week
D) Monthly
Q2) A 14-year-old male is taking tolterodine (Detrol).What is the action of this drug?
A) Restores bladder tone and function
B) Decreases the urge to void
C) Prevents urinary retention
D) Acidifies urine
Q3) Which condition will neostigmine be used to treat?
A) OAB
B) UTI
C) Postoperative or postdelivery urinary retention
D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
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43
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
Q2) What is the action of timolol maleate (Timoptic),a beta-adrenergic blocking agent?
A) Draws aqueous humor from the eye into the circulatory network
B) Increases the production of aqueous humor
C) Increases the outflow of aqueous humor
D) Decreases the production of aqueous humor
Q3) The nurse is preparing a patient for an ophthalmic examination.Which action occurs when the nurse instills eyedrops to produce mydriasis?
A) Drying of tears in the eyes
B) Extreme dilation of the pupil
C) Opening of the canal of Schlemm
D) Paralysis of the ciliary muscle
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) When educating the patient on chemotherapy regarding skin care,the nurse will include(Select all that apply.)
A) vigorously drying the skin with a bath towel.
B) avoiding sunlight.
C) using mild soap.
D) avoiding moisturizer.
E) bathing in lukewarm water.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer medroxyprogesterone acetate as prescribed to a patient diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma.When gathering supplies to provide this medication,the nurse will obtain a(n)
A) plastic medication cup.
B) medicine dropper.
C) subcutaneous needle and syringe.
D) intramuscular (IM) needle and syringe.
Q3) When are cancer cells most sensitive to chemotherapy?
A) Resting phases
B) Rapid division
C) Remission intervals
D) Slow replication
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used to Treat the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The nurse is examining a patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder.Which assessment data are needed to evaluate the patient?(Select all that apply.)
A) Details related to the mechanism of injury
B) Degree of impairment
C) Pain level
D) Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia
E) Elevation of the affected extremity
Q2) In the intensive care unit,the nurse is taking care of a patient who is on a ventilator and is receiving succinylcholine (Anectine).Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Pain
B) Disturbed body image
C) Risk for injury
D) Self-care deficit
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Chapter 45: Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) The nurse is planning to administer an ertapenem IV to a patient in the intensive care unit.When preparing this medication,the nurse will consider reconstituting it with(Select all that apply.)
A) water.
B) bacteriostatic water.
C) 0.9% sodium chloride.
D) 0.45% dextrose.
E) 1% lidocaine.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient being treated with an antimicrobial agent for the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection.Which statement made by the patient shows a need for further education?
A) "I will use a barrier method when having sexual intercourse during therapy."
B) "I will increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL/day."
C) "I will increase protein in my diet."
D) "I will rest frequently."
Q3) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
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Chapter 46: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated for symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and has been identified to have a thiamine deficiency.When performing physical assessment on this patient specific to thiamine deficiency,the nurse will focus on(Select all that apply.)
A) level of consciousness.
B) cardiac status.
C) sensitivity to light.
D) risk for diarrhea.
E) nutrition status.
Q2) What can be directly absorbed from the GI tract into the bloodstream?(Select all that apply.)
A) Glucose
B) Sucrose
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
E) Lactose
F) Maltose
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Chapter 47: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Q1) What is black cohosh used for?
A) Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester
B) Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
C) Providing antispasmodic activity of the gastrointestinal (GI) system
D) Controlling migraine headaches
Q2) The use of which medication would alert the nurse to educate the patient about using ginkgo biloba cautiously?
A) Antiemetics
B) Anti-inflammatories
C) Anticoagulants
D) Antibiotics
Q3) A patient diagnosed with diabetes,hypertension,chronic obstructive pulmonary disease,and angina reports to the nurse that she is taking an aloe juice drink to treat constipation.When assessing this patient for adverse interactions,the nurse will prioritize A) pulse rate.
B) blood pressure.
C) lung sounds.
D) blood glucose monitoring.
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Chapter 48: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol.Which action by the nurse is most important?
A) "Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague.
B) Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license.
C) It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved.
D) State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
Q2) Which protects individuals who have been successfully rehabilitated from substance abuse from discrimination related to past addiction?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
B) National Council on Alcoholism and Drug Dependence
C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)
Q3) What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse)to avoid?
A) All forms of cough syrup
B) Alcohol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Aspirin products
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Chapter 49: Miscellaneous Agents
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Q1) What is the mechanism of action of memantine (Namenda)?
A) Increases production of dopamine
B) Decreases production of serotonin
C) Blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the central nervous system (CNS)
D) Enhances reuptake of central neurotransmitters
Q2) The nurse receives an order to administer colchicine 0.6 mg every 1 to 2 hours until the patient exhibits adverse effects.The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Diminished fever
B) Diarrhea or nausea
C) Increased urination
D) Decrease in erythema
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gout who has elevated uric acid levels.Which medication will likely be administered?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
C) Lactulose (Cephulac)
D) Memantine (Namenda)
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