https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
Introduction to Pharmacology for Rehabilitation Professionals
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental principles of pharmacology tailored specifically for rehabilitation professionals. Students will explore drug classifications, mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions with a focus on medications commonly encountered in physical and occupational therapy settings. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pharmacological interventions can affect rehabilitation outcomes, patient safety, and treatment planning. The course also addresses the role of rehabilitation professionals in medication management, patient education, and interdisciplinary collaboration to optimize patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
D. Ciccone
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating drug safety,the dosage that causes 50 percent of subjects to exhibit a specific adverse effect is known as the
A) median therapeutic dose
B) median toxic dose
C) therapeutic index
D) ceiling effect
E) threshold dose
Answer: B
Q2) In general,the greater the value of the _______,the safer the drug is considered to be.
A) median effective dose
B) threshold dose
C) therapeutic index (TI)
D) ceiling effect
E) potency index
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) Osmosis refers to the special case of diffusion where the diffusing substance is
A) a lipid soluble drug
B) a non-lipid soluble drug
C) a protein
D) a carbohydrate
E) water
Answer: E
Q2) Iontophoresis,phonophoresis,and medicated patches all use the _____ route to administer drugs.
A) oral
B) inhalation
C) injection
D) transdermal
E) rectal
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Biotransformation usually results in an altered version of the original compound known as
A) bile
B) a metabolite
C) an antidrug
D) albumin
E) a steroid
Answer: B
Q2) Most drugs are metabolized by _____ to the drug molecule,and the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are typically located at the ____ of specific cells.
A) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; mitochondria
B) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; mitochondria
C) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
D) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
E) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as
A) an agonist
B) an antagonist
C) a synergist
D) a compliment
Q2) The ability of a drug to bind to its receptor can be influenced by local chemicals such as guanine nucleotides,ammonium ions,and divalent cations.These local regulators are commonly known as _____.
A) competitive agonists
B) noncompetitive agonists
C) allosteric modulators
D) partial antagonists
E) chelators
Q3) In contrast to an agonist,a pharmacologic antagonist
A) has affinity for the receptor, but lacks efficacy
B) is also known as a "blocker"
C) can be used prevent endogenous chemicals from overstimulating the receptor
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
Q2) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
Q2) Antidepressants such as paroxetine or venlafaxine can also be used to treat anxiety because
A) they may be an effective substitute for people who cannot tolerate the side effects of traditional antianxiety drugs
B) they may resolve certain cases of anxiety with less chance of addiction
C) many patients with anxiety also have symptoms of depression
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain newer or second-generation antidepressants such as fluoxetine (Prozac),paroxetine (Paxil),and sertraline (Zoloft)have received attention because of their ability to selectively affect ______ reuptake at certain CNS synapses.
A) norepinephrine
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
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9
Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as
A) intra-articular symptoms
B) extrapyramidal symptoms
C) spinocerebellar symptoms
D) dorsal column symptoms
E) malignant hyperthermia
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Antiseizure drugs attempt to control neuronal activity via all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) decreasing the effects of excitatory amino acids (glutamate, aspartate)
B) increasing the excitatory effects of acetylcholine in the CNS
C) decreasing sodium entry into rapidly firing neurons
D) increasing the inhibitory effects of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E) decreasing the excitatory effects of calcium ions in the CNS
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) Levodopa administration can help resolve the symptoms of Parkinson disease,but this drug can also cause
A) gastrointestinal problems
B) cardiac arrhythmias
C) postural hypotension
D) dyskinesias
E) all the above are true
Q2) All of the following drugs can be used to treat Parkinson disease EXCEPT
A) L-DOPA
B) dopamine antagonists
C) catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors
D) anticholinergic drugs
E) MAO type b inhibitors (e.g., selegiline)
Q3) Upon entering the brain,levodopa is then transformed into dopamine the enzyme
A) dopa transmutase
B) dopa decarboxylase
C) monoamine oxidase
D) acetylcholinesterase
E) sodium-potassium ATPase
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) When general anesthetics are administered by the inhalation route,a major advantage is they
A) take effect slowly
B) take effect rapidly
C) permit better control over the level of anesthesia
D) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage I of anesthesia
E) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage II of anesthesia
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
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13
Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Differential nerve block occurs because small diameter,unmyelinated neurons that convey _______ are the most sensitive to local anesthetics.
A) pain
B) temperature
C) touch
D) proprioception
E) motor impulses
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Muscle relaxant effects of botulinum toxin appear to diminish or wear off after several months because
A) the immune system destroys the toxin
B) the muscle hypertrophies and generates more muscle fibers
C) a new presynaptic terminal "sprouts" from the axon was originally affected by the toxin
D) the liver metabolizes the toxin
E) the toxin is excreted intact in the urine
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15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Morphine and many other powerful opioids exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to the
A) alpha adrenergic receptor
B) beta adrenergic receptor
C) beta opioid receptor
D) alpha opioid receptor
E) mu opioid receptor
Q2) Certain patients may fail to respond to opioids or may report increased pain (hyperalgesia)when given opioid drugs.This opioid-induced hyperalgesia is likely due _____ in nociceptive pathways in susceptible patients.
A) increased activity of glutamate
B) decreased activity of substance P
C) increased activity of GABA
D) decreased activity of acetylcholine
E) opioids never cause increased pain when administered in clinical situations
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16
Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with A) drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec])
B) gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium)
C) histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) the ability to decrease inflammation
B) the ability to increase bronchodilation in conditions such as asthma
C) the ability to relieve mild-to-moderate pain (analgesia)
D) the ability to decrease the elevated body temperature associated with fever (antipyresis)
E) the ability to decrease blood clotting by inhibiting platelet aggregation (anticoagulation)
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drugs are considered "disease-modifying" antirheumatic drugs
EXCEPT
A) NSAIDs such as aspirin
B) gold compounds such as auranofin (Ridaura),
C) tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept (Enbrel)
D) antimalarials such as chloroquine (Aralen)
E) methotrexate
Q2) Early and aggressive use of ______ can slow the progression of rheumatoid arthritis in many patients before there is extensive damage to affected joints.
A) NSAIDs
B) acetaminophen
C) anabolic steroids
D) disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
E) drugs that increase bone and cartilage destruction
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)device is known as the
A) loading dose
B) demand dose
C) background infusion rate
D) minimal dosage rate
E) maximal dosage rate
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that affects nicotinic cholinergic receptors will affect activity in both divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)because
A) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found on all organs and tissues innervated by the ANS
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are located at the junction between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways
C) both divisions of the ANS affect peripheral tissues by releasing epinephrine onto those tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
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Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions
EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
Q2) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
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21
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors on spinal interneurons typically results in a _______ in excitability of ______ supplied by these interneurons.
A) increase; motor neurons
B) decrease; motor neurons
C) increase; sensory
D) decrease; sensory
E) alpha-2 receptors are not located in the spinal cord
Q2) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to reducing the formation of angiotensin II,drugs that inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE inhibitors)can reduce hypertension by ____ the effects of ____.
A) increasing; bradykinin
B) decreasing; aldosterone
C) increasing; norepinephrine
D) A and B only
E) all the above
Q2) Nonselective beta blockers may produce bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma and similar respiratory disorders because nonselective beta blockers
A) stimulate beta-1 receptors on the lungs
B) block beta-1 receptors on the lungs
C) stimulate beta-2 receptors on the lungs
D) block beta-2 receptors on the lungs
E) stimulate alpha-1 receptors on the lungs
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23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Sudden rupture of atherosclerotic plaques in the coronary artery is a characteristic of ______,and is typically treated with ____.
A) stable; sublingual nitroglycerin combine with a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker
B) unstable; beta blockers combined with nitrates, calcium channel blockers, and antithrombotic drugs
C) stable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
D) unstable; norepinephrine and epinephrine
E) variant; calcium channel blockers
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19971
Sample Questions
Q1) Depending on the dose and route of administration,lidocaine and similar drugs can be used as local anesthetics or cardiac antiarrhythmic drugs because these drugs affect the excitability of _____ ion channels.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
Q2) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His
D) excitation; bundle of His
E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
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25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digitalis exerts its primary mechanical effect by _____ the sodium-potassium pump on the myocardial cell membrane,which leads directly to an _____ intracellular sodium concentration.
A) stimulating; increase
B) inhibiting; increase
C) stimulating; decrease
D) inhibiting; decrease
Q2) Digitalis may exert some of its beneficial effects by decreasing heart rate via a(n)_______ in _______ stimulation of the heart.
A) increase; parasympathetic
B) decrease; sympathetic
C) increase; sympathetic
D) decrease; parasympathetic
E) A and B are true
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombolytic drugs may be helpful in treating an acute cerebrovascular accident (stroke)if
A) they are administered 8 to 10 hours after the onset of symptoms
B) they are administered orally
C) the stroke is ischemic in nature
D) all the above are true
Q2) Patients who develop muscle pain and weakness when taking lipid lowering drugs such as atorvastatin (Lipitor)and simvastatin (Zocor)
A) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs because these muscle symptoms are usually not severe
B) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but resolve the muscle pain through strenuous resistance exercises
C) should continue on the lipid lowering drugs but take an analgesic such as aspirin to control the pain
D) should be removed immediately from the drug because these symptoms may represent potentially serious myopathies
E) these drugs are not associated with muscle pain or weakness
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that inhibit the production or effects of leukotrienes are helpful in treating bronchospastic disease because
A) leukotrienes are especially important in mediating the airway inflammation that underlies bronchoconstrictive disease
B) these drugs can be combined with other drugs (glucocorticoids, beta agonists) to provide optimal management in specific patients with asthma and COPD
C) these drugs are generally safe and well tolerated
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true; drugs that inhibit the production or effects of leukotrienes are not helpful in treating bronchospastic disease
Q2) Drugs that decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions are known commonly as _______,whereas drugs that facilitate the production and ejection of mucus are known commonly as ________.
A) expectorants; mucolytics
B) mucolytics; expectorants
C) antihistamines; bronchodilators
D) bronchodilators; antihistamines
E) antitussives; anticholinergics
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most antacid medications contain a chemical base that neutalizes excess _____ ions in the stomach,thereby _____ intragastric pH.
A) hydrogen; increasing
B) hydrogen; decreasing
C) sodium; increasing
D) sodium; decreasing
E) calcium; increasing
Q2) In many people with gastric ulcers,antibacterial drugs are often combined with proton pump inhibitors to help eliminate ________ infection as a potentiating factor in ulcer formation.
A) h. pylori
B) streptococcal
C) e. coli
D) girardia
E) p. aeruginosa
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
Q2) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
Q3) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19977
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged,systemic administration of glucocorticoids can produce
A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) suppression of the adrenal gland
E) all the above are true
Q2) From a physical therapy perspective,the most important adverse effect seen in patients taking systemic glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory steroid)drugs is
A) hypertension
B) aggravation of diabetes mellitus
C) aggravation of stomach ulcers
D) increased chance of infection
E) tissue catabolism (breakdown)
Q3) Glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex
A) on a daily basis, usually around 8:00 a.m. in most humans
B) in response to stressful stimuli (trauma, fever, and so forth)
C) in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physiologic doses of testosterone can be used therapeutically to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) delayed puberty in boys
B) hereditary angioedema
C) anemia
D) prostate cancer
E) conditions in which there is substantial muscle catabolism and protein loss
Q2) In certain older men,small doses of testosterone (testosterone replacement)may produce beneficial effects on body composition,strength,bone mineralization,mood,and libido,but may also cause an increased risk of
A) anemia
B) osteoporosis
C) prostate hypertrophy and cancer
D) skin breakdown
E) hereditary angioedema
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19979
Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonates such as alendronate (Fosamax)and pamidronate (Aredia)reduce bone resorption in osteoporosis and similar conditions by
A) inhibiting osteoclast activity
B) increasing calcium absorption for the GI tract
C) decreasing calcium excretion by the kidneys
D) providing a dietary source of calcium
E) all the above are true
Q2) Parathyroid hormone ______ plasma calcium levels by ______ calcium resorption from bone.
A) increases; increasing
B) increases; decreasing
C) decreases; decreasing
D) decreases; decreasing.
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
33
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Glugagon-like peptide type 1 (GLP-1)receptor agonists such as exenatide (Byetta)and liraglutide (Victoza)sensitize pancreatic ____ cells so that a relatively greater amount of _____ is released when these cells sense a rise in blood glucose.
A) alpha; insulin
B) beta; insulin
C) alpha; glucagon
D) beta; glucagon
E) delta; somatostatin
Q2) Insulin _____ the storage of glucose in skeletal muscle and other tissues,thereby _____ plasma glucose levels after a meal.
A) increases; increasing B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; increasing D) decreases; decreasing E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Q1) Rehabilitation interventions that use ultraviolet irradiation (UV light)should be used cautiously in people taking antibacterial drugs because antibacterial drugs may cause
A) pulmonary edema
B) photosensitivity
C) renal failure
D) tendinopathy
E) rhabdomyolisis
Q2) Aminoglycosides,erythromycin,the tetracyclines,and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______,thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
A) nucleus; messenger RNA transcription
B) ribosome; messenger RNA translation
C) membrane; active transport
D) ribosome; passive diffusion
E) nucleus; messenger RNA translation
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) An antiviral vaccine is typically created by
A) combining several antiviral drugs in the same pill
B) administering a single, strong antiviral drug just after to the onset of infection
C) administering a single, strong antiviral drug at the peak of the viral infection
D) administering drugs that suppress the immune response to viral infection
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
Q2) Although several different drugs are available to treat malaria,many of these drugs are ineffective in certain parts of the world because
A) malaria is difficult to diagnose accurately
B) the organism that causes malaria has become resistant to these drugs
C) antimalarial drugs must all be given by continuous intravenous infusion
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Q1) Aspirin and similar NSAIDs may help prevent colorectal cancer and other malignancies by inhibiting the production of ______.
A) new blood vessels
B) tumor necrosis factor alpha
C) interferons
D) interleukins
E) prostaglandins
Q2) A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels,thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients.Drugs that use this strategy are known as
A) topoisomerase inhibitors
B) angiogenesis inhibitors
C) aromatase inhibitors
D) antimetabolites
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Drugs that block the interleukin-2 receptor (e.g.,basiliximab [Simulect],daclizumab [Zenapax])and prevent interleukin-2 from activating T lymphocytes can be especially helpful in
A) reducing the progression of HIV infection to AIDS
B) reducing the incidence of acute organ transplant rejection
C) treating antibacterial drug resistance
D) treating antiviral drug resistance
E) reversing resistance to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs
Q2) Cyclosporine and tacrolimus suppress immune function by inhibiting the ______ protein in lymphoid tissues which results in decreased production of _____.
A) calcineurin; interleukin-2
B) interleukin-2; immunoglobulin G
C) immunoglobulin G; prostaglandins
D) prostaglandins; interleukin-2
E) interleukin-2; calcineurin
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