Introduction to Pathophysiology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Pathophysiology offers students a foundational understanding of the physiological processes underlying common diseases and disorders. This course explores the alterations in normal body functions that lead to various health conditions, emphasizing the mechanisms of disease development, progression, and the bodys adaptive responses. Through the study of case scenarios and clinical correlations, students will build a comprehensive framework for recognizing signs and symptoms of illness, thus preparing them for more advanced studies in health sciences and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/176
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) Pathophysiology involves the study of:
A) the structure of the human body.
B) the functions of various organs in the body.
C) functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
D) various cell structures and related functions.
Answer: C
Q2) The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
A) subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
B) signs and symptoms of a disease.
C) factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
D) early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
Answer: B
Q3) The term prognosis refers to the:
A) period of recovery and return to a normal state.
B) expected outcome of the disease.
C) mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
D) typical collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2431
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
A) Dehydration
B) Third-spacing
C) Hypovolemia
D) Water retention
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
A) Loss of the thirst mechanism
B) Excessive sweating
C) Excessive aldosterone secretion
D) Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
A) Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps
B) Oliguria
C) Elevated serum pH
D) Cardiac arrhythmias
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2432
Sample Questions
Q1) The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as:
A) registered massage therapy.
B) naturopathy.
C) physiotherapy.
D) reflexology.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
A) Antagonism
B) Beneficial
C) Synergism
D) Potentiation
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2433
Sample Questions
Q1) Intractable pain is best defined as:
A) pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb.
B) severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication.
C) pain perceived as coming from a source other than the actual source.
D) pain coming from a specific dermatome.
Q2) What is the definition of endorphins?
A) Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
B) Transmitters for sensory impulses
C) Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
D) Pain-causing chemical mediators
Q3) According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
A) at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
B) by the stress response.
C) by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
D) by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2434
Sample Questions
Q1) Granulation tissue is best described as:
A) highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection.
B) an erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications.
C) a type of adhesion with no vascularization.
D) a form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes.
Q2) All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
A) Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
B) Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
C) Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
D) Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
Q3) Systemic effects of severe inflammation include:
A) erythema and warmth.
B) loss of movement at the affected joint.
C) fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
D) abscess formation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2435
Sample Questions
Q1) When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
A) sporadic occurrence.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) emerging disease.
Q2) A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
A) RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
B) a double strand of DNA.
C) many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
D) numerous mitochondria.
Q3) Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:
A) patient is allergic to the drug.
B) balance of species in the resident flora is upset.
C) mucosa of the stomach is irritated.
D) infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2436
Sample Questions
Q1) In cases of HIV infection, the "window period" refers to the time between:
A) entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.
B) entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.
C) entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.
D) diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS."
Q2) When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
A) cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
B) immune complex hypersensitivity.
C) type I hypersensitivity.
D) type IV hypersensitivity.
Q3) Humoral immunity is mediated by:
A) natural killer cells.
B) T lymphocytes (T cells).
C) B lymphocytes (B cells).
D) neutrophils.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2437
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
A) Fungus
B) Virus
C) Gram-negative bacterium
D) Mite
Q2) The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:
A) using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate.
B) checking the frequency of the exacerbations.
C) noting the location and size of the lesion.
D) the type of pain associated with the lesion.
Q3) What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
A) Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions
B) Autoimmune response
C) Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
D) Basal cell degeneration
Q4) All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
A) The malignant cell is a melanocyte.
B) They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.
C) The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early.
D) The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2438
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Q2) What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints
B) Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
C) Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement
D) Progressive degeneration in selected joints
Q3) What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
A) Norepinephrine
B) GABA
C) Serotonin
D) Acetylcholine
Q4) Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
A) The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
B) A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
C) The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
D) One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2439
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to the disorder hemophilia A?
A) It is transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait.
B) There is usually a total lack of factor VIII in the blood.
C) Males and females can be carriers.
D) Hematomas and hemarthroses are common.
Q2) Von Willebrand disease is caused by:
A) defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions.
B) excessive lymphocytes that do not mature.
C) absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick.
D) a lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency.
Q3) What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?
A) Leucopenia
B) Neutropenia
C) Pancytopenia
D) Erythrocytosis
Q4) What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
A) Radiation
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2440
Sample Questions
Q1) The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin's lymphoma is the: A) monocyte.
B) Ann Arbor cell
C) Hodgkin's lymphocyte
D) Reed-Sternberg cell
Q2) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Q3) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2441
Sample Questions
Q1) Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the:
A) kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye.
B) peripheral arteries in the legs.
C) aorta and coronary arteries.
D) liver, spleen, and stomach.
Q2) When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?
A) Blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90
B) Blood pressure fluctuates between 130/85 and 180/105
C) Blood pressure increases rapidly and is unresponsive to medication
D) Chronic kidney disease leads to consistently elevated blood pressure
Q3) The term intermittent claudication refers to:
A) sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves.
B) chest pain related to ischemia.
C) ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise.
D) dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2442
Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoptysis is a significant sign of:
A) pleural effusion.
B) pulmonary embolus.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) atelectasis.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT apply to carbon dioxide?
A) It diffuses across membranes much more easily than does oxygen.
B) It is carried in blood as carbaminohemoglobin.
C) It can be converted into bicarbonate ion.
D) It is replaced on hemoglobin by oxygen in the lungs.
Q3) The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:
1) upper and lower respiratory tracts.
2) nasal cavities and the sinuses.
3) nasopharynx and oropharynx.
4) middle ear cavity and auditory tube.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2443
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major function of the limbic system?
A) Overall control of fluid balance
B) Required for logical thinking, reason, and decision making
C) Determines emotional responses
D) Responsible for artistic and musical talents
Q2) Following a head injury, what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
A) Hematoma or infection
B) Laceration by foreign objects
C) Hypoxia or acidosis
D) Tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
Q3) As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the:
A) optic nerve.
B) peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III.
C) sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye.
D) occipital lobe.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2444
Sample Questions
Q1) In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
A) Infection of the external ear
B) Obstruction of the auditory tube
C) Rupture of the tympanic membrane
D) Spread of infection into the mastoid cells
Q2) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B) Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C) Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
Page 17
D) Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2445
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?
1) If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar.
2) If unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%).
3) Treat immediately with insulin.
4) Give large quantity of clear fluids for shock.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following does NOT apply to inappropriate ADH syndrome?
A) The cause is excess ADH secretion.
B) Severe hyponatremia results.
C) Excessive sodium is retained.
D) Fluid retention increases.
Q3) Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
A) Facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy
B) Exophthalmos and tachycardia
C) delayed physical and intellectual development
D) Goiter and decreased basal metabolic rate (BMR)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2446
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.
A) A vaccine is not available.
B) The incubation period is too short to track contacts.
C) Infection is often asymptomatic.
D) Antibodies are not produced.
Q2) Oral candidiasis is considered to:
A) be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children.
B) cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue.
C) cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off.
D) be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth.
Q3) What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
A) Anemia and leucopenia
B) Jaundice and pruritus
C) Recurrent infections
D) Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2447
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the bladder is TRUE?
A) The bladder wall lacks rugae.
B) Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.
C) It contracts when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
D) Continuous peristalsis in the bladder wall promotes urine flow.
Q2) In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain?
A) Inflammation, causing ischemia in the tubules
B) Inflammation, stretching the renal capsule
C) Increasing glomerular permeability, creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney
D) Microbes irritating the tissues
Q3) Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
A) Renin
B) Aldosterone
C) Angiotensin
D) Antidiuretic hormone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2448
Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A) Varicocele
B) Hypospadias
C) Spermatocele
D) Hydrocele
Q2) Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
A) slow the growth of the primary tumor.
B) destroy any micrometastases.
C) prevent the removal of any lymph nodes.
D) reduce the need for a mastectomy.
Q3) A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
A) prostatic cancer.
B) benign prostatic hypertrophy.
C) acute prostatitis.
D) chronic prostatitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2449
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
A) Adenoma
B) Lipoma
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Adenocarcinoma
Q2) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A) identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
B) locate and identify the primary tumor.
C) decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
D) determine the best treatment and prognosis.
Q3) Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
A) Size of the tumor
B) Number of metastases
C) Degree of differentiation of the cells
D) Number of lymph nodes involved
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2450
Sample Questions
Q1) A person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous has:
A) an incomplete dominant gene.
B) a multifactorial condition.
C) co-dominant genes.
D) X-linked dominant trait.
Q2) Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Metabolic disorders
C) Certain structural abnormalities
D) All the above
Q3) The term proteomics refers to the study of:
A) DNA sequences with unknown functions.
B) gene sequences in individual chromosomes.
C) the proteins resulting from activation of specific genes.
D) identifying certain base pairs in DNA.
Q4) What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?
A) Type AB blood
B) Down syndrome
C) Color blindness
D) Cleft lip and palate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2451
Sample Questions
Q1) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q2) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A) normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy.
B) no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery.
C) delivery of a high birth-weight infant.
D) no additional complications for the infant or mother.
Q3) Edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy as a result of:
A) reduced kidney function.
B) decreased serum albumin.
C) increased blood volume.
D) increases in blood pressure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2452
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A) It often develops in untreated, undescended testes.
B) It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C) The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D) The cancer usually causes sterility.
Q2) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still's disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1) Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2) High fever and skin rash
3) Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4) Deformity of the hands and feet
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Q3) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A) a refusal to eat.
B) extreme weight loss.
C) alternating binge eating and purging.
D) chronic diarrhea.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2453
Sample Questions
Q1) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased estrogen secretion.
B) genetic factors.
C) sedentary lifestyle.
D) decreased parathyroid hormone.
Q2) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
Q3) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2454
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies/apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A) Sudden changes in body position from supine to upright may cause low blood pressure.
B) Venous return and cardiac output are decreased with immobility.
C) All cardiovascular reflexes are lost with prolonged immobility.
D) A and B
Q2) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q3) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of: A) stasis of urine in the urinary system.
B) development of hypocalcemia with immobility.
C) fluid overload in the system.
D) lack of neurological control of the bladder.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2455
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A) The presence of several stressors at the same time
B) Past experiences
C) Lack of effective coping mechanisms
D) A, B, and C
Q2) Selye defined three stages in the stress response. The third stage is designated as the:
A) alarm stage.
B) resistance stage.
C) stage of exhaustion.
D) maladaptive stage.
Q3) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2456
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A) demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued.
B) require a larger dose than expected to control pain.
C) require a smaller dose than expected to control pain.
D) show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity.
Q2) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A) Behavioral change
B) Weight gain
C) Depression
D) Loss of sensory function
Q3) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cirrhosis.
B) mental confusion.
C) loss of motor coordination.
D) altered personality and amnesia.
E) respiratory failure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2457
Sample Questions
Q1) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) Shigella outbreaks.
C) rabies.
D) severe pain and headache.
Q2) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A) Systemic vasodilation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Nausea and cramps
D) Rapid but strong pulse
Q3) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
Q4) Radiation damage may occur from repeated exposure to:
A) ultraviolet rays.
B) X-rays.
C) radioactive substances.
D) A, B, and C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30