Introduction to Pathology Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Pathology offers students a foundational understanding of the mechanisms and manifestations of disease. The course explores the key principles underlying cell injury, adaptation, and death, as well as tissue repair and regeneration.
Essential pathological processes including inflammation, neoplasia, genetic and immune disorders, and hemodynamic disturbances are covered in detail. Through lectures, case studies, and microscopic examination, students gain insight into the causes, development, and consequences of disease at the cellular and organ level, preparing them for advanced studies in medicine, biomedical sciences, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology Secrets 3rd Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
386 Verified Questions
386 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial infarct represents a form of:
A) Dystrophic calcification
B) Metastatic calcification
C) Fibrinoid necrosis
D) Coagulation necrosis
E) Wet gangrene
Answer: D
Q2) All the following are signs of irreversible cell injury except:
A) Apoptosis
B) Pyknosis
C) Karyorrhexis
D) Karyolysis
E) Vacuolar degeneration
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertrophic scars are called:
A) Granuloma
B) Granulation tissue
C) Proud flesh
D) Keloid
E) Dehiscence
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of delayed healing of a skin wound caused by a traffic accident?
A) Lack of vitamin
B) Lack of vitamin C
C) Zinc deficiency
D) Infection
E) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the diagnosis of AIDS,it is important to test the patient for antibodies to:
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Pneumocystis carinii
E) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Answer: C
Q2) Amyloid A formed in response to chronic infections is typically deposited in all the following organs except the:
A) Brain
B) Rectum
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Adrenals
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect of a DNA repair enzyme?
A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Hereditary polyposis coli
C) Xeroderma pigmentosum
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q2) Many tumors secrete their own growth factors.This form of stimulation is called:
A) Autocrine
B) Heterocrine
C) Paracrine
D) Endocrine
E) Exocrine
Q3) The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?
A) Carcinoma of the lung
B) Carcinoma of the liver
C) Carcinoma of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Malignant brain tumors
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Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are routinely used in prenatal diagnosis except:
A) Ultrasound
B) Chorionic villus biopsy
C) Fetal skin biopsy
D) Amniotic fluid analysis
E) Maternal blood analysis
Q2) Cystic fibrosis may present in newborns with signs of:
A) Dehydration
B) Meconium peritonitis
C) Malabsorption
D) Diarrhea
E) Bronchiectasis
Q3) The most important intracranial complication of the neonatal respiratory syndrome is:
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Periventricular hemorrhage possibly expanding into a hematocephalus
C) Calcification of the basal ganglia
D) Kernicterus
E) Microcephaly
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most venous emboli that are of clinical significance originate in the veins of the:
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Brain
E) Lower extremities
Q2) Most arterial emboli that cause cerebral infarcts originate from the:
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Cerebral veins
Q3) Ingrowth of granulation tissue into a venous thrombus is called:
A) Conglutination
B) Sedimentation
C) Margination
D) Organization
E) Infarction
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
Q2) Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes.Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Lactate dehydrogenase
E) Acid phosphatase
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:
A) Atelectasis
B) Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)in adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Aspiration pneumonia
Q2) Pleural tumors are usually associated with:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Hemothorax
C) Pyothorax
D) Pleural effusion
E) Empyema
Q3) The most common of all the infections of the respiratory tract is:
A) Upper respiratory infection
B) Laryngitis
C) Tracheitis
D) Pneumonia
E) Pleuritis
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lymphomas is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Q2) Microcytic hypochromic anemia with low hemosiderin stores in the bone marrow will respond favorably to treatment with:
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B 2
C) Folic acid
D) Iron
E) Selenium
Q3) Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Leukemia
E) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:
A) Xerostomia
B) Achlorhydria
C) Gastric hyperacidity
D) Achalasia
E) Reflux esophagitis
Q2) The most common tumor of the salivary glands is:
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma of major ducts
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
Q3) Diverticula of the intestine are most often located in the:
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Cecum
D) Transverse colon
E) Sigmoid colon
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12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unconjugated bilirubin circulates in the blood bound to:
A) Immunoglobulin G
B) Albumin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Transferrin
E) Ceruloplasmin
Q2) In chronic liver failure there is a marked decrease of blood:
A) Hemoglobin
B) Bilirubin
C) Immunoglobulin G
D) Immunoglobulin M
E) Albumin
Q3) Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity in patients with cirrhosis is associated with hypersecretion of which hormone?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Corticosteroids
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgen
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inadequate secretion of pancreatic digestive juices in chronic pancreatitis causes:
A) Constipation
B) Dilatation of the intestines
C) Atrophy of the mucosa of the small intestine
D) Malabsorption
E) Jaundice
Q2) Which component of the pancreatic juices acts as a buffer and neutralizes the acidity of the gastric juice?
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Gastrin
E) Bicarbonate
Q3) Acute pancreatitis can be induced experimentally by all the following except:
A) Cholecystectomy
B) Obstruction of the main pancreatic duct
C) Mechanical disruption of the pancreatic acinar cells
D) Drugs that injure pancreatic acinar cells
E) Injection of bile into the main pancreatic duct
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are features of acute glomerulonephritis except:
A) Proteinuria
B) Hematuria
C) Polyuria
D) Hypertension
E) Edema
Q2) The most common urinary stones are composed of:
A) Calcium phosphate
B) Magnesium ammonium sulfate
C) Uric acid
D) Cystine
E) Xanthine
Q3) All the following are renal complications of diabetes except:
A) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease)
C) Arteriolar hyalinosis
D) Papillary necrosis
E) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
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15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following statements about infertility are true except:
A) One in six couples in the United States is infertile.
B) Infertility is as common among males as it is among females.
C) Treatment of infertility costs society millions of dollars.
D) Major advances have been made in the treatment of male infertility.
E) Major advances have been made in the treatment of female infertility by in vitro fertilization.
Q2) Which of the following is a tumor marker of nonseminomatous germ cell tumors?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Albumin
D) Alpha-fetoprotein
E) Alpha-antitrypsin
Q3) Which of the following is a typical feature of secondary syphilis?
A) Penile ulcer
B) Chancre on the prepuce
C) Condyloma latum
D) Aortic aneurysm
E) Tabes dorsalis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a protozoal cause of vaginitis?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Candida albicans
Q2) All the following tumors are squamous cell carcinomas except:
A) Carcinoma of the vulva
B) Carcinoma of the vagina
C) Carcinoma of the cervix
D) Carcinoma of the endometrium
E) Carcinoma of the labia majora
Q3) All the following infections of the female genital system are acquired by an ascending route except:
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Chlamydial salpingitis
E) Human papillomavirus infection
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 75% of all the lymph draining from the breast flows into the:
A) Axillary lymph nodes
B) Internal mammary lymph nodes
C) External mammary lymph nodes
D) Substernal lymph nodes
E) Cervical lymph nodes
Q2) The breast secretes milk in response to hormonal stimulation with:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
E) Aldosterone
Q3) Acute mastitis is most often caused by:
A) Staphylococcus
B)E. coli
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Herpes virus
E) Toxoplasma gondii
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nephrocalcinosis is a typical complication of adenoma of the:
A) Pituitary
B) Parathyroid
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Testis
Q2) Graves' disease is caused by a disorder best classified as:
A) Benign tumor
B) Malignant tumor
C) Infection
D) Autoimmune disease
E) Hormonal insufficiency
Q3) The destruction of hypothalamus will lead to atrophy of all the following endocrine glands except:
A) Pituitary
B) Parathyroid
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenals
E) Ovaries
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Seborrheic keratosis
Q2) Prolonged suntanning causes:
A) Ulcers
B) Accelerated aging of the skin
C) Furuncles
D) Carbuncles
E) Psoriasis
Q3) Bullae may be caused by all the following except:
A) Sunbathing
B) Allergic reaction
C) Poison ivy
D) Porphyria
E) Tumors
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common symptom of degenerative joint disease is:
A) Fever
B) Swelling
C) Pain
D) Ankylosis
E) Crepitation
Q2) Which joint disease is characterized by destruction and loss of cartilage,sclerosis of subchondral bone,cyst formation,and osteophytes?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteomalacia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Gout
E) Infectious arthritis
Q3) The extracellular organic matrix of bones is called:
A) Osteon
B) Osteoid
C) Osteoblast
D) Osteocyte
E) Osteoclast
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frontal baldness,testicular atrophy,and muscle spasm arc typical of which autosomal dominant muscular dystrophy?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb-girdle
E) Myotonic
Q2) Which of the following muscular dystrophies involves the same gene as Duchenne-type dystrophy?
A) Becker's dystrophy
B) Limb-girdle dystrophy
C) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D) Myotonic dystrophy
E) Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Q3) Botulism,a disease caused by a toxin from Clostridium botulinum,is marked by:
A) Tetany
B) Convulsions
C) Paralysis of muscles
D) Loss of sensation
E) Hypercalcemia
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most prominent clinical feature of Alzheimer's disease is:
A) Ataxia
B) Tremor
C) Dementia
D) Aphasia
E) Apraxia
Q2) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
Q3) Which of the following forms of brain injury does not cause significant macroscopic or microscopic changes in the brain?
A) Brain concussion
B) Brain contusion
C) Brain laceration
D) Coup lesion
E) Contrecoup lesion
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Senile macular degeneration of elderly persons,a common cause of blindness,is:
A) Immune mediated
B) Caused by diabetes
C) Of unknown pathogenesis
D) Found only in myopic persons
E) Caused by high blood pressure
Q2) Which part of the eye is usually affected by chemical injury with exogenous caustic substances?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Posterior chamber
D) Optic nerve
E) Retina
Q3) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conductive hearing loss may be caused by:
A) Impacted cerumen
B) Streptomycin
C) Antimalarial drugs
D) Tumor of the acoustic nerve
E) Brain injury
Q2) Which of the following tumors may cause vertigo?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Schwannoma of the VIII nerve
D) Neurilemoma of the VII nerve
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q3) Sensory hearing loss of unknown etiology that affects elderly persons is called:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Presbycusis
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
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