Introduction to Nutrition Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nutrition provides students with a foundational understanding of the essential nutrients required for optimal health and well-being. The course explores the physiological functions of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water, as well as their role in the human body. Topics include dietary guidelines, nutrition throughout the life cycle, digestion and absorption, energy balance, and the relationship between nutrition and chronic diseases. Students will also examine contemporary issues in nutrition, such as food labeling, supplementation, and the impact of lifestyle choices on health. The course equips students with the knowledge to make informed dietary decisions and promotes the development of healthy eating habits.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ group is not included as a member of the USDA Food Patterns
A) milk products
B) vegetables
C) fruits
D) grains
E) fats and sugars
Answer: E
Q2) Which Dietary Reference Intake categories is most appropriately used to develop and evaluate nutrition programs for groups?
A) Estimated Average Requirement
B) Tolerable Upper Intake Level
C) Adequate Intake
D) Recommended Dietary Allowance
E) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges
Answer: A
Q3) The ingredients list on a food label must list the ingredients in descending order of predominance by weight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Of all the possible alternatives, why are carbohydrates the preferred energy source?
Answer: as long as carbohydrate is available, the human brain depends exclusively on it as an energy source. Most cells depend on glucose for their fuel to some extent, and the cells of the brain and the rest of the nervous system depend almost exclusively on glucose for their energy.
Q2) Grains, legumes, and root vegetables contain predominantly _____.
A) simple sugars and fiber
B) starches and fiber
C) fat and fiber
D) simple sugars and fat
E) fat and starches
Answer: B
Q3) The hormone that moves glucose from the blood into the cells is _____.
A) glucagon
B) insulin
C) testosterone
D) sucrose
E) glycogen
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An essential fatty acid is one which ____.
A) is necessary and made by the body in large quantities
B) comes only from plant foods
C) is necessary and must be supplied by food
D) comes only from animal sources
E) is essentially fully absorbed in the body
Answer: C
Q2) Jack is confused about whether to use margarine or butter. Which of the following is the best advice for him?
A) Use margarine instead of butter because it contains no cholesterol and protects against heart disease.
B) Use butter instead of margarine since margarine contains trans-fatty acids, which are harmful.
C) Choose soft or liquid margarine that contains 0 grams of trans fat instead of hard margarine or butter.
D) Eliminate both butter and margarine from your diet.
E) Use lard as an alternative, because both margarine and butter are more harmful.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strict vegetarian must be careful about intakes of ____.
A) vitamin C and vitamin A; they may be too high
B) iron and zinc; they may be too low
C) iron and zinc; they may be too high
D) vitamin C and vitamin A; they may be too low
E) vitamin D and potassium; they may be too high
Q2) The task of acquiring enough vitamin B may pose a problem to vegans because ____.
A) fibers in vegetables inhibit its absorption
B) they lack the proper enzymes to break it down
C) it is found only in animal-derived products
D) deficiency may occur from excess intake of soy products
E) it cannot be put into a vitamin
Q3) Under which conditions will dietary protein not be used efficiently by the body, regardless of the quality? Why does this occur?
Q4) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q5) Under special circumstances, a nonessential amino acid can become essential. A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Q1) Once the digestive process is complete, the colon retrieves ____, which the body must recycle.
A) water and dissolved salts
B) iron and water
C) protein and sodium
D) water and fiber
E) urea and bile
Q2) Describe the difference between low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density lipoproteins (HDL). What is the relationship between blood levels of these lipoproteins and risk of heart disease?
Q3) The lipoprotein that contains the greatest proportion of triglycerides is the ____.
A) HDL
B) LDL
C) VLDL
D) chylomicron
E) lymph
Q4) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to the other.
Q5) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body component has the greatest variability in quantity and quality?
A) bone mass
B) muscle mass
C) fluid
D) fat mass
E) blood volume
Q2) The portion of a triglyceride molecule that can be converted into glucose is _____.
A) short-chain fatty acids
B) medium-chain fatty acids
C) long-chain fatty acids
D) glycerol
E) adenosine triphosphate
Q3) The metabolic breakdown of glucose to pyruvate is called _____.
A) metabolism
B) glycolysis
C) lipolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
E) glucolysis
Q4) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fast food contributes to obesity because it generally provides _____.
A) nutrient-dense foods
B) smaller portions
C) plenty of low-kcalorie choices
D) large portions of energy-dense foods
E) too much salt and not enough sugar
Q2) The number of fat cells increases most rapidly _____.
A) when you eat a large breakfast
B) during late childhood and early puberty
C) if you are inactive
D) around the age of 40
E) in the womb
Q3) As part of a sensible weight-loss plan, individuals should _____.
A) eat breakfast
B) eliminate some meals
C) always eat a few large meals instead of several small meals
D) restrict water intake
E) limit daily intake to less than 1200 kcal/day
Q4) Discuss the pros and cons of gastric bypass and gastric banding surgeries for weight loss.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A plays a role in cell differentiation, which means that it _____.
A) helps cells differentiate between the vitamins
B) allows cells to specialize and mature so they can perform their intended functions
C) promotes the storage of fat-soluble vitamins
D) aids in excretion of water-soluble vitamins
E) allows cells to undergo apoptosis so they can perform their intended functions
Q2) Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin E
E) vitamin B
Q3) The cooking method used to prepare a food can affect the bioavailability of vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
Q5) Discuss the potential problems with vegetarianism and vitamin B deficiency.
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food is a good source of bioavailable calcium?
A) coffee
B) bananas
C) Swiss chard
D) cheddar cheese
E) spinach
Q2) An irregular heartbeat related to potassium loss may occur _____.
A) with diets low in fresh fruits and vegetables
B) as a result of severe diarrhea
C) in persons with diabetes
D) as a result of an excessive intake of protein
E) as a result of an excessive intake of bananas
Q3) Which substance enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract?
A) vitamin D
B) vitamin C
C) protein
D) linoleic acid
E) vitamin A
Q4) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q5) Why is selenium important in the body and why might it be used to treat cancer?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) Only about _____ percent of adults in the U.S. meet physical activity guidelines set by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40
Q2) Physical activity tends to _____.
A) raise blood pressure
B) raise the risk of type 2 diabetes
C) decrease HDL cholesterol
D) slow resting pulse
E) increase LDL cholesterol
Q3) Physical activity that expends more than 7 kcalories per minute is classified as
A) way too difficult
B) easy
C) light-intensity
D) vigorous-intensity
E) moderate-intensity
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Pregnant women who are vegans do not eat any animal products; therefore, these women should get their protein from _____.
A) protein supplements
B) high-protein smoothies
C) legumes, whole grains, nuts, seeds, and tofu
D) milk, yogurt, and cheese
E) eggs, nuts, and whole milk
Q2) Mothers should breastfeed their infants _____.
A) on demand
B) every four hours
C) as soon as she can feel that the milk has been replenished
D) no more than 5 times in a 24 hour period
E) every 30 minutes
Q3) The most common cause of maternal mortality in developed countries is _____.
A) gestational hypertension
B) eclampsia
C) gestational diabetes
D) preeclampsia
E) chronic hypertension
Q4) Describe the functions of the placenta in supporting fetal growth.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify ways that watching television adversely affects children's nutritional health.
Q2) The foods that help most to meet children's iron requirements are _____.
A) milk, cheese, or yogurt
B) dark green, deep orange, or yellow vegetables
C) prunes, grapes, or raisins
D) whole-wheat, enriched, or fortified breads
E) seafood of all kinds
Q3) Based on data from the BMI-for-age growth charts, children and adolescents are categorized as overweight when their weight is above the _____ percentile.
A) 75th
B) 85th
C) 90th
D) 95th
E) 98th
Q4) Describe the nutrient attributes of breast milk and how it is tailor-made to meet the nutrient needs of the human infant.
Q5) What is the role of the "gatekeeper," as applied to nutrition?
Page 14
Q6) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Q1) As people grow older, the use of medicines becomes commonplace, thus increasing the potential for diet-medication interactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ food assistance program supplements income for low-income households by means of a card similar to a debit card that can be used to purchase food.
A) Meals for Singles
B) Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program
C) SNAP
D) OAA Nutrition Program
E) Box Lunches for Seniors
Q3) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
Q4) Which health behavior is the strongest predictor of continued mobility in the later years?
A) not smoking
B) low to moderate alcohol consumption
C) maintenance of moderate body weight
D) frequent physical activity
E) sleeping regularly and adequately
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Q1) Elevation in C-reactive protein is associated with ____.
A) inflammation
B) decreased albumin
C) renal disease
D) hypoglycemia
E) iron deficiency
Q2) Which method for obtaining food intake data is most often used to monitor a patient's response to, and compliance with, medical nutrition therapy?
A) food record
B) food frequency checklist
C) 24-hour recall
D) usual intake record
E) calorie count
Q3) Describe how nutrients alter gene expression.
Q4) Once nutrition problems have been diagnosed, the nurse or dietetic technician identifies expected outcomes to correct the problems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the major components of the 24-hour dietary recall?
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) Which herb can raise the likelihood of bleeding when used in conjunction with anticoagulant drugs?
A) ginseng
B) ephedra
C) kava
D) valerian
E) ginger
Q2) There are no known interactions between herbal supplements and medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Supplements of _____ are usually given to patients receiving the antituberculosis drug isoniazid.
A) iron
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin B
D) folate
E) calcium
Q4) How should Mr. Hare be counseled regarding his vitamin K intake?
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Q5) Describe which types of individuals are at high risk for adverse effects from medications.
Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) In PPN, the osmolarity of a feeding solution is usually limited to 500 milliosmoles per liter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition because enteral nutrition helps stimulate or maintain normal gut function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enteral nutrition is more costly than parenteral nutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients who do not have _____ are candidates for home enteral nutrition.
A) dysphagia
B) gastroparesis
C) gastric outlet obstruction
D) pancreatic conditions that cause malabsorption
E) short bowel syndrome
Q5) The nutrition support prescribed for Ms. Johnson provides 30% of kcalories from lipids. Why do you think the higher end of the recommended range for lipids was prescribed?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) What is the primary treatment of ulcers?
A) surgery
B) relaxation therapy
C) drug therapy
D) diet
E) lifestyle changes
Q2) Dental caries are caused by _____.
A) bacteria that produce acids that attack tooth enamel
B) excessive fluoride intake that attacks tooth enamel
C) high-fiber foods that cause carbohydrate to stick to teeth
D) excessive consumption of sugar that eats into teeth
E) over production of alkaline secretions
Q3) Dietary adjustments after a gastrectomy are influenced by _____.
A) the size of the remaining stomach
B) the resulting slower gastric emptying
C) the type of surgical procedure performed
D) the patient's food preferences
E) which drugs were prescribed post-surgery
Q4) Define oropharyngeal dysphagia and explain the symptoms.
Q5) Discuss the complications of gastritis.
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which food is most likely to increase intestinal gas?
A) cabbage
B) tomatoes
C) green beans
D) walnuts
E) white bread
Q2) Diverticular disease often occurs with _____.
A) a bacterial infection
B) aging
C) constipation
D) food intolerances
E) hypertension
Q3) Inflammation that may extend deeply into intestinal tissue and be accompanied by ulcerations, fissures, and fistulas is characteristic of _____.
Celiac disease
A) Crohn's disease
B) ulcerative colitis
C) celiac disease
D) irritable bowel syndrome
E) gluten-intolerance
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Intestinal adaptation is a process that _____.
A) occurs in celiac disease patients who are on gluten-free diets
B) accounts for the pathology in acute pancreatitis
C) results in diminished intestinal function
D) occurs after a prolonged low-fat diet
E) occurs after a bowel resection
Q2) Anemia caused by an illness rather than a nutrient deficiency is known as _____.
A) a peripheral blood smear
B) anemia of chronic disease
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) leukemia
E) malabsorption
Q3) Kati will require nutrition education aimed at eliminating gluten from her diet. The dietitian will teach Kati to _____.
A) avoid all cereal and grain products
B) substitute whole-wheat flour for enriched wheat flour when cooking
C) check ingredient lists on food labels carefully
D) avoid all milk and milk products
E) avoid fish and poultry
Q4) Explain the process of intestinal adaptation.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) Which condition is not a consequence of cirrhosis?
A) esophageal varices
B) portal hypertension
C) ascites
D) disorientation
E) pruritis
Q2) Among patients with liver disease, _____ may be to blame if malnutrition develops.
A) low-sodium diets
B) jaundice
C) lactulose
D) impaired memory
E) bilirubin clearance
Q3) Left untreated for years, a blocked bile duct may lead to _____.
A) liver damage
B) kidney failure
C) neuropathy
D) gastritis
E) pancreatic cancer
Q4) What are some of the possible causes of wasting seen in people with cirrhosis?
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) hypoglycemia
A)a group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia and disordered insulin metabolism
B)elevated blood glucose concentrations
C)the condition in which blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes
D)a distinctive fruity odor on the breath of a person with ketosis
E)the presence of albumin in the urine; a sign of diabetic nephropathy
F)a coma that occurs in uncontrolled diabetes; may be due to diabetic ketoacidosis, the hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, or severe hypoglycemia
G)extreme hyperglycemia that is associated with hyperosmolar blood, dehydration, and altered mental status
H)abnormally low concentrations of blood glucose
I)delayed stomach emptying
J)pain in the legs while walking; usually due to an inadequate supply of blood to the muscles
Q2) Describe the primary criteria used to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes.
Q3) What is the "honeymoon period"?
Q4) Explain "sick-day management" for a patient with diabetes.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) Based on her 24-hour recall, which dietary recommendation is appropriate for Mrs. Winslow if she is to lower her blood lipids with diet alone?
A) Eat more whole grains, legumes, fruits, and vegetables.
B) Consume less milk and ice cream.
C) Choose foods high in insoluble fibers.
D) Eat fewer carbohydrates and choose more high-protein foods.
E) Continue her current diet as the lab results indicate her high lipids are due to genetic abnormalities.
Q2) Research has shown that a daily intake of _____ grams of EPA and DHA fish oil supplements can lower triglyceride levels.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 4
C) 4 to 6
D) 5 to 10
E) 10 to 12
Q3) Mr. Daniels' stroke was short-lived. What is the term used for this type of stroke?
Q4) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q5) Describe the DASH eating plan.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) One measure of chronic kidney disease is _____.
A) GFR
B) the ratio of albumin to creatinine in a urine sample
C) BUN levels
D) the degree of proteinuria
E) urine output
Q2) The consequences of acute kidney injury include _____.
A) decreased BUN levels
B) increased serum creatine levels
C) azotemia, but not uremia
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) elevated sodium levels, which can lead to heart failure.
Q3) All of these factors are consequences of acute kidney injury except _____.
A) oliguria
B) sodium retention
C) the inability to metabolize nutrients
D) elevated levels of potassium, phosphate, and magnesium
E) elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Q4) Suggest appropriate amounts of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids for a patient on hemodialysis.
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Q1) Which action is not attributed to cortisol?
A) muscle degradation
B) raising blood levels of amino acids
C) raising blood levels of glucose
D) breakdown of triglycerides
E) decreased urine output
Q2) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q3) A patient is admitted to the ER with multiple gunshot wounds. The initial treatment includes _____.
A) beginning enteral nutrition
B) administering intravenous (IV) fluids
C) beginning PPN
D) referral to the dietitian
E) anti-inflammatory medications
Q4) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency _____.
A) is an inherited disorder
B) accounts for the majority of cases of COPD
C) is detrimental only if the person is also a smoker
D) causes the production of excess mucus
E) inhibits oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
A)the accumulation of fatty tissue at the base of the neck
B)the process of cancer development
C)a fungal infection of the mouth and throat
D)to spread from one part of the body to another
E)substances that can cause cancer
F)a wasting syndrome, associated with cancer, that is characterized by anorexia, muscle wasting, weight loss, and fatigue
G)the use of drugs to arrest or destroy cancer cells
H)benign tumor composed of fatty tissue
I)a common virus that can cause blister-like lesions on the lips and in the mouth
J)transplantation of the stem cells that produce red and white blood cells
Q2) All of these conditions are HIV-related causes of wasting except _____.
A) anorexia
B) chronic diarrhea
C) altered metabolism
D) lipodystrophy
E) oral infections
Q3) Describe HIV-lipodystrophy syndrome and discuss current treatment strategies.
Page 27
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