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Introduction
Introduction to Nutrition provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles of human nutrition and the role it plays in overall health and well-being. The course covers essential nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, and explores their functions, sources, and significance in the diet. Students learn about digestion, absorption, metabolism, and the relationship between nutrition, disease prevention, and lifestyle choices. Emphasis is placed on evaluating dietary guidelines, understanding nutritional labels, and applying evidence-based recommendations to maintain healthy eating habits throughout the life span.
Recommended Textbook Wardlaws Perspectives in Nutrition 9th Edition by Carol Byrd Bredbenner
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Q1) If a total of 2000 kcal were consumed (250 grams of carbohydrates,66 grams of fat,and 102 grams of protein),what percentage of energy comes from carbohydrates,fat,and protein?
A) 30% carbohydrate, 50% fat, and 20% protein
B) 50% carbohydrate, 35% fat, and 15% protein
C) 20% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 50% protein
D) 50% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 20% protein
Answer: D
Q2) An important function of carbohydrates is to
A) supply energy.
B) provide amino acids.
C) absorb and transport vitamins.
D) promote growth and tissue repair.
Answer: A
Q3) Proteins are formed by linking together
A) fatty acids.
B) amino acids.
C) glycerols.
D) nitrogen groups.
Answer: B
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Q1) Food components that must be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel include
A) sugars, dietary fiber, and fluoride.
B) sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.
C) sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat.
D) sugars, calcium, and B-vitamins.
Answer: B
Q2) Which claims are NOT closely regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A) Health claims
B) Structure/function claims
C) Nutrient content claims
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The reference calorie intake for calculating percent Daily Values on Nutrition Facts labels is
A) 1500 kcal.
B) 2000 kcal.
C) 2300 kcal.
D) 3000 kcal.
Answer: B
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Q1) An example of an incidental food additive in our food supply is
A) any additive that is a synthetic additive.
B) any color additive because their use is not for purposes of food safety.
C) bisphenol A (BPA), used to increase durability of some food and beverage containers.
D) monosodium glutamate, because it can also be found naturally in foods.
Answer: C
Q2) All food additives in the U.S.food supply have been thoroughly tested for safety. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The percentage of U.S.households considered food insecure is A) 2
B) 25
C) 15
D) 80
Answer: C
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Q1) Gluten is best described as
A) a protein found in wheat and related grains.
B) a carbohydrate found in wheat and related grains.
C) a substance found in wheat and related grains that causes irritable bowel disease.
D) a medication used to treat celiac disease.
Q2) The villi found in the gastrointestinal tract
A) are finger-like projections into the lumen of the small intestine.
B) are covered with the brush border (microvilli).
C) contain cells that produce mucus, hormones, and enzymes.
D) produce a large surface area for nutrient absorption.
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The sphincter that allows chyme to pass into the small intestine is known as the
A) lower esophageal sphincter.
B) sphincter of Oddi.
C) pyloric sphincter.
D) ileocecal sphincter.
Q4) Diarrhea is most often caused by bacterial or viral infection of the GI tract.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) List 3 health concerns associated with a low fiber diet.
Q2) Persons with diabetes can never eat sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is excess sugar consumption discouraged?
A) It may cause dental caries.
B) It may cause weight gain.
C) It lacks dietary fiber.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Food processors and manufacturers use amylopectins to produce sauces and gravies for frozen foods because they
A) are easily digested.
B) are resistant to spoilage.
C) form a stable starch gel.
D) are sweet tasting.
Q5) Raffinose and stachyose are examples of polysaccharides.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List 3 ways to decrease the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Q7) List 4 functions of carbohydrates.
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Q1) What is the role of bile acids in the digestion of lipids?
Q2) According to guidelines from the American Heart Association for the general population,saturated fats
A) should constitute no more than 7% of total energy in the diet.
B) are quite visible in foods, so they should be eliminated from the diet to reduce risk of heart disease.
C) are only a health risk if they come from a food that has been fried.
D) are only a health risk if they come from gravies, desserts, and dairy products.
Q3) Blockage of a major artery is caused by a blood clot.These clots may form when
A) cholesterol plaques build up in artery walls.
B) HDL invades artery walls.
C) the dietary intake of cholesterol is less than 200 mg per day.
D) LDL fails to remove cholesterol from artery walls.
Q4) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)is associated with
A) glucose metabolism.
B) omega-3 fatty acid metabolism.
C) omega-6 fatty acid metabolism.
D) cholesterol metabolism.
Q5) What is atherosclerosis and what key lipid factors contribute to this disease?
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Q1) After major surgery,hospital patients may be at risk of PEM due to A) poor prior health.
B) low dietary intakes.
C) increased needs for recovery.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q2) An example of two incomplete protein foods eaten together to produce a complete protein meal are
A) bread and butter.
B) red beans and rice.
C) cereal and milk.
D) hamburger with a bun.
Q3) The functions of protein include
A) providing structural support to body cells.
B) producing antibodies to fight infection.
C) contributing to acid-base balance.
D) All of these are functions of protein.
Q4) An individual with the genetic disease PKU has a limited ability to metabolize the essential amino acid phenylalanine.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Describe 3 of the factors that increase the risk of developing alcohol dependency or alcohol abuse.
Q2) An alcoholic beverage with 15 g alcohol provides ______ kcal from alcohol.
A) 105
B) 60
C) 135
D) 15
Q3) Wine generally contains ________ alcohol.
A) \(\le\)5%
B) 5 - 14%
C) 15 - 22%
D) >22%
Q4) The risk of developing a problem with alcohol is higher in those A) with a biological parent with alcohol problems.
B) who are women.
C) who begin drinking heavily in middle-age.
D) who are of Asian descent.
Q5) An 80-proof vodka or gin is 80% alcohol.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The kidney is the major organ that regulates metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The citric acid cycle is also known as the
A) urea cycle.
B) Krebs cycle.
C) menstrual cycle.
D) aerobic pathway.
Q3) The electron transport chain takes place in the cytosol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following pathways is the major way in which alcohol is metabolized?
A) pyruvate dehydrogenase pathway
B) ethanol dehydrogenase pathway
C) lactate dehydrogenase pathway
D) alcohol dehydrogenase pathway
Q5) Using metabolic terms,explain how the MEOS system is different from the alcohol dehydrogenase pathway for metabolism of alcohol.
Q6) Name two characteristics of inborn errors of metabolism.
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Q1) Losing weight is easier than keeping it off.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hormone increases in the blood immediately following consumption of a meal?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Ghrelin
C) Epinephrine
D) Glucagon
Q3) Physical activity is most likely to lead to successful weight loss if it
A) is performed at high intensity.
B) is performed regularly.
C) leads to significant loss of body water.
D) causes muscle soreness.
Q4) Spot-reducing is a good way to lose weight in one area of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the three important components of a successful weight-management program.
Q6) Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia.In what ways are they similar?
In what ways are they different?
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Q1) When conditions in the exercising muscle are anaerobic,metabolism of glucose results in
A) the formation of lactate.
B) production of 28 to 30 ATP.
C) transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions to oxygen.
D) None of these responses are correct.
Q2) The suggested macronutrient intake for endurance athletes should be _____ from carbohydrates,______ from protein,and ______ from fat.
A) 46%; 16%; 38%
B) 50%; 25%; 25%
C) 60%; 15%; 25%
D) 40%; 30%; 30%
Q3) Lactic acid from anaerobic glycolysis is transported by the blood to the liver where it will be
A) resynthesized to glucose.
B) converted to sucrose or maltose.
C) converted to cholesterol for disposal from the body.
D) converted to urea for disposal by the kidneys.
Q4) What are the basic components of an exercise program?
Q5) Describe how the intensity of exercise effects glycogen utilization.
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Q1) Vegans may require supplements of calcium,zinc,iron,and vitamin B-12 to prevent deficiencies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vitamin A toxicity is known to cause all of the following EXCEPT A) birth defects.
B) permanent damage to the liver. C) kidney disease. D) death.
Q3) Dietary supplements are tightly regulated by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carotenoid supplementation has been effective in decreasing the risk of lung cancer in smokers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When taken in megadoses,vitamins may act like drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Individuals most likely to experience poor vitamin B-12 status are
A) elderly adults, due to atrophic gastritis.
B) infants, due to low vitamin B-12 content in breast milk.
C) athletes, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements.
D) pregnant women, due to high vitamin B-12 requirements.
Q2) The niacin coenzyme is reduced (NAD<sup>+</sup> \(\rarr\) NADH + H<sup>+</sup>)during
A) glycolysis.
B) the pyruvate decarboxylation reaction.
C) the citric acid cycle.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q3) An excess intake of riboflavin either from diet or supplements is mainly
A) excreted in the urine.
B) excreted in bile and feces.
C) stored in all body cells.
D) stored in the liver.
Q4) Name the 4 Ds of pellagra.What causes pellegra? How is the consumption of corn related to pellagra?
Q5) Describe the symptoms of thiamin deficiency.
Q6) Describe why good folate status is especially important for young women.
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Q1) Which of the following major minerals does NOT have a DRI?
A) sulfur
B) calcium
C) phosphorus
D) magnesium
Q2) Renin
A) is a pituitary hormone that decreases water excretion.
B) is minerals deposited into bone that give strength and rigidity.
C) is an adrenal hormone that causes sodium reabsorption.
D) is a protein-calcium complex that influences enzyme activity in cells.
E) is an enzyme in kidneys formed in response to low blood pressure.
Q3) In addition to its role in bone development and maintenance,calcium is also required for
A) blood clotting, transmitting nerve impulses, and muscle contraction.
B) regulating potassium excretion, normal kidney function, and regulating intracellular water content.
C) phospholipid synthesis, muscle contraction, and formation of DNA and RNA.
D) blood clotting, magnesium absorption, and insulin release from the pancreas.
Q4) List at least five symptoms of dehydration.
Q5) List 6 foods to limit and 6 foods to encourage on a low-sodium diet.
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Q1) All community water systems in the United States are currently fluoridated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a situation where there is an insufficient intake of dietary iodide,the thyroid-stimulating hormone promotes the enlargement of the thyroid gland.This condition is called A) Graves' disease. B) goiter.
C) hyperparathyroidism.
D) Wilson's disease.
Q3) Zinc is transported in the blood to tissues by the proteins albumin and alpha-2 macroglobulin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hemoglobin molecule
A) contains 4 heme compounds.
B) carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
C) decreases during iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of these choices are accurate.
Q5) Why are children at risk of iron toxicity?
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Q1) Maternal iron deficiency anemia can cause
A) premature birth.
B) infant death.
C) labor complications.
D) All of these are effects of iron deficiency.
Q2) The placenta's size and ability to support fetal growth depend on the mother's nutritional status.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Women who begin pregnancy at a normal BMI should gain about ____ pounds during pregnancy.
A) 15
B) 15 to 25
C) 25 to 35
D) 28 to 40
Q4) Consuming alcohol while breastfeeding
A) is recommended to help mothers relax.
B) increases milk output.
C) causes babies to have disrupted sleep patterns.
D) causes babies to drink more milk.
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Q1) Which cereal is least likely to cause allergies in infants?
A) rice
B) wheat
C) barley
D) oats
Q2) In children,gastroesophageal reflux is most common after age 2 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first solid food usually introduced to the infant's diet is
A) cow's milk.
B) strained fruits.
C) pureed meats.
D) iron-fortified infant cereals.
Q4) Infants and children who do not grow at the expected rate for several months are more than likely experiencing
A) Epiphyseal growth.
B) Failure to thrive.
C) Physical depression.
D) Poor socialization.
Q5) Why should leftover formula always be discarded?
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Q1) Which aspects of the environment influence the rate of aging?
A) Income and education
B) Quality of housing and autonomy
C) Access to health care and nutritious food
D) Psychosocial support and protection from climactic extremes
E) All of these responses are correct.
Q2) What food and nutrition service programs does the U.S.Department of Agriculture (USDA)and Administration on Aging provide for older adults?
A) Commodity Supplemental Food program
B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance program
C) Senior Farmers' Market Nutrition program
D) Child and Adult Care Food program
E) All of the above.
Q3) During the adult years,____ can adversely affect the immune system.
A) undernutrition
B) overnutrition
C) excessive iron intake
D) obesity
E) All of these choices are correct.
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