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Introduction to Nutrition provides an overview of the fundamental principles of human nutrition and their application to health and well-being. The course explores the structure, function, and sources of key nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, as well as the role of water in the body. Students will learn about nutrient digestion, absorption, metabolism, and the impact of dietary choices on growth, development, and disease prevention. The course also examines current nutritional guidelines, food labeling, and the relationship between diet, lifestyle, and chronic diseases, equipping students with essential knowledge to make informed dietary decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Q1) The Nutrition Facts label must contain information about which minerals, according to labeling standards?
A)calcium and iron
B)calcium and magnesium
C)iron and potassium
D)iron and zinc
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following nutrients are organic except:
A)viamins.
B)fat.
C)protein.
D)minerals.
Answer: D
Q3) You are assessing your own diet.Which of the following would be the most practical tool to use?
A)www.ChooseMyPlate.gov
B)EARs
C)DVs
D)Dietary Guidelines for Americans
Answer: A
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Q1) Peristalsis is a term that refers to the:
A)circulation of blood in the blood vessels.
B)absorption of nutrients in the intestines.
C)mixing and moving of food through the lymphatic system.
D)last phase of digestion.
E)action of the involuntary muscles of the digestive tract.
Answer: E
Q2) One of the functions of the colon is to absorb:
A)salts.
B)vitamins.
C)sugars.
D)fiber.
Answer: A
Q3) Fiber functions to:
A)aid in the absorption of vitamins.
B)produce GI bacteria.
C)stimulate the GI tract muscles.
D)stimulate the absorption of nutrients.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following carbohydrates is a polysaccharide?
A)fructose
B)starch
C)maltose
D)lactose
Answer: B
Q2) Cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and gums are:
A)nonnutritive sweeteners.
B)sugar alcohols.
C)fibers.
D)forms of starch.
Answer: C
Q3) In the small intestine, _____ from the _____ breaks starch into maltose.
A)bacterial enzymes; colon
B)maltase; intestinal cells
C)amylase; pancreas
D)amylase; salivary glands
Answer: C
Q4) What is blood glucose homeostasis, and how is it achieved within the body?
Answer: not answered

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Q1) Which of the following contains the softest fat?
A)butter
B)chicken fat
C)beef tallow
D)lard
Q2) Enzymes called _____ digest fats in the mouth, stomach, and intestine.
A)lipases
B)amylases
C)bile acids
D)cholecystokinins
Q3) Which of the following fats predominates in the diet and in the body?
A)triglycerides
B)cholesterol
C)phospholipids
D)lecithins
Q4) Not all fatty acids have the same cholesterol-raising effect.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the health effects of omega-3 fatty acids, and recommendations regarding their intake.
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Q1) Which of the following foods contains low-quality protein?
A)corn
B)soy
C)legumes
D)beef
Q2) A major reason why people must have sufficient carbohydrate and fat in the diet is to:
A)stimulate the breakdown of body protein for energy.
B)prevent the loss of essential fatty acids.
C)prevent the breakdown of body protein for energy.
D)stimulate the synthesis of essential amino acids.
Q3) The task of acquiring enough vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may pose a problem to vegans because:
A)fibers in vegetables inhibit its absorption.
B)they lack the intrinsic factor.
C)it is found naturally only in animal-derived products.
D)deficiency may occur from excess intake of soy products.
Q4) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
Q5) Under what conditions will dietary protein not be used efficiently by the body, regardless of the quality? Why does this occur?
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Q1) Despite claims that each new fad diet is different and offers a new approach to weight loss, most fad diets
A)cut kcalories.
B)eliminate animal foods.
C)encourage skipping meals.
D)are individualized.
Q2) Which type of fat poses the greatest risk to health?
A)visceral fat
B)dietary fat
C)subcutaneous fat
D)lower body fat
Q3) Skinfold measurements provide an inaccurate estimate of total body fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ketones can meet some of the nervous system's energy needs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the body, no metabolic difference exists between fasting and starving.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Zachary is trying to gain weight.He complains that he has a hard time eating a lot of food at one meal.You advise him to:
A)eat energy-dense snacks between meals.
B)eat more slowly.
C)drink less water.
D)eat a salad before his meal.
Q2) One of the goals of the dietary plan to treat bulimia is to help clients:
A)decrease control.
B)restrict kcalorie intake.
C)restore nutritional health.
D)develop a set pattern of menus.
Q3) Compared to refined foods, high-fiber, unprocessed, or lightly processed foods aid in weight loss because they provide:
A)less absorption, resulting in fewer kcalories.
B)a faster transit time through the intestinal tract.
C)more kcalories in a larger amount of food.
D)bulk and satiety for fewer kcalories.
Q4) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.
Q5) Describe why physical activity is very important in a weight-loss program.
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Q1) Vitamin E deficiencies in human beings are associated with:
A)diseases of the pancreas.
B)low-carbohydrate weight-loss diets.
C)use of vitamin K supplements.
D)strict vegetarian (vegan) diets.
Q2) Name the antioxidant vitamins and describe how they function in the body.
Q3) Among fruits and vegetables, the best sources of beta-carotene are:
A)green or yellow, like lettuce and corn.
B)dark green or deep orange, like broccoli and sweet potatoes.
C)green, like lettuce, peas, and snap beans.
D)brightly colored, like tomatoes and lemons.
Q4) Studies suggest that a diet rich in carotenoids is associated with a lower risk of: A)diabetes.
B)arthritis.
C)heart disease.
D)osteoporosis.
Q5) What vitamin needs special consideration for those eating vegan diets? Explain why and make diet planning recommendations.
Q6) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
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Q1) All of the following are true of phosphorus except that it:
A)participates in the transfer of energy during cellular respiration.
B)is necessary for growth.
C)is found with calcium in bones and teeth.
D)aids in blood glucose regulation.
Q2) Blood calcium levels can be increased by all of the following except:
A)increased absorption of calcium in the intestine.
B)retention of calcium by the kidneys.
C)release of calcium from the bones.
D)manufacture of calcium from albumin.
Q3) The primary regulator of extracellular fluid volume is:
A)chlorine.
B)sodium.
C)magnesium.
D)potassium.
Q4) The best way to ensure an adequate intake of trace minerals is to:
A)eat foods containing the major minerals.
B)make sure your diet is sufficient in vitamins.
C)consume a variety of foods.
D)practice dietary adequacy.
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Q1) The most potent single predictor of an infant's future health status is:
A)rapidity of the mother's recovery.
B)the infant's birthweight.
C)the age at which the infant first learns to walk.
D)the ease and rapidity of delivery.
Q2) Pregnant women who are vegans should get their protein from: A)protein supplements.
B)high-protein smoothies.
C)legumes, whole grains, nuts, seeds, and tofu.
D)milk, yogurt, and cheese.
Q3) The American Academy of Pediatrics and the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics support exclusive breastfeeding until an infant is _____ months old. A)3

Q4) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
Q5) Describe the energy, carbohydrate, and protein needs of a pregnant woman.
Q7) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman. Page 12
Q6) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
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Q1) Which of the following foods is most likely to cause anaphylactic shock?
A)peanuts
B)rice
C)oatmeal
D)bananas
Q2) Fatty streaks can appear in the arteries as early as:
A)childhood.
B)adolescence.
C)early adulthood.
D)middle age.
Q3) The Feeding Infants and Toddlers Study (FITS) found that the most commonly consumed vegetable among infants and toddlers was:
A)potatoes.
B)carrots.
C)tomatoes.
D)corn.
Q4) Identify ways in which excessive "screen time" adversely affects children's nutritional health.
Page 14
Q5) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.
Q6) What is the role of the "gatekeeper" as applied to nutrition?
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Q1) Which of the following sources of protein are most appropriate for older adults?
A)milk and cheese
B)legumes and fish
C)whole grains and legumes
D)nonfat milk and peanut butter
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Aging is an inevitable, natural process.
B)Aging is programmed into the genes at conception.
C)Aging can be slowed by a healthy lifestyle.
D)Aging can be slowed with the use of appropriate supplements.
Q3) Which of the following is not a common risk factor for malnutrition in older adults?
A)disease
B)eating disorders
C)economic hardship
D)reduced social contact
E)multiple medications
Q4) Describe factors in many older people's lives that increase the likelihood of iron deficiency.
Q5) Why are some elderly people at risk of developing vitamin D deficiency?
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Q1) Mr.Wilson's low hemoglobin and hematocrit may be indicative of a deficiency of dietary:
A)potassium.
B)calcium.
C)sodium.
D)iron.
Q2) Describe the types of information collected in a nutrition screening.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the dietitian has appropriately documented a nutrition diagnosis for a patient who recently lost a significant amount of weight as:
A)recent weight loss of 10 pounds.
B)unintentional weight loss related to poor kcalorie intake as evidenced by 10% weight loss in the past 2 months.
C)unintentional weight loss as evidenced by 10% weight loss.
D)recent weight loss of 10% of usual body weight.
Q4) Which of the following is not a criterion for identifying malnutrition risk?
A)depression
B)recent changes in appetite
C)medical diagnosis
D)gender
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of implementation of care plans, the nurse recognizes that her major role is to:
A)deliver appropriate foods to the patient.
B)identify expected outcomes and plan strategies that can correct problems.
C)plan the diet for the patient.
D)ensure that the appropriate foods are prepared for the patient.
Q2) The nurse notices that an elderly patient is experiencing difficulty chewing.Which of the following diets would be most appropriate?
A)clear liquid diet
B)mechanical soft
C)low sodium
D)blenderized liquid
Q3) Diet progression is appropriate for patients:
A)following surgery.
B)diagnosed with malnutrition.
C)when a reduction in fecal volume is desired.
D)prior to surgery.
Q4) Explain the concept of diet progression.
Q5) Describe what is included in a diet manual.
Q6) Describe a mechanically altered diet and explain when it is useful. Page 18
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Q1) Describe the proper administration of tube feedings.
Q2) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition because enteral nutrition is associated with fewer complications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of nutrition support is appropriate for Mr.Avery at this time?
A)total parenteral nutrition
B)tube feeding
C)oral enteral supplement
D)peripheral parenteral nutrition
Q4) Identify specific conditions that necessitate the use of TPN by central vein.
Q5) The advantages of a closed feeding system include:
A)less likelihood of contamination.
B)less expense.
C)increased nurse contact with the patient.
D)increased patient tolerance.
Q6) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
Q7) Describe the current procedure for administering a central TPN feeding.
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Q8) Name and discuss five metabolic complications that may result from parenteral feedings.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a cause of poor food intake in persons with severe COPD?
A)medications
B)dyspnea
C)lower energy needs
D)change in taste perception
Q2) All of the following nutrients play a critical role in immunity and wound healing except:
A)zinc.
B)vitamin A.
C)vitamin C.
D)potassium.
Q3) A patient is admitted to the ER with multiple gunshot wounds.The nurse understands that the initial treatment includes:
A)initiating enteral nutrition.
B)administering IV fluids.
C)initiating PPN.
D)referral to the dietitian.
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q5) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
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Q1) Dry mouth can result in all of the following except:
A)bad breath.
B)reduced food intake.
C)dental disease.
D)achalasia.
Q2) Oropharyngeal dysphagia may be characterized by all of the following except:
A)inability to initiate swallowing.
B)aspiration.
C)impaired peristalsis.
D)hoarse voice.
Q3) Suggestions for achieving and maintaining weight loss following bariatric surgery include all of the following except:
A)Eat only during designated mealtimes.
B)Engage in regular physical activity.
C)Drink plenty of water and other beverages to suppress appetite.
D)Eat slowly and chew food thoroughly.
Q4) Why does fat malabsorption occur in clients who have undergone gastric surgery that bypasses the duodenum?
Q5) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
Q6) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
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Q1) People with lactose intolerance who can't tolerate whole milk may better tolerate any of the following except:
A)chocolate milk.
B)nonfat milk.
C)aged cheese.
D)yogurt with active bacterial cultures.
Q2) An excessive colonic response to meals, GI hormones, and stress is characteristic of:
A)celiac disease.
B)ulcerative colitis.
C)Crohn's disease.
D)irritable bowel syndrome.
Q3) To help control diarrhea, people with ostomies should consume:
A)applesauce.
B)caffeine.
C)sugar-free candy.
D)grapes.
Q4) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
Q5) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q6) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
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Q1) The dietitian assesses Mr.Jamison's protein needs based on an appropriate weight for his height and estimates that he requires _____ grams of protein per day.
A)25-51
B)52-62
C)56-83
D)98-118
Q2) Most people in hepatic coma experience all of the following except:
A)elevated blood ammonia levels.
B)increased levels of branched-chain amino acids.
C)an accumulation of potentially toxic compounds in the brain.
D)elevated aromatic amino acid concentrations.
Q3) The beneficial effects of moderate alcohol intake are mainly seen in:
A)women who have type 2 diabetes.
B)people with risk factors for liver disease.
C)older people with risk factors for heart disease.
D)men who work in the petrochemical industry.
Nursing Exam Review Multiple Choice
Q4) A patient with cirrhosis may present with no symptoms.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Of the total kcalories in a diabetic diet, approximately _____% should come from protein.
A)8-10
B)15-20
C)20-25
D)26-30
Q2) Which insulin has the quickest onset of action?
A)lispro
B)regular
C)lente
D)ultralente
Q3) Based on the above glucose values, select the true statement about the client's blood glucose.
A)His glycemic control has been reasonable for a person with type 2 diabetes.
B)His fasting glucose has been high, but his post-meal and bedtime glucose have been acceptable.
C)His fasting glucose, post-meal glucose, and bedtime glucose all are too high.
D)His fasting glucose and post-meal glucose have been high, but his bedtime glucose has been acceptable.
Q4) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for a woman with gestational diabetes.
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Q1) The TLC diet advocates a cholesterol intake of less than _____ milligrams per day.
A)100
B)200
C)300
D)400
Q2) The number of deaths from CVD is greater among men than women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Assuming Mrs.Winslow's 24-hour recall is typical of her eating habits, her high cholesterol is most likely due to a :
A)high intake of saturated fat.
B)high intake of fiber.
C)low intake of polyunsaturated fat.
D)low intake of simple sugars.
Q4) The largest contributor of cholesterol in the American diet is: A)meat.
B)fish.
C)milk.
D)eggs.
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Q1) You explain to Mr.Bradley that the diet for end-stage renal disease:
A)strongly influences disease progression.
B)can prevent the development of complications.
C)can control serum levels of nitrogenous wastes and thus help him feel better.
D)can help to control electrolytes and avoid a life-threatening imbalance.
E)all of the above
Q2) If a client is on peritoneal dialysis, his diet should contain less _____ than other renal diets.
A)fat
B)protein
C)vitamins
D)carbohydrate
Q3) Mr.Wilson's GFR is indicative of Stage _____ chronic kidney disease.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q4) Adults with chronic kidney disease frequently develop wasting and PEM.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Fruits and vegetables have been shown to have a protective effect against all of the following types of cancers except:
A)lung.
B)prostate.
C)liver.
D)stomach.
Q2) All of the following contribute to malnutrition in HIV infection except:
A)increased gastric acid secretion.
B)medication side-effects.
C)diarrhea.
D)malabsorption.
Q3) A cancer that arises from muscle or bone is referred to as a(n):
A)sarcoma.
B)adenoma.
C)carcinoma.
D)melanoma.
Q4) Nutrition-related factors may increase or decrease the risk of developing cancer.
A)True
B)False
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