
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Nutrition provides a foundational understanding of the science behind the nutrients essential for human health and wellbeing. The course explores the roles of macronutrients and micronutrients, the process of digestion and absorption, energy balance, and the impact of nutrition on disease prevention. Emphasis is placed on dietary guidelines, nutrient requirements across the lifespan, evaluating food labels, and current issues in nutrition and health. Through a combination of theory and practical application, students will learn to make informed dietary choices and understand how nutrition influences overall health.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Basic Nutrition and Diet Therapy 15th Edition by Staci Nix McIntosh
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Q1) The sum of all body processes inside living cells that sustain life and health is A) science.
B) digestion.
C) metabolism.
D) nutrition.
Answer: C
Q2) A 65-year-old man requires 2000 kcal/day without any specific fat or carbohydrate requirements.The approximate number of kilocalories per day from fat that his diet should provide is _____ kcal/day.
A) 400 to 700
B) 100 to 300
C) 500 to 800
D) 900 to 1200
Answer: A
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Q1) A food that is a good source of fiber is
A) oatmeal.
B) prune juice.
C) salmon.
D) cornstarch.
Answer: A
Q2) Types of dietary fiber include
A) lactose, galactose, and maltose.
B) polysaccharides and polyols.
C) starch, ptyalin, and glucose
D) cellulose, lignin, and noncellulose.
Answer: D
Q3) A negative effect of sugar alcohols is that they
A) contain more kilocalories than sugar.
B) can cause intoxication.
C) promote bacterial disease in the colon.
D) may cause diarrhea.
Answer: D
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Q1) End products of fat digestion do not include
A) fatty acids.
B) glycerol.
C) diglycerides.
D) monosaccharides.
Answer: D
Q2) The functions of fat in the body include
A) enzyme production, insulation of long bones, and bone structure.
B) formation of bone structure and energy for daily activities.
C) flavoring low-fat foods, supplying fatty acids, and lubrication for vital organs.
D) insulation of vital organs, temperature regulation, and cell membrane structure.
Answer: D
Q3) The process of adding hydrogen to fatty acids is called A) hydrolysis.
B) hydrogenation.
C) emulsification.
D) hydration.
Answer: B
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Q1) Very high intakes of animal protein may lead to
A) increased body weight and blood lipid levels.
B) increased muscle mass and strength.
C) decreased body weight and blood lipid levels.
D) muscle atrophy and weakness.
Q2) The element that is contained in proteins but not in carbohydrates or lipids is
A) carbon.
B) hydrogen.
C) nitrogen.
D) oxygen.
Q3) Two types of protein in the body are _____ protein and _____ protein.
A) complete, incomplete
B) animal, vegetable
C) dispensable, indispensable
D) tissue, plasma
Q4) Which of the following conditions might result in the greatest catabolism?
A) Growth
B) Multiple trauma with extensive organ damage
C) Rehabilitation after routine gallbladder surgery
D) Healing a broken bone in the arm

Page 6
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Q1) A child with phenylketonuria should avoid drinking
A) diet beverages sweetened with aspartame.
B) beverages sweetened with high-fructose corn syrup.
C) coffee and other caffeinated beverages.
D) fluoridated drinking water.
Q2) A food that is high in a macronutrient broken down by trypsin is A) bread.
B) fruit.
C) margarine.
D) fish.
Q3) A meal consisting of country-fried steak.carrots.and a baked potato with butter and sour cream would stimulate the hormone cholecystokinin because of the A) presence of food in the duodenum.
B) presence of fat in the duodenum.
C) entry of the acidic chyme into the duodenum.
D) entry of bile into the duodenum.
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Q1) The term for the effect of food intake on the metabolic rate is
A) the thermic effect of food.
B) the resting metabolic rate.
C) the total energy requirement.
D) indirect calorimetry.
Q2) Resting energy expenditure is
A) the same as basal energy expenditure.
B) slightly higher than basal energy expenditure.
C) slightly lower than basal energy expenditure.
D) more accurate for predicting energy needs than is basal energy expenditure.
Q3) The metabolic rate would increase significantly with a body temperature of
A) 97.4° F.
B) 98.4° F.
C) 98.6° F.
D) 101.2° F.
Q4) Energy expenditure is increased by A) physical exercise.
B) mental work.
C) stress.
D) fatigue.

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Q1) The provitamin form of vitamin A that is found in plant pigments is A) beta-carotene.
B) chlorophyll.
C) beta-xanthophyll.
D) calciferol.
Q2) There is a metabolic partnership between vitamin E and A) zinc.
B) chromium.
C) selenium.
D) iron.
Q3) A deficiency of vitamin A may result in A) osteoporosis.
B) bile obstruction.
C) breakdown of cell membranes.
D) night blindness.
Q4) The B vitamin predominantly found in foods of animal origin is A) pantothenic acid.
B) niacin.
C) thiamin.
D) cobalamin.
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Q1) Chromium is a component of the factor that facilitates the action of insulin.This factor is called
A) factor III.
B) the antipernicious factor.
C) the glucogenic factor.
D) the glucose tolerance factor.
Q2) Minerals are
A) organic compounds.
B) elements.
C) made by plants.
D) liquid at room temperature.
Q3) Trace minerals are called trace elements because they are
A) not as important as the other minerals.
B) found in small quantities in food sources.
C) found in small quantities in the body.
D) difficult to detect in the body.
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Q1) The two minerals that occur in the extracellular fluid and regulate water balance are A) calcium and potassium.
B) sodium and chloride.
C) phosphorus and magnesium.
D) potassium and magnesium.
Q2) An example of an electrolyte is A) glucose.
B) iron.
C) potassium.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q3) Oral rehydration therapy is preferred over intravenous therapy for fluid replacement caused by diarrhea because it A) is quicker.
B) tastes better.
C) is more readily available.
D) provides electrolytes as well as fluid.
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Q1) Several vitamins are required in greater amounts during pregnancy because A) fetal demands for the vitamins are high.
B) more hemoglobin is synthesized.
C) the vitamins are excreted in greater quantities.
D) metabolic activities increase.
Q2) Drinking three to four cups of milk a day during pregnancy is recommended because milk is a good source of A) folate.
B) iron.
C) vitamin D.
D) vitamin C.
Q3) Three important factors that support adequate lactation are
A) diet, exercise, and vitamin supplements.
B) intake of dairy products, fluids, and rest.
C) diet, fluids, rest and relaxation.
D) intake of bland foods and adequate fluids.
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Q1) Young children should be offered
A) large portions so they can decide how much to eat.
B) small portions so they can ask for more if hungry.
C) larger portions of food as they grow older.
D) the same amount of food each day.
Q2) The approximate recommended age for adding solid food to an infant's diet is A) 4 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 8 months.
D) 12 months.
Q3) The first milk secreted by a new mother is called A) lactation.
B) colostomy.
C) colostrum.
D) prolactin.
Q4) A good source of calcium for the growing child is A) milk.
B) a juice drink.
C) a dinner roll.
D) a hot dog.
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Q1) The Older Americans Act provides funds for A) congregate and home-delivered meals.
B) meals served at shelters and community centers.
C) meals served at care facilities and hospices.
D) meals for homeless older adults.
Q2) Biologic processes associated with aging may cause A) an increased metabolic rate.
B) increased anxiety.
C) an increased ratio of adipose to muscle tissue.
D) increased kidney function.
Q3) Factors that influence the nutrition needs of young adults include A) growth.
B) climate.
C) personality type.
D) physical activity.
Q4) Physiologic problems of older adults include A) diarrhea.
B) increased salivary secretions.
C) decreased thirst and taste sensations.
D) increased muscle tone.
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Q1) To prevent ingesting food-borne parasites that might be present in meat.an important strategy is to
A) thoroughly reheat leftovers.
B) freeze the meat before cooking.
C) cook the meat thoroughly before eating.
D) store the meat in air-tight packaging.
Q2) If a food label states the product is low in cholesterol.it must also be low in A) sodium.
B) calories.
C) saturated fat.
D) total fat.
Q3) To increase shelf life.an example of a food that may be treated by irradiation is A) an apple.
B) yogurt.
C) a hotdog.
D) milk.
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Q1) Of the following.the healthiest snack item would be
A) whole-wheat crackers and hummus.
B) ice cream topped with strawberries.
C) pretzels with cheese dip.
D) chicken nuggets with ranch dip.
Q2) According to Jewish (kosher)food laws.an example of foods that must not be eaten together would be
A) chicken and noodles.
B) cheese and crackers.
C) a hamburger with cheese.
D) scrambled eggs and milk.
Q3) An example of foods for which consumption has increased because of changing lifestyles and family patterns are
A) fast-food french fries.
B) fresh apples and carrots.
C) fresh mashed potatoes.
D) homemade wheat breads.
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Q1) An effective method for weight reduction includes
A) fasting.
B) limiting food groups.
C) the drug phenylpropylamine.
D) behavior modification.
Q2) Body wraps result in a loss of A) muscle tissue.
B) cellulite.
C) body fat.
D) water.
Q3) The most significant contributing factor to the increase in obesity in the United States is
A) excessive alcohol intake.
B) excessive sugar intake.
C) lack of exercise.
D) lack of concern about weight control.
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Q1) Aerobic capacity is related to A) fitness of the heart and lungs.
B) hydration status.
C) hormone levels.
D) environmental temperature and humidity.
Q2) A lower proportion of lean body mass to fat is associated with A) a lower fitness level.
B) a greater fitness level.
C) no effect on fitness level.
D) a gradual decline in fitness level.
Q3) The effect of exercise on blood lipoprotein levels is to A) decrease low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and decrease high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
B) increase LDLs and increase HDLs.
C) increase LDLs and decrease HDLs.
D) decrease LDLs and increase HDLs.
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Q1) An alternative measure for height for a nonambulatory patient is A) total arm span.
B) skin calipers.
C) waist circumference.
D) creatinine height index.
Q2) The identification and labeling of an actual nutrition occurrence.risk of an occurrence.or potential for developing a nutrition problem is referred to as the nutrition A) diagnosis.
B) assessment.
C) plan.
D) intervention.
Q3) The laboratory test used to determine nitrogen balance is A) serum albumin.
B) hemoglobin.
C) urinary urea nitrogen.
D) serum transferrin.
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Q1) A food item that may be restricted in the patient with cirrhosis is A) apple slices.
B) orange sherbet.
C) hotdog.
D) peas.
Q2) The most important function of the gallbladder is to A) produce bile.
B) synthesize cholesterol.
C) release lipase enzymes.
D) concentrate and store bile.
Q3) The presence of gallstones in the gallbladder is called A) cholecystitis.
B) cholelithiasis.
C) cholecystectomy.
D) cholecystokinin.
Q4) The treatment of hepatitis includes A) rest and optimal nutrition.
B) antibiotics and optimal nutrition.
C) fluid restriction and rest.
D) diuretics and optimal nutrition.
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Q1) A food choice that may be limited in a meal plan controlling fat and cholesterol is
A) pork sausage.
B) baked beans.
C) broiled fish.
D) glazed carrots.
Q2) The best way to control coronary heart disease is
A) through early diagnosis.
B) to meet regularly with a dietitian.
C) to eliminate fat from the diet.
D) to develop a heart-healthy lifestyle during childhood.
Q3) The sandwich that is likely to have the lowest sodium content is a A) tuna sandwich.
B) ham sandwich.
C) grilled cheese sandwich.
D) plain hamburger.
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Q1) For individuals with type 2 diabetes.exercise
A) decreases insulin efficiency.
B) stimulates the release of insulin.
C) decreases risk of cardiovascular disease.
D) raises blood glucose levels.
Q2) For a patient receiving a 2000 kcal diet.the recommended range of calories that should come from carbohydrate is
A) 500 to 750 kcal.
B) 750 to 900 kcal.
C) 900 to 1300 kcal.
D) 1350 to 1650 kcal.
Q3) The accumulation of glucose in the blood is called A) glycosuria.
B) polydipsia.
C) hyperglycemia.
D) hypoglycemia.
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Q1) When patients with chronic kidney disease begin dialysis.they can increase their intake of A) protein.
B) phosphorus.
C) energy.
D) fat.
Q2) Clinical symptoms associated with chronic kidney disease do not include A) anemia.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) hypertension.
D) bone pain.
Q3) The massive edema of nephrotic syndrome is caused by A) blockage in the nephron tubules.
B) excessive fluid intake.
C) large protein losses in the urine.
D) a diet too high in sodium.
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Q1) Protein is especially needed in the postoperative recovery period for A) energy.
B) control of edema.
C) control of hypertension.
D) optimal kidney function.
Q2) Once placed on an oral diet following a gastrectomy.an appropriate meal would consist of
A) milk and applesauce.
B) sweet tea and cookies.
C) a scrambled egg and toast.
D) a plain hamburger and fries.
Q3) For a patient who can take an oral diet.a food that would be a good source of energy during the postoperative period would be A) lean steak.
B) breakfast cereal.
C) carrots.
D) fried potatoes.
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Q1) The immune system's ability to function is compromised by A) increased metabolism of water-soluble vitamins.
B) increased metabolism caused by emotional stress.
C) severe malnutrition with atrophy of organs and tissues.
D) increased hormonal levels associated with stress.
Q2) If salivary secretions are reduced or absent.it may be most helpful to A) serve a clear liquid diet.
B) use a tube feeding.
C) serve food in semiliquid form.
D) serve water with the meal.
Q3) The point at which a mutagen causes irreversible damage to DNA is referred to as A) neoplasms.
B) promotion.
C) initiation.
D) progression.
Q4) Cancer therapy that uses radioactive isotopes is A) surgery.
B) radiation therapy.
C) chemotherapy.
D) an x-ray.
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