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Introduction to Nutrition provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of human nutrition, exploring the roles and functions of macronutrients and micronutrients, the process of digestion and absorption, and the impact of dietary choices on health and well-being. Students will examine nutrient requirements across the lifespan, analyze current dietary guidelines, and evaluate the relationship between nutrition and chronic diseases. This course also introduces students to food labeling, dietary assessment methods, and the social, cultural, and ethical considerations influencing food choices, preparing them for informed decision-making regarding personal and public health nutrition.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition Concepts and Controversies 13th Edition by Frances Sienkiewicz Sizer
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Q1) Which of the following research designs are among the most powerful tools in nutrition research because they show the effects of treatments?
A) case studies
B) laboratory studies
C) intervention studies
D) a and b
E) b and c
Answer: E
Q2) A popular star has a half-hour television show describing a new dietary supplement that she claims has made her much healthier. During the show she describes how she has seen improvement in her skin, hair, and eyesight without going to the doctor. This is an example of:
A) an advertorial.
B) an urban legend.
C) an infomercial.
D) anecdotal evidence.
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the potential benefits of physical activity.
Answer: not answered
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Q1) The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) are appropriately used for all of the following except:
A) estimating the nutrient needs of persons with medical problems.
B) estimating the adequacy of an individual's nutrient intake.
C) planning diets for population groups like military personnel.
D) ensuring that minimum nutrient requirements are met.
Answer: A
Q2) The DRI Committee recommended a diet that provides _____% of its calories from carbohydrate.
A) 10-35
B) 20-35
C) 45-65
D) 50-70
Answer: C
Q3) The primary difference between recommendations for nutrient intakes and values set for energy intake is that the value for energy intake is not generous.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Digestion of macronutrients begins in the mouth with enzyme action on:
A) starches by carbohydrases.
B) proteins by proteases.
C) fats by lipases.
D) a and b
E) a and c
Answer: E
Q2) The body's circulating fluids include:
A) intracellular fluid.
B) blood.
C) lymph.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Answer: E
Q3) The vast majority of fat digestion takes place in the:
A) mouth with lipases secreted in the saliva.
B) stomach with lipases mixed with gastric juices.
C) small intestine with lipases released by the pancreas.
D) large intestine with lipases mixed with water.
Answer: C
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Q1) The form and glycemic load of carbohydrate consumed in the diet has the following relationship with diabetes:
A) there is a positive correlation between diabetes and a diet with a high glycemic load.
B) whole foods prevent diabetes.
C) refined carbohydrates cause diabetes.
D) diabetes is rare when whole foods provide most of the carbohydrates in a diet of moderate calories.
Q2) Describe the tasks of the various body systems in breaking down carbohydrate into glucose to fuel the cells' work.
Q3) Which of the following foods has the greatest cholesterol lowering effect?
A) wheat bran
B) cabbage
C) brown rice
D) oat bran
Q4) What advice would you give to someone who desires to increase fiber intake without experiencing problems with gas?
Q5) Describe the harmful effects of fiber when taken in excess.
Page 6
Q6) Explain the relationship between obesity and type 2 diabetes.
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Q1) About 95% of the lipids in foods and in the human body are:
A) triglycerides.
B) phospholipids.
C) sterols.
D) cholesterol.
Q2) Fatty acids may differ from one another:
A) in chain length.
B) in degree of saturation.
C) in number of calories.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q3) According to the USDA Food Patterns, most adults should limit protein foods intake to 5-7 oz./day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pork loin is an example of a lean cut of meat from which the fat can be trimmed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the functions of fats in the body.
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Q1) The heavy use of soy products in place of meat can inhibit _____ absorption.
A) calcium
B) folate
C) iron
D) vitamin C
Application-Level Multiple-Choice Items
Q2) When planning a vegetarian diet, you should:
A) select foods made from textured vegetable protein as a substitute for meat items.
B) emphasize fruits and vegetables high in iron and calcium.
C) select whole-grain breads and cereals to obtain easily absorbed iron.
D) drink soy milk, which by law must be fortified with calcium.
Q3) The roles of enzymes formed by body proteins are important when foods are eaten because:
A) each enzyme is responsible for numerous different chemical reactions.
B) an enzyme acts as a catalyst to speed up a reaction without being altered itself.
C) enzymes signal certain organs to respond to a change in conditions in the body.
D) some enzymes can become chemical messengers in the nervous system.
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Q1) The B vitamins work together with enzymes in the metabolism of energy nutrients and in the making of new cells. Controversy 7 True/False Items
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following situations would a vitamin E deficiency be least likely?
A) someone who eats a diet high in fat
B) someone who is born prematurely
C) someone who consumes a low-fat diet composed largely of convenience foods
D) someone with a disease condition that causes malabsorption of fat
Q3) A non-food source of vitamin K is:
A) sunlight.
B) intestinal bacteria.
C) antibiotics.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q4) Describe the rationale for the DRI Committee's recommendations for folate for women of childbearing age. What action has the FDA taken to increase the folate content of the diets of this population group?
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Q1) Which of the following foods provides the highest amount of zinc?
A) legumes
B) whole-grain bread
C) shellfish
D) spinach
Q2) Over half of the body's magnesium is stored in the:
A) teeth.
B) liver.
C) bones.
D) blood.
Q3) Calcium absorption declines in the elderly because:
A) older people tend to lose lean body mass.
B) aging skin is less efficient at making vitamin D.
C) many elderly people get inadequate sun exposure.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q4) The body will signal thirst before dehydration occurs to prevent problems with fluid loss.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Identify and discuss external cues that can lead to overeating behavior and weight gain.
Q2) Waist circumference indicates visceral fatness, and above a certain girth, disease risks rise.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rule of thumb that has been used in the past but does not apply equally to everyone is that one pound of body fat is equal to _____ calories.
A) 2500
B) 3000
C) 3500
D) 4000
Q4) Body mass index is unsuitable for use with:
A) adolescents.
B) athletes.
C) pregnant women.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q5) Describe what is meant by the female athlete triad.
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Q1) Anaerobic glucose breakdown produces a compound called _____ that accumulates in the tissues and blood.
A) urea
B) lactate
C) uric acid
D) amino acid
Q2) Sports anemia:
A) is a normal adaptation to endurance training.
B) requires treatment with iron supplements.
C) is temporary.
D) a and b
E) a and c
Q3) Recommendations have been established for moderate physical activity because:
A) over 75 percent of individuals in the U.S. are physically active and need guidelines.
B) physically active people live longer than those who are inactive.
C) very few people are aware of health benefits of physical activity.
D) only participating in a sport will provide health benefits.
Q4) Why are vegetarian female athletes particularly vulnerable to iron deficiency?
Q5) Describe the health benefits from physical activity.
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Q1) Excess calories from carbohydrates, protein, and fat all raise cancer rates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The role of inflammation in the development of atherosclerosis includes:
A) damage to the cells lining the arteries by factors such as high HDL cholesterol.
B) white blood cells being sent to the site by the immune system to try to repair the damage.
C) production of foam cells that help to capture and remove LDL from the artery wall.
D) proliferation of muscle cells of the artery wall, which repair the site.
Q3) The epigenome on the DNA strand:
A) regulates the expression of genes by turning them on or off.
B) makes the gene expression more permanent and difficult to change.
C) changes the DNA for different functions.
D) is active for only one generation.
Q4) Fraud is a problem in the genetic-testing marketplace today, particularly as it relates to nutrition.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following groups should avoid all uncooked or undercooked eggs?
A) the elderly
B) healthy adults
C) those who suffer immune dysfunction
D) a and b
E) a and c
Q2) What can be said about fresh produce and foodborne illness?
A) Fruits and vegetables are safe because they cannot be infected by illness-causing bacteria.
B) Rinsing produce will remove all contaminants that may be on the surface.
C) All canned vegetables are safe from bacteria-causing toxins.
D) Produce grown close to the ground may be irrigated with contaminated water.
Q3) Numerous health organizations have concluded that irradiation of food is safe and can improve food safety in the United States and the world.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contrast and compare the nutrient losses that occur with canning versus freezing.
Q5) Why is eating raw or lightly steamed seafood a risky business?
Q6) Why is orange juice canned or frozen before shipping?
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Q1) A woman who is breastfeeding is not able to eat enough food for two weeks because of a lack of money. What effect will it have on her breast milk?
A) The quantity of milk will decrease but it will still be nutritionally adequate.
B) She will stop making breast milk until she gets adequate food again.
C) There will not be any effect because the body will continue to produce enough.
D) The breast milk will be too concentrated in nutrients for the baby.
Q2) An obese woman is trying to get pregnant with her first baby. What recommendation would you give her?
A) Do not gain any weight during your pregnancy.
B) Try to lose weight during your pregnancy.
C) Avoid getting pregnant if at all possible.
D) Try to achieve a healthy pre-pregnancy weight first.
Q3) A low-birthweight baby is nearly 40 times more likely to die in the first year of life than is a normal-weight baby.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is the risk of dehydration higher for infants than for adults?
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Q1) Food labels must announce the presence of common allergens in plain language, using the names of the eight most common allergy-causing foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend that older adults:
A) avoid resistance exercise to reduce fracture risk.
B) perform at least 200 minutes of high-intensity exercise weekly.
C) include a wide variety and multiple intensity levels of exercise in their exercise plans.
D) incorporate balance exercises if they are at risk of falling.
Q3) Which of the following describes foods preferred by children?
A) hot vegetables
B) mild flavors
C) overcooked vegetables
D) unfamiliar but colorful fruits
Q4) Describe how chronic laxative use can lead to malnutrition.
Q5) Why do energy needs often decrease with advancing age?
Q6) Describe how appetite regulates energy intake in children. How can the child's environment influence this process?
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Q1) To solve the world's environmental, poverty, and hunger problems, rich nations must:
A) stem their wasteful and polluting use of resources.
B) gain control of their population growth.
C) develop plans for industrial growth.
D) a and b
E) a and c
Q2) In order to be an environmentally conscious shopper you would:
A) drive to the grocery store three times per week.
B) stock up on disposable plates and cups.
C) consume more plant foods than animal products.
D) eat large fish versus smaller ones.
Q3) Explain what is meant by the term "sustainable."
Q4) Facilities that collect and distribute food donations to authorized organizations feeding the hungry are called:
A) food recovery centers.
B) food banks.
C) food pantries.
D) emergency kitchens.
Q5) Explain some causes of and problems associated with human overpopulation.
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